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past year surgical mcq

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements regarding flail chest is TRUE?

a)

It occurs when more than two adjacent ribs are fractured in one place each

b)

It causes paradoxical chest wall movement during respiration

c)

It causes a left-to-right intracardiac shunt

d)

Endotracheal intubation is always required in all cases

e)

Flail chest alone is an absolute indication for thoracotomy

2.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding acute cholecystitis?

a)

It only occurs in the presence of gallstones

b)

Charcot’s triad is a common presentation

c)

White blood cell count remains normal in most cases

d)

It may be associated with elevated serum amylase

e)

A positive Murphy's sign confirms gallstones as the cause

3.

Which of the following statements regarding sterilisation is CORRECT?

a)

It kills all microbial life including spores

b)

Autoclaving is suitable for sterilising steel instruments

c)

Ethylene oxide is a non-corrosive gas used for sterilisation

d)

Plastic instruments are sterilised using a hot air oven

e)

Gamma irradiation is used for sterilisation in industrial settings

4.

Which of the following is a recognised complication of massive blood transfusion?

a)

Hypercalcaemia

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Coagulopathy

d)

Hepatic coma

e)

Hypokalaemia

5.

Which of the following measures is proven to reduce the risk of surgical site infections?

a)

Shaving the surgical site the day before admission

b)

Prophylactic antibiotic administration

c)

Insertion of an indwelling catheter

d)

Pre-operative physiotherapy

e)

Prolonged hospital admission before surgery

6.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding prophylactic antibiotic use?

a)

It is indicated in all patients with a history of rheumatic fever

b)

Cefuroxime is effective against anaerobic organisms

c)

Optimal timing is just before induction of anaesthesia

d)

They should be given for five days post-operatively

e)

Topical antibiotics are routinely used as prophylaxis

7.

Which of the following neck swellings typically moves with deglutition?

a)

Carotid body tumour

b)

Thyroglossal duct cyst

c)

Cystic hygroma

d)

Pre-tracheal lymph node

e)

Thyroid adenoma

8.

Which of the following is TRUE about portal hypertension?

a)

It is commonly caused by hepatic vein thrombosis

b)

Associated ascites is exudative in nature

c)

It may lead to hypersplenism

d)

It is commonly associated with hyperalbuminemia

e)

Esophageal varices are treated surgically in all cases

9.

Which of the following is TRUE in a patient with gastric outlet obstruction?

a)

Vomitus commonly contains bile

b)

Patients develop hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

c)

Succussion splash is a typical finding

d)

Patients present with hypernatremia and fluid overload

e)

Urine pH becomes alkaline due to vomiting

10.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about perforated gastric ulcer?

a)

It is a diagnosis of exclusion

b)

It often results from chronic NSAID use

c)

It is managed conservatively unless complications arise

d)

Free air under diaphragm confirms the diagnosis

e)

It may progress to gastric lymphoma after 2 years

11.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding keloid scars?

a)

They remain confined within the original wound borders

b)

Commonly occur in individuals with fair skin

c)

Can be treated with intralesional steroid injections

d)

Always regress spontaneously with time

e)

Are more common over extensor surfaces

12.

Which of the following is TRUE in children with intussusception?

a)

Constipation is the earliest symptom

b)

Inflamed Peyer’s patches may act as a lead point

c)

Projectile vomiting is rare

d)

Sign de Dance is a physical finding

e)

Stools are frequently tarry

13.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding colorectal carcinoma?

a)

Right-sided cancers are more likely to cause obstruction

b)

Familial adenomatous polyposis coli usually presents after 40 years of age

c)

About 30% of patients have liver metastasis at diagnosis

d)

HNPCC-associated tumours are usually right-sided

e)

Anaemia is more typical of left-sided lesions

14.

Which of the following is CORRECT about bladder carcinoma?

a)

More common in females

b)

Chronic bladder stones cause transitional cell carcinoma

c)

Exposure to aniline dyes increases the risk

d)

Urine cytology is useful for carcinoma in situ

e)

Poor 5-year survival even in superficial tumours

15.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding prostate cancer?

a)

Commonly arises in the central zone

b)

PSA is prostate-specific but not disease-specific

c)

Bone metastases are typically osteolytic

d)

Most patients present with LUTS

e)

Hereditary prostate cancer does not exist

16.

Which of the following conditions can cause blood-stained nipple discharge?

a)

Fibroadenoma

b)

Intraductal papilloma

c)

Cystosarcoma phyllodes

d)

Breast cyst

e)

Galactocele

17.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding minimally invasive surgery?

a)

Always contraindicated in obese patients

b)

Has a longer recovery time than open surgery

c)

Requires minimal surgical skill

d)

Commonly used for laparoscopic cholecystectomy

e)

Associated with greater post-operative pain

18.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding post-operative pain?

a)

Reduces risk of cardiac ischaemia

b)

Is best treated with oral analgesics only

c)

Increases risk of deep vein thrombosis

d)

Does not affect respiratory effort

e)

Pain levels are the same across all patients with similar surgery

19.

Which of the following is TRUE about autoclaving?

a)

Cannot exceed the boiling point of water

b)

Is less effective than dry heat sterilisation

c)

Can be monitored using the Bowie-Dick test

d)

Ineffective against bacterial spores

e)

Requires dry conditions for effectiveness

20.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding paraumbilical hernia?

a)

It is located around the umbilicus

b)

It is congenital in origin

c)

It resolves spontaneously over time

d)

It does not increase in size with time

e)

It never requires surgical repair

21.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a perforated gastric ulcer?

a)

It is commonly caused by chronic NSAID use

b)

It is a diagnosis of exclusion

c)

It is not a surgical emergency

d)

It is diagnosed by endoscopy

e)

It causes gastric lymphoma if untreated for 2 years

22.

Which of the following conditions commonly presents with blood-stained nipple discharge?

a)

Mammary duct ectasia

b)

Intraductal papilloma

c)

Fibroadenoma

d)

Paget’s disease of the breast

e)

Breast carcinoma

23.

Which of the following is a recognised complication of massive blood transfusion?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hepatic coma

d)

Leukopenia

e)

Polycythemia

24.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding keloid scars?

a)

They are normal wound healing scars

b)

They are more common in individuals with fair skin

c)

They extend beyond the borders of the original wound

d)

They resolve spontaneously after 1 year

e)

They cannot be treated

25.

Which of the following statements regarding minimally invasive surgery is TRUE?

a)

It can be used for cholecystectomy

b)

It is associated with slower recovery than open surgery

c)

It is not suitable for colectomy

d)

It is contraindicated in obese patients

e)

It requires minimal surgical training

26.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about flail chest?

a)

It occurs when two adjacent ribs are fractured in one place

b)

It causes paradoxical chest wall movement

c)

It causes a right-to-left shunt

d)

It always requires emergency thoracotomy

e)

It is managed only with pain control

27.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding post-operative pain?

a)

It reduces the risk of cardiac ischemia

b)

It is best managed only with oral analgesics as needed

c)

It may impair respiratory function

d)

It has no relation to thromboembolic events

e)

It is uniform across all patients with the same surgery

28.

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with obesity?

a)

Obstructive jaundice

b)

Wound dehiscence

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hypoglycemia

e)

Hypothyroidism

29.

Which of the following statements regarding disinfection is CORRECT?

a)

Povidone-iodine is commonly used for pre-operative skin preparation

b)

Chlorhexidine has less risk of skin irritation than povidone-iodine

c)

Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly potent disinfectants

d)

Chlorhexidine is not suitable for surgical scrubbing

e)

Povidone-iodine has a narrower spectrum than chlorhexidine

30.

Which of the following statements are true regarding varicocele?

a)

It is an aneurysmal dilatation of the testicular artery

b)

It is more common on the right side

c)

It is associated with left renal tumour

d)

It can cause infertility

e)

Surgical intervention is always required

31.

Which of the following are true regarding intussusception?

a)

Colicky abdominal pain is a common presentation

b)

Inflamed Peyer’s patches may act as a lead point

c)

Constipation is an early sign

d)

It is associated with projectile vomiting

e)

Dance’s sign may be elicited on physical examination

32.

Which of the following features are associated with gas gangrene?

a)

Trismus

b)

Putrid smell

c)

Caused by exotoxin-producing gram-positive aerobic bacilli

d)

Crepitus

e)

Risus sardonicus

33.

Which of the following statements are true regarding keloid scars?

a)

More common in pigmented skin

b)

Confined within original wound margins

c)

More common over flexor surfaces

d)

Tend to regress spontaneously

e)

May have a familial predisposition

34.

Which of the following are recognised complications of massive blood transfusion?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Acute pulmonary oedema

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Delayed wound healing

e)

Hypocalcemia

35.

Regarding colorectal cancer, which of the following are true?

a)

Left-sided cancer typically presents with anemia

b)

Obstruction is more common in left-sided tumours

c)

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is usually left-sided

d)

Familial adenomatous polyposis presents before age 40

e)

Occult liver metastases are present in ~30% at diagnosis

36.

Which of the following are true regarding acute cholecystitis?

a)

Can occur without gallstones

b)

May present with Charcot’s triad

c)

White blood cell count remains normal

d)

Serum amylase may be raised

e)

Positive Murphy’s sign indicates gallstone etiology

37.

Which of the following are true in portal hypertension?

a)

Can be caused by hepatic vein thrombosis

b)

May lead to hypersplenism

c)

Ascitic fluid is exudative in nature

d)

Commonly associated with hyperalbuminemia

e)

Bleeding esophageal varices may require surgical shunt

38.

Which of the following swellings move with swallowing?

a)

Carotid body tumour

b)

Thyroid adenoma

c)

Pretracheal lymph nodes

d)

Thyroglossal cyst

e)

Cystic hygroma

39.

Regarding post-operative pain:

a)

Increases risk of cardiac ischemia

b)

Best managed with oral analgesics as needed

c)

May improve respiratory function

d)

Increases risk of deep vein thrombosis

e)

Similar between patients undergoing same procedure

40.

Regarding small intestinal obstruction (SBO):

a)

Commonly caused by adhesions

b)

Constipation is typically the first symptom

c)

Fluid thrill is heard on examination

d)

X-ray shows peripheral bowel dilation

e)

Laparotomy is indicated if conservative measures fail

41.

Perforated Gastric Ulcer

Which of the following are true?

a)

Caused by chronic NSAID use

b)

Surgical emergency

c)

Diagnosed by air under diaphragm on X-ray

d)

Diagnosis of exclusion

e)

Progresses to gastric lymphoma in 2 years

42.

Which of the following conditions can cause bloody nipple discharge?

a)

Mammary duct ectasia

b)

Intraductal papilloma

c)

Fibroadenoma

d)

Paget’s disease

e)

Breast carcinoma

43.

Which of the following are true about sterilisation?

a)

Destroys all forms of microbial life

b)

Autoclaving is used for steel instruments

c)

Ethylene oxide is a corrosive gas

d)

Plastic tools are sterilised in hot ovens

e)

Gamma rays are used in industrial sterilisation

44.

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Which of the following are true?

a)

Presents with undermined edge ulcer

b)

May arise from chronic non-healing ulcers

c)

Can be caused by HPV

d)

May bleed easily

e)

Treatable with local radiation

45.

Flail chest injury

Which of the following statements are true?

a)

Involves ≥2 ribs fractured in ≥2 places

b)

Causes paradoxical movement

c)

Leads to left-to-right shunting

d)

May require intubation in severe cases

e)

Not an indication for thoracotomy

46.

Gastric outlet obstruction

Which of the following are true?

a)

Causes hypochloraemic alkalosis

b)

Vomitus contains bile

c)

Patient is hyponatraemic and dehydrated

d)

Urine becomes paradoxically acidic

e)

Succussion splash may be present

47.

Which of the following may complicate major abdominal surgery in jaundiced patients?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Wound infection

c)

Keloid formation

d)

Hepatorenal syndrome

e)

Cardiomyopathy

48.

Regarding bladder carcinoma:

a)

More common in males

b)

Dye exposure is a risk factor

c)

Chronic bladder stones predispose to adenocarcinoma

d)

Urine cytology is unreliable for carcinoma in situ

e)

Superficial tumours have a good 5-year survival rate

49.

Regarding paraumbilical hernia, which of the following statements are TRUE?

a)

It usually occurs around the umbilicus

b)

It is congenital in origin

c)

It resolves spontaneously

d)

It does not increase in size over time

e)

It requires surgical repair

50.

In the TNM staging of breast carcinoma, which findings are consistent with T2N2M1?

a)

Tumour diameter >5 cm

b)

Presence of peau d’orange

c)

Palpable, fixed axillary lymph nodes

d)

Oedema of the arm

e)

Absence of distant metastasis

51.

Which of the following are complications of massive blood transfusion?

a)

Hyperkalaemia

b)

Hypercalcaemia

c)

Hepatic coma

d)

Coagulopathy

e)

Leucopenia

52.

Regarding keloid scars, which of the following are TRUE?

a)

It is a normal scar tissue

b)

Treated with intralesional steroid injection

c)

More common in fair-skinned individuals

d)

Continues to grow after 1 year

e)

Extends beyond original wound margins

53.

Concerning autoclaving, which statements are TRUE?

a)

Can reach higher temperatures than boiling water

b)

Less effective penetration than dry heat

c)

Monitored with the Bowie-Dick test

d)

Monitored with Browne’s tube test

e)

Kills all microorganisms but not all spores

54.

Regarding basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the skin, which of the following are TRUE?

a)

Radioresistant

b)

Originates from the basal layer of the epidermis

c)

Rare type of skin cancer

d)

Commonly metastasises to lymph nodes

e)

Commonly found on the head and neck

55.

Which of the following are features of a false cyst?

a)

Has epithelial lining

b)

Contains exudate

c)

Can occur in a haematoma

d)

Arises from embryonic remnants

e)

Is compressible

56.

Which of the following are methods to arrest haemorrhage?

a)

Direct pressure

b)

Clamping with haemostat

c)

Application of topical lotions

d)

Excision of visceral organ

e)

Infrared radiation

57.

Which of the following are proven to reduce surgical site infection risk?

a)

Admission on the day of surgery

b)

Shaving the operative site prior to admission

c)

Early postoperative physiotherapy

d)

Use of prophylactic antibiotics

e)

Insertion of indwelling catheter

58.

Which of the following are differential diagnoses for reducible groin swelling?

a)

Ectopic testis

b)

Saphena varix

c)

Atheromatous femoral artery

d)

Varicocele

e)

Indirect inguinal hernia

59.

Causes of sudden onset abdominal pain include:

a)

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

b)

Intestinal obstruction

c)

Acute diverticulitis

d)

Perforated viscus

e)

Dissecting aortic aneurysm

60.

Preoperative preparation for biliary surgery includes:

a)

Adequate bowel preparation

b)

Oral vitamin K

c)

External biliary decompression

d)

Adequate hydration

e)

Antibiotic prophylaxis

61.

Which of the following factors promote wound healing?

a)

Young age

b)

Zinc supplementation

c)

Chronic liver disease

d)

Presence of haematoma

e)

Presence of infection

62.

Appropriate investigations for a male patient with LUTS include:

a)

Urinalysis

b)

Serum creatinine

c)

Serum calcium

d)

PSA

e)

Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) X-ray

63.

A neck swelling that moves with deglutition may be:

a)

Thyroglossal duct cyst

b)

Cystic hygroma

c)

Pretracheal lymph node

d)

Thyroid adenoma

e)

Carotid body tumour

64.

Regarding flail chest, which of the following statements are TRUE?

a)

Involves fracture of one or more ribs in more than one place

b)

Causes paradoxical chest wall movement

c)

Always indicates the need for laparotomy

d)

May lead to respiratory compromise

e)

Typically managed with internal fixation

65.

Concerning small bowel obstruction, which of the following are TRUE?

a)

Commonly caused by adhesions

b)

Constipation is the earliest symptom

c)

Fluid thrill is commonly heard on examination

d)

Peripheral bowel loop dilatation seen on plain X-ray

e)

Requires laparotomy if conservative treatment fails

66.

Raised intracranial pressure (ICP) is associated with:

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Hypotension

c)

Apnoea

d)

Transtentorial herniation

e)

Foramen magnum herniation

67.

Regarding internal haemorrhoids, which of the following are TRUE?

a)

Involve venous dilatation within the anal canal

b)

Second-degree haemorrhoids prolapse but reduce spontaneously

c)

Always palpable on digital rectal examination

d)

Contain an arterial component

e)

First-degree haemorrhoids can be managed by rubber band ligation

68.

Concerning postoperative pain, which of the following are TRUE?

a)

Increases the risk of postoperative cardiac ischaemia

b)

Best managed with oral analgesia

c)

May improve respiratory function if relieved

d)

Associated with increased risk of DVT

e)

Similar pain experience in all patients undergoing the same procedure

69.

The following are proven to reduce the risk of surgical site infection:

a)

Admission on the day of surgery

b)

Pre-admission shaving of the operative site

c)

Early postoperative physiotherapy

d)

Administration of prophylactic antibiotics

e)

Use of indwelling urinary catheters

70.

Concerning antibiotic prophylaxis, which of the following are TRUE?

a)

Indicated in patients with rheumatic fever history

b)

Cefuroxime is effective against aerobic organisms

c)

Best administered just before induction of anaesthesia

d)

Should be given for 5 days for optimal effect

e)

Topical antibiotics are practiced in ophthalmic surgery