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MEDL 279 Hemostasis Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Platelets are produced from which type of cell?

a)

Megakaryocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Monocytes

2.

What percentage of platelets are found in the spleen?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

70%

3.

What is the basic reference range for platelet count per mm3?

a)

150-450,000/mm3

b)

50-100,000/mm3

c)

500-1,000,000/mm3

d)

10,000-50,000/mm3

4.

What is the typical lifespan of platelets?

a)

9-12 days

b)

1-2 days

c)

20-25 days

d)

30-40 days

5.

Which glycoprotein binds to exposed collagen during platelet adhesion?

a)

Glycoprotein Ib

b)

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

c)

Glycoprotein VI

d)

Glycoprotein Ia/IIa

6.

Von Willebrands factor is required for which process in hemostasis?

a)

Adhesion of platelets

b)

Activation of fibrinogen

c)

Synthesis of thrombin

d)

Degradation of clot

7.

What is the first phase of platelet aggregation?

a)

Fibrinogen binding links the platelets

b)

Platelets release serotonin

c)

Platelets contract to form a plug

d)

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

8.

Secreting platelets release arachidonic acid, which converts to what in the platelet?

a)

Prostaglandin

b)

Serotonin

c)

Histamine

d)

Dopamine

9.

Which components are included in platelet release during the assembly and localization of the fibrin clot?

a)

Fibrinogen, Factor V, Factor VIII

b)

Collagen, ADP, Thrombin

c)

Prostaglandin, Arachidonic acid, ADP

d)

Glycoprotein Ib, Fibrinogen, Collagen

10.

Which factor is the substrate in the plasma coagulation process?

a)

Factor I (fibrinogen)

b)

Factor II

c)

Factor V

d)

Factor VIII

11.

Which of the following are cofactors that accelerate enzymatic reactions in plasma coagulation?

a)

Factors III, V, and VII

b)

Factors I, II, and IV

c)

Factors IX, X, and XI

d)

Factors VIII, IX, and XIII

12.

Which enzyme cleaves peptide bonds in plasma coagulation?

a)

Serine proteases

b)

Transamidase

c)

Factor HMWK

d)

Prekallikrein

13.

Fill in the blank: Transamidase acts on ______ only during plasma coagulation.

a)

Factor XIII

b)

Factor IX

c)

Factor VII

d)

Factor X

14.

Which of the following are contact proteins involved in coagulation?

a)

Factors XII, XI, PK & HMWK

b)

Factors I, V, VIII, XIII

c)

Factors II, VII, IX, X

d)

Prekallikrein and HMWK

15.

Which proteins are vitamin K dependent and are not consumed during clotting except for Factor II?

a)

Prothrombin proteins (Factors II, VII, IX, X)

b)

Fibrinogen proteins (Factors I, V, VIII, XIII)

c)

Contact proteins (Factors XII, XI, PK & HMWK)

d)

Enzymes

16.

Fill in the blank: Fibrinogen proteins are consumed during the ______ process and increased in the ______ phase.

a)

clotting, acute

b)

healing, chronic

c)

digestion, latent

d)

respiratory, recovery

17.

How are factor names denoted in plasma coagulation?

a)

By Roman Numerals

b)

By Greek Letters

c)

By Arabic Numbers

d)

By Colors

18.

Which of the following is an exception to the factor naming system in plasma coagulation?

a)

Prekallikrein

b)

Factor I

c)

Factor VII

d)

Factor XIII

19.

What factor is activated extrinsically by disrupted endothelial cell membrane complex with factor VII to directly activate it?

a)

Factor X

b)

Factor IX

c)

Factor VIII

d)

Factor XI

20.

Which cofactor is bound with activated factor IX by calcium to the platelet phospholipid membrane (PL)?

a)

Factor VIII

b)

Factor V

c)

Factor X

d)

Factor XII

21.

What does the prothrombinase complex convert prothrombin to?

a)

Active thrombin

b)

Inactive fibrin

c)

Plasminogen

d)

Fibrinogen

22.

Thrombin cleaves peptides off of the fibrinogen molecule to form ______, which polymerizes to form insoluble fibrin strands.

a)

fibrin

b)

albumin

c)

collagen

d)

elastin

23.

What factor does thrombin activate, which crosslinks the fibrin strands at the 'D' region?

a)

Factor XIII

b)

Factor VII

c)

Factor IX

d)

Factor X

24.

Heparan sulfate on the endothelial cell binds to which molecule to inactivate the activated serine proteases?

a)

Antithrombin (AT)

b)

Protein C

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Plasminogen

25.

What does activated Protein C and its cofactor Protein S inactivate?

a)

Factors VIII and V

b)

Factors II and VII

c)

Factors IX and X

d)

Factors XI and XII

26.

The fibrinolytic system is activated intrinsically by collagen via which factor?

a)

Factor XII

b)

Factor IX

c)

Factor VII

d)

Factor V

27.

What does plasmin cleave fibrin strands to?

a)

Soluble fragments of fibrin

b)

Insoluble fibrin clots

c)

Platelet aggregates

d)

Activated thrombin

28.

What is the recommended percentage of sodium citrate for specimen collection in coagulation studies?

a)

3.2%

b)

2.2%

c)

5.0%

d)

1.5%

29.

What is the basic reference range for Prothrombin Time (PT)?

a)

<= 13 seconds

b)

15-20 seconds

c)

20-25 seconds

d)

30-35 seconds

30.

Which factors are measured by Prothrombin Time (PT)?

a)

A) I, II, V, VII, X

b)

B) All factors except VII & XIII

c)

C) Only factor I

d)

D) None of the above

31.

What is the therapeutic goal for the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in Prothrombin Time (PT)?

a)

2.0-3.5

b)

0.5-1.0

c)

4.0-5.0

d)

1.0-1.5

32.

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) is used to monitor which therapy?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Heparin

c)

Aspirin

d)

None of the above

33.

What is the basic reference range for Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)?

a)

20-40 seconds

b)

10-20 seconds

c)

40-60 seconds

d)

60-80 seconds

34.

Which test is a quantitative measure of factor I?

a)

Fibrinogen assay

b)

Prothrombin time

c)

Activated partial thromboplastin time

d)

D-dimer test

35.

Thrombin Time (TT) is affected by decreased levels of ______ and presence of heparin and other antithrombins.

a)

fibrinogen

b)

prothrombin

c)

calcium

d)

vitamin K

36.

What is the normal range for Bleeding Time (forearm)?

a)

2-9 minutes

b)

10-15 minutes

c)

0.5-1 minute

d)

15-20 minutes

37.

Which of the following is NOT an in vivo aggregation agent for platelet aggregation?

a)

ADP

b)

Collagen

c)

Calcium

d)

Thrombin

38.

Which of the following are agents that induce platelet aggregation?

a)

ADP, Collagen, Ristocetin, Epinephrine, Thrombin, Arachidonic acid

b)

Insulin, Glucose, Calcium, Potassium

c)

Heparin, Warfarin, Aspirin, Ibuprofen

d)

Vitamin K, Vitamin D, Iron, Zinc

39.

As platelets aggregate, the turbidity of the platelet rich plasma _________?

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains unchanged

d)

fluctuates

40.

Samples for platelet aggregation testing are kept at what temperature prior to testing?

a)

Room temperature (RT), heated to 37°C

b)

Refrigerated at 2-8°C

c)

Frozen at -20°C

d)

Incubated at 56°C

41.

Aspirin inhibits the secondary wave of aggregation because ________ is destroyed.

a)

Cyclooxygenase

b)

Thrombin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Collagen

42.

Abnormal ristocetin-induced aggregation is seen in which of the following disorders?

a)

A) Bernard-Soulier and Von Willebrand's

b)

B) Hemophilia A and B

c)

C) Sickle cell anemia and Thalassemia

d)

D) Iron deficiency anemia and Megaloblastic anemia

43.

PT & APTT tests are performed with what type of plasma for factor assays?

a)

Normal plasma

b)

Specific factor deficient plasma

c)

Platelet rich plasma

d)

Serum

44.

The normal range for % activity and amount of correction with normal plasma in factor assays is _________.

a)

40-150%

b)

10-30%

c)

60-200%

d)

25-75%

45.

The APTT is insensitive to which anticoagulant?

a)

LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)

b)

Unfractionated Heparin

c)

Warfarin

d)

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

46.

Reptilase time is a test similar to thrombin time, but is not inhibited by ________.

a)

heparin

b)

warfarin

c)

aspirin

d)

clopidogrel

47.

What is the deficiency in Hemophilia A?

a)

Factor IX

b)

Factor XI

c)

Factor VIII

d)

vWF

48.

Hemophilia B is treated with _________.

a)

factor IX concentrates

b)

factor VIII concentrates

c)

vitamin K

d)

desmopressin

49.

Which of the following is almost exclusively seen in men and is sex-linked recessive?

a)

Hemophilia A

b)

Hemophilia B

c)

Both A and B

d)

Hemophilia C

50.

Hemophilia C is most commonly seen in which population?

a)

A) Ashkenazi Jews

b)

B) African Americans

c)

C) Asians

d)

D) Hispanics

51.

Von Willebrand’s Disease is characterized by a primary defect in the ________.

a)

vWF (von Willebrand factor)

b)

platelet membrane glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

c)

fibrinogen

d)

prothrombin

52.

Which test detects Factor XIII deficiency?

a)

5M urea test

b)

Bleeding time

c)

Platelet count

d)

PT/INR

53.

Lupus anticoagulant (LA) is directed against _________?

a)

phospholipids

b)

immunoglobulins

c)

red blood cells

d)

platelets

54.

Vitamin K deficiency results in functional deficiency of which clotting factors?

a)

Factors II, VII, IX, and X

b)

Factors I, V, VIII, and XIII

c)

Factors III, V, VII, and XII

d)

Factors I, II, V, and VIII

55.

Which molecule is present but not functional in Vitamin K deficiency?

a)

PIVKA molecules

b)

Albumin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemoglobin

56.

Vitamin K originates from the diet and which other source?

a)

Gut bacteria

b)

Skin cells

c)

Liver enzymes

d)

Pancreatic juice

57.

Deficiency of which factors is seen in liver diseases?

a)

Factors I, II, V, VII, IX, and X

b)

Factors VIII and XIII only

c)

Factors III, IV, and VI

d)

Factors XI and XII

58.

Which factor deficiency is most pronounced in liver diseases?

a)

Factor VII deficiency

b)

Factor IX deficiency

c)

Factor VIII deficiency

d)

Factor XII deficiency

59.

What is increased due to fibrinolysis in liver diseases?

a)

FDP (Fibrin Degradation Products)

b)

Albumin

c)

Prothrombin

d)

Bilirubin

60.

DIC is secondary to which conditions?

a)

Sepsis or obstetric complications

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

61.

Which of the following is a principal antagonist of active coagulation proteases?

a)

Protein C

b)

Antithrombin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Plasminogen

62.

Thrombotic diseases can be divided into which two main types of events?

a)

Arterial Events and Venous Events

b)

Pulmonary Events and Cardiac Events

c)

Hepatic Events and Renal Events

d)

Neurological Events and Gastrointestinal Events

63.

Protein S is a ______ dependent protein that acts as a co-factor for protein C.

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Calcium

c)

Iron

d)

Magnesium

64.

Which of the following states is functional for protein S?

a)

Bound

b)

Free

c)

Both bound and free

d)

None of the above

65.

Factor V Leiden is a ______ Factor V that resists the action of protein C/S.

a)

Mutant

b)

Normal

c)

Inactive

d)

Deficient

66.

The activated Protein C Resistance test is used to detect which condition?

a)

Protein S deficiency

b)

Factor V Leiden

c)

Antiphospholipid syndrome

d)

Prothrombin mutation

67.

Antiphospholipid syndrome can be associated with which of the following antibodies?

a)

Anticardiolipin antibodies

b)

Lupus anticoagulant

c)

Beta 2-glycoprotein antibodies

d)

All of the above

68.

1-2% of the general population are ______ for the prothrombin mutation.

a)

heterozygotes

b)

homozygotes

c)

hemizygotes

d)

carriers of sickle cell trait

69.

Prothrombin mutation results in increased ______ formation.

a)

thrombin

b)

fibrinogen

c)

platelet

d)

plasmin

70.

Prothrombin mutation increases the risk of what type of event?

a)

thrombotic event

b)

hemorrhagic event

c)

allergic reaction

d)

infectious disease