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BIOL 2401 Exam 2 Review

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a function of the skin?

a)

sensory organ for pain¸ vibration¸ and changes in temperature

b)

protection against excessive water loss

c)

aids in the synthesis of vitamin D

d)

involved in thermoregulation of the body

2.

How do melanocytes contribute to the function of the epidermis?

a)

They produce keratin for waterproofing

b)

They act as antigen-presenting cells for immune response.

c)

They are found in all layers including the stratum corneum.

d)

They produce pigment for UV protection.

3.

Which factor is NOT directly responsible for affecting skin pigmentation?

a)

Degree of transfer within the dermis

b)

Type of melanin produced

c)

Size and number of melanosomes produced

d)

Thickness of the hypodermis

4.

What is the correct sequence of the epidermal layers from the outermost to the innermost layer in thick skin?

a)

Stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale

b)

Stratum basale, Stratum spinosum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum lucidum, Stratum corneum

c)

Stratum granulosum, Stratum corneum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale, Stratum lucidum

d)

Stratum lucidum, Stratum basale, Stratum spinosum, Stratum granulosum, Stratum corneum

5.

layer of the epidermis that is NOT found in thin skin.

a)

Stratum lucidum

b)

Stratum basale

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum granulosum

6.

Vitamin D3 is important for the absorption of what biologically important ion?

a)

potassium

b)

calcium

c)

iron

d)

magnesium

e)

nitrogen

7.

Which of the following statements best describes the primary functions of the dermis?

a)

Supports epidermis and provides sensory functions.

b)

Serves as a major site for keratinocyte production.

c)

Specializes in pigmentation and vitamin D production.

d)

Acts as a protective barrier against pathogens.

8.

What is a primary function of the hypodermis in the integumentary system?

a)

Protection from UV radiation

b)

Energy storage and insulation

c)

Synthesis of vitamin D

d)

Keratin production

9.

Ricky just completed a 2-hour cardio session at the gym. To cool the body down after an intensive workout, his body ______.

a)

increases sudoriferous apocrine gland activity

b)

increases sudoriferous eccrine gland activity

c)

decreases sudoriferous apocrine gland activity

d)

decreases sudoriferous eccrine gland activity

10.

The epiphyses of long bones are covered by ______.

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

cartosteum

d)

hyaline cartilage

e)

canals

11.

Compare the role of collagen and hydroxyapatite in bone physiology.

a)

Collagen provides protection against compressive forces, while hydroxyapatite protects against bone flexing.

b)

Collagen stores calcium within bone, while hydroxyapatite determines bone length.

c)

Hydroxyapatite provides protection against compressive forces, while collagen protects against bone flexing.

d)

Both hydroxyapatite and collagen act as a template for bone growth.

12.

Select the answer that correctly describes the cells involved in bone remodeling.

a)

Osteoclasts remove old bone, while osteoblasts form new bone.

b)

Osteoclast form new bone, osteocytes remodel existing bone, and osteoblasts remove old bone.

c)

Osteoclasts remove osteons in the diaphysis, while osteoblasts form new bone on the epiphyses of bone.

d)

Osteoclasts decrease bone diameter as a response to mechanical stresses.

13.

How does parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulate plasma calcium levels when they are too low?

a)

By increasing activity of osteoblasts to deposit calcium in bones.

b)

By stimulating osteoclast activity to release stored calcium into the blood.

c)

By enhancing calcitonin secretion for promoting calcium absorption.

d)

By promoting increased excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

14.

Which of the following best explains the difference between endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification?

a)

Endochondral ossification forms membranous bones from fibrous membranes.

b)

Endochondral ossification involves the replacement of hyaline cartilage to form most of the skeleton.

c)

Intramembranous ossification replaces most of the fetal skeleton with hyaline cartilage.

d)

Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation through hyaline cartilage.

15.

According to the principle highlighted by Wolff’s Law, what happens to bones when subjected to consistent mechanical stress?

a)

Bones remodel to become denser and stronger.

b)

Bones maintain their current density and structure.

c)

Bones become less dense and undergo deterioration.

d)

Bones become more flexible and elastic.

16.

The axis is another name for the second thoracic vertebrae.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Through which of these structures does the spinal cord pass?

a)

spinous process

b)

vertebral foramen

c)

pedicle

d)

transverse process

e)

intervertebral foramina

18.

Without the hyoid bone, we could not ______.

a)

chew our food properly

b)

smell odors properly

c)

swallow food properly

d)

hear sounds properly

e)

close our eyes properly

19.

The connection between the pectoral girdle and axial skeleton is made through the ______ and ______.

a)

humerus; sternum

b)

clavicle; sternum

c)

clavicle; acromion

d)

scapula; humerus

e)

humerus; scapula

20.

The prominent knob of the elbow is the ______.

a)

deltoid tuberosity

b)

trochlea line

c)

olecranon process

d)

capitulum fossa

e)

ulnar styloid process

21.

True or False: The superior (i.e., top) edge of the ilium is the iliac crest.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A lateral projection on the femur’s proximal epiphysis is the ______.

a)

major trochanter

b)

gluteal tuberosity

c)

greater trochanter

d)

neck

e)

olecranon conjecture

23.

How do joint classifications inform their functionality and potential for movement?

a)

By the presence of a joint capsule only.

b)

By the stability the joint provides.

c)

By the joint's location in the body.

d)

By the type of connective tissue and joint movement allowed.

24.

What is a distinguishing feature of biaxial synovial joints compared to uniaxial joints?

a)

They possess three axes of rotation and allow for circumduction.

b)

They have two axes of rotation, allowing for movements like abduction and circumduction.

c)

They have no identifiable axis of rotation and allow for gliding movements.

d)

They share only one axis of rotation and are limited to hinge-like movements.

25.

What role, if any, does synovial fluid play in joint homeostasis?

a)

Synovial fluid lowers friction between moving parts.

b)

Synovial fluid provides nutrients to and removes wastes from chondrocytes.

c)

Blood vessels in the joint space release oxygen to the synovial fluid.

d)

Synovial fluid does not have a role in homeostasis.

26.

True or False: Joints connecting ribs to the vertebral column are immovable.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the following is an example of a fibrous joint?

a)

a vertebral body articulating with a neighboring vertebral body

b)

a tooth articulating with its socket in the jaw

c)

the two parietal bones of the skull articulating with each other

d)

an epiphysis articulating with a diaphysis

28.

What type of tissue is located between the bones in a symphysis?

a)

fibrocartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

spongy bone

d)

synovial fluid

29.

Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis __________.

a)

affects only small joints, while rheumatoid arthritis only affects large joints

b)

is characterized by joint inflammation

c)

is an autoimmune disease

d)

can affect just one joint

e)

all of the above

30.

Stretch marks are the result of ________ tearing due to pregnancy or extreme weight gain.

a)

elastic fibers

b)

collagen fibers

c)

epidermis

d)

stratum corneum

31.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between stratum corneum and stratum basale?

a)

The stratum basale contains blood vessels; the stratum corneum does not.

b)

The stratum basale has dividing cells; the stratum corneum does not.

c)

The stratum basale has lost all organelles; the stratum corneum has not.

d)

The stratum corneum is directly next to the hypodermis; the stratum basale is more superficial.

32.

Why do keratinocytes die once they reach the top of the epidermis?

a)

They are cut off from nutrients.

b)

They die as a result of releasing melanin.

c)

They die from UV radiation.

d)

They die as a result of desquamation.

33.

Which statement best describes the difference between thick and thin skin?

a)

The stratum lucidum is only found in thick skin.

b)

Keratinocytes are only found in thin skin.

c)

The stratum basale is only found in thick skin.

d)

Keratohyalin is only found in the stratum basale.

34.

What is the importance of melanin in the integumentary system?

a)

Melanin allows the skin to resist physical abrasion from friction.

b)

Melanin is needed for the correct epidermal thickness in areas of the body that experience friction.

c)

Melanin provides protection against the damaging effects of UV radiation.

d)

Melanin provides the substrate for vitamin D synthesis.

35.

Melanoma is a type of skin cancer manifesting as asymmetrical brown or black irregular patches on the skin. These are caused by the uncontrolled cell growth of these pigment-producing cells.

a)

keratinocytes

b)

melanoblasts

c)

carotenocytes

d)

melanocytes

e)

keratinoblasts

36.

Which layer has an active role in defending the body against foreign pathogens?

a)

the epidermis

b)

the dermis

c)

the hypodermis

d)

none of the above

37.

Candace is pan frying some chicken over the stovetop on high heat when she accidentally bumps the edge of her hand onto the pan. After running the burned area over cooled water, she notices that the area has begun to blister. This is due to damage between which two layers?

a)

stratum lucidum and granulosum

b)

stratum ganulosum and spinosum

c)

stratum spinosum and basale

d)

stratum basale and dermal papillary layer

e)

dermal papillary layer and dermal reticular layer

38.

Acne commonly arises during puberty for many teenagers, due to increased ________ production. This, in turn, makes the skin more oily and can block hair follicles, which potentially become infected.

a)

sebum

b)

keratin

c)

sweat

d)

carotene

e)

vitamin D

39.

Which of the following best describes the main physiological function of the integumentary system?

a)

thermal regulation

b)

blood reservoir

c)

mineral storage

d)

blood cell production

e)

protection

40.

Which of the following is the best definition of the axial skeleton?

a)

all the bones in the body above the belt

b)

all the bones in the body below the belt

c)

all the bones that make up the limbs

d)

the skull, rib cage, and vertebrae

41.

Which of the following is NOT a normal function of the skeletal system?

a)

to support the body

b)

to work with muscles to move tissues

c)

to protect the central nervous system from mechanical trauma

d)

to provide a reservoir of calcium and phosphate

e)

to provide a reservoir of collagen

42.

Which of the following is the basic functional unit of compact bone?

a)

periosteum

b)

trabeculae

c)

lamellae

d)

lacunae

e)

osteon

43.

Compare the function of osteoclasts to osteocytes.

a)

Osteoclasts resorb bone, while osteocytes make new bone.

b)

Osteocytes resorb bone, while osteoclasts remodel bone.

c)

Osteoclasts are stem cells that give rise to all of the other cells found within bones.

d)

Osteocytes maintain existing bone, while osteoclasts resorb bone.

44.

Predict what would happen if the epiphyseal plate never ossified.

a)

Long bones would continue growing in length

b)

Long bones would never grow to full length.

c)

Compact bone would not form into long bones.

d)

Calcium would be lost from epiphyseal lines.

45.

What is the purpose of the costal groove of a rib?

a)

It is a conduit for nerves and blood vessels to pass through.

b)

It is where the numerically corresponding vertebrae articulates with the rib.

c)

It is where the ribs attach to the sternum.

d)

It is where the costal cartilage begins.

46.

I anticipate that if the skull were to be comprised of a single piece of bone, it would lead to ______.

a)

improved protection of the brain, but the skull would not allow for any changes in brain size during growth

b)

a requirement for larger muscles to move the skull

c)

smaller muscles needed to move the skull

d)

many more fossa or foramina in the skull

47.

Hypothesize how a pregnancy would affect vertebrae curvature.

a)

The cervical curvature would be greater.

b)

The lumbar curvature would be less.

c)

The thoracic curvature would be less.

d)

The lumbar curvature would be greater.

48.

Which statement best distinguishes the difference between concentric lamellae and perforating canals inside bones?

a)

Concentric lamellae are a passageway for nerves and blood vessels to enter osteons; perforating canals directly connect the fluid surrounding osteocytes.

b)

Perforating canals are a passageway for nerves and blood vessels to enter osteons; concentric lamellae are small fluid-filled cavities containing osteocytes.

c)

Concentric lamellae are small fluid-filled cavities containing osteocytes; perforating canals directly connect the fluid surrounding osteocytes.

d)

Concentric lamellae are cylindrical structures within osteons; perforating canals are perpendicular channels that connect neighboring osteons.

49.

Which statement best describes how constant exercise would change the likelihood of osteoporosis in older women?

a)

Exercise at any age increases bone density, which is decreased by osteoporosis.

b)

Exercise increases the removal of osteoporotic bone by osteoclasts.

c)

Exercise can increase the likelihood of osteoporosis if there is insufficient phosphate in the diet.

d)

Constant exercise has been shown to have no effect on the course of osteoporosis.

50.

Identify the bones that make up the elbow joint.

a)

humerus, radius, and ulna

b)

radius, ulna, and tarsal bones

c)

radius, ulna, and carpal bones

d)

humerus, scapula, and sternum

51.

The head of the humerus forms a joint with the ________.

a)

acetabulum

b)

acromion

c)

glenoid fossa

d)

ischium

e)

pubic bone

52.

The angle where the left and right pubic bones meet is called the __________.

a)

superior pubic ramus

b)

pubic body

c)

inferior pubic ramus

d)

pubic arch

53.

The patellar ligament extends beyond the tendon within the ________ muscle and inserts into the ________ of the lower leg.

a)

quadriceps lateralis; fibula

b)

quadriceps femoris; tibia

c)

quadriceps femoris; fibula

d)

quadriceps lateralis; tibia

54.

Female pelvic bones are wider

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The two pelvic bones articulate with each other directly at the __________.

a)

sacroiliac joint

b)

coxal joint

c)

pubic symphysis

d)

pelvic symphysis

56.

Which of the following traits is characteristic of a female pelvic girdle?

a)

a narrow pelvic outlet

b)

an arch with an angle < 90°

c)

a deeper pubic symphysis

d)

a wider pelvic outlet

e)

a thicker pelvic girdle

57.

Why is the foot arched?

a)

This helps to distribute weight equally over the carpal bones.

b)

This is because of the joint formed between the tibia and talus.

c)

This because of the joints between the tarsal bones and the phalanges.

d)

This helps to distribute weight equally over the tarsal bones..

58.

Which bones form the shoulder joint?

a)

scapula, clavicle, and humerus

b)

scapula and clavicle

c)

clavicle and humerus

d)

scapula and humerus

59.

Which of the following bones form the pectoral girdle?

a)

humerus

b)

scapula

c)

clavicle

d)

clade

e)

sternum

60.

Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

a)

gomphosis

b)

suture

c)

symphysis

d)

syndesmoses

e)

synovial

61.

Compare the function of a bursa to a meniscus.

a)

A bursa reduces the friction of moving muscles around a joint, a meniscus cushions the joint between two bones.

b)

A meniscus reduces the friction of moving muscles around a joint, a bursa cushions the joint between two bones.

c)

A bursa is part of a muscle ligament that connects bones to skeletal muscle.

d)

A meniscus is a fluid-filled bag found in all synovial joints.

62.

What do hinge and saddle joints have in common?

a)

Both are fibrous joints.

b)

Both are triaxial joints.

c)

Both have joint capsules filled with fluid.

d)

Both have convex surfaces that form a joint with a convex surface.

63.

What is an example of a symphysis joint?

a)

intercarpal joints, which have slight movement

b)

shoulder, due to the glenoid labrum

c)

joints between vertebral bodies

d)

joints between the tibia and fibula

64.

Uniaxial joints such as the ________ allow the following movements: ________.

a)

elbow; flexion and extension

b)

radioulnar; pronation and supination

c)

both A and B

d)

neither A nor B

65.

The vertebral column is stabilized by ____________________.

a)

anterior longitudinal ligaments

b)

posterior longitudinal ligaments

c)

supraspinous ligaments

d)

all of the above

66.

Friction-free movement is made possible in __________ joints due to __________.

a)

symphysis; fibrocartilage pads

b)

synovial; synovial fluid

c)

synchondrosis; hyaline cartilage

d)

synovial; hyaline cartilage alone

e)

synovial; synovial fluid and hyaline cartilage together

67.

Unlike a synchondrosis, a symphysis __________.

a)

is a fibrous joint

b)

is a cartilaginous joint

c)

is a synovial joint

d)

allows slight movement

e)

does not allow movement

68.

X-ray imaging shows an abnormally increased distance between the acromion and humeral head. This patient probably has a/an ________ due to ________.

a)

unstable ankle; a sprained syndesmosis

b)

painful shoulder; subluxation

c)

painful elbow; nursemaid’s elbow

d)

unstable ankle; subluxation

e)

painful hip; dislocation

69.

Which of the following is the middle layer of the integumentary system?

a)

hypodermis

b)

epidermis

c)

dermis

70.

The hypodermal layer is also referred to as the ________.

a)

adipose layer

b)

epidermal layer

c)

muscle layer

71.

What is the most common cell type within the epidermis?

a)

chondroblasts

b)

osteoblasts

c)

keratinocytes

d)

fibroblasts

72.

Which cell type provides immune protection within the epidermis?

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

fibroblasts

c)

keratinocytes

d)

adipocytes

73.

If a person has a genetic mutation that affects the tyrosinase gene, they will be which of the following?

a)

unable to kill microorganisms that invade the skin

b)

unable to produce the pigment carotene

c)

more susceptible to sunburns and skin cancer

d)

more likely to have dry and itchy skin

74.

Which of the following is a red-yellow pigment that contributes to the color of someone’s skin?

a)

eumelanin

b)

phoemelanin

c)

carotene

d)

melanin

75.

Damage to Merkel cells will affect your ability to ________.

a)

experience pain when being stuck by a needle at the doctor’s office

b)

produce pigment when your skin is exposed to sunlight

c)

determine the shape of an object

d)

kill invading microorganisms that enter the skin through a wound

76.
  • Meissner’s corpuscle

a)
  • light touch¸ pressure¸ and vibration

b)
  • pain¸ tickle¸ and itch

c)
  • fine touch and pressure

d)
  • deep pressure and vibration

77.
  • free nerve endings

a)
  • pain¸ tickle¸ and itch

b)
  • fine touch and pressure

c)

deep pressure and vibration

d)
  • pressure and distortion of the skin

78.
  • Merkel cells

a)
  • fine touch and pressure

b)
  • deep pressure and vibration

c)
  • pressure and distortion of the skin

d)
  • light touch¸ pressure¸ and vibration

79.
  • lamellated corpuscle

a)
  • deep pressure and vibration

b)

pressure and distortion of the skin

c)

light touch¸ pressure¸ and vibration

d)

pain¸ tickle¸ and itch

80.
  • Ruffini corpuscles

a)
  • pressure and distortion of the skin

b)
  • deep pressure and vibrationMerkel cells

    fine touch and pressure

c)

fine touch and pressure

d)

pain¸ tickle¸ and itch

81.

The inner portion of the hair shaft that is formed from cells located in the center of the hair matrix is called the ________.

a)

cuticle

b)

cortex

c)

medulla

82.

Removal of ________ would block our ability to have goose bumps?

a)

arrector pili muscle

b)

sweat glands

c)

the epidermis

d)

adipocytes

83.

Which of the following glands produces a watery secretion?

a)

sudoriferous

b)

apocrine

c)

merocrine

84.

Which of the following doesn't damage the skin and increase wrinkles?

a)

UV radiation

b)

chemicals from cigarette smoke

c)

decrease in granular secretions

d)

increase in the growth of stratum basale cells

85.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?

a)

protection

b)

support and attachment

c)

blood cell formation

d)

sodium ion homeostasis

e)

movement

86.

Openings in the bone include all of the following except ______.

a)

fissure

b)

foramen

c)

canal (or meatus)

d)

condyle

87.

Bone projections include all of the following except ________.

a)

line

b)

spine

c)

crest

d)

condyle

e)

facet

88.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The petrous region is found in the middle of the inside surface of the frontal.

b)

The parietal bone forms the front forehead.

c)

The sphenoid bone makes a connection with all other cranial bones.

d)

The pterygoid process of the ethmoid bone is where chewing muscles attach.

e)

The sphenoid bone contains the cribriform plate, which forms the roof of the nasal cavity.

89.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The skull is formed by eight bones.

b)

The zygomatic bone is a singular skull bone.

c)

The temporal bone has eight notable regions.

d)

The foramen magnum is a large projection where our chewing muscles attach.

e)

The smallest bones in the skull are the lacrimal bones.

90.

The palatine bone forms the bridge of the nose.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

The orbital cavity is formed by three bones and also contains lacrimal glands.

b)

The oral cavity does not have a bony floor.

c)

The nasal cavity is formed by several bones and lined with mucous membranes.

d)

The cranial cavity surrounds the brain.

e)

The nasal sinuses warm, filter, and humidify inhaled air.

92.

Which of the following statements has been written incorrectly?

a)

Thoracic vertebrae have heart-shaped bodies containing costal facets.

b)

C2 is called the axis and C7 is called the vertebra prominens.

c)

The sacrum has two lateral surfaces that articulate with the two pelvic bones.

d)

Thoracic vertebrae are generally larger than lumbar vertebrae because of chest muscles.

e)

The coccyx has transverse ridges indicating the prior fusion of vertebral bodies.

93.

Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

scapula

b)

tibia

c)

radius

d)

sternum

e)

phalanges

94.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The clavicle looks like an extended letter “C” when viewed from above.

b)

A major function of the clavicle is to bind axial bones together and limit mobility.

c)

The acromial end of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium.

d)

On the top surface of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle and trapezoid line.

e)

The sternal end of the clavicle articulates with the axial skeleton.

95.

Which of the following statements regarding the scapula is false?

a)

The scapula extends from rib bones 2 to 9.

b)

The three edges of this triangular scapula are labeled as borders.

c)

An angle of the scapula refers to one of its triangular apices.

d)

On the dorsal surface is a ridge called the spine that can be felt as the shoulder “blade.”

e)

The glenoid cavity of the scapula is where the humerus of the upper arm articulates.

96.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Long bones are equally long as they are wide.

b)

Long bones include the vertebrae.

c)

Long bones are thin and broad.

d)

Long bones have more length than width.

e)

Long bones are specialized bones found within tendons.

97.

The radius bone of the forearm is found relative to the thumb side of the hand when anatomically positioned.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Short bones are often cube-shaped bones.

b)

Short bones include the vertebrae.

c)

Short bones are thin and broad.

d)

Short bones have more length than width.

e)

Short bones are specialized bones found within tendons.

99.

The thumb is composed of three phalange bones.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The obturator foramen is formed by what bones?

a)

pubis and ischium

b)

ischium and iliac fossa

c)

pubis and iliac fossa

d)

iliac fossa and iliac spine.

101.

The acetabulum is formed by what bones?

a)

ilium, ischium, and pubis

b)

ischial ramus, spine, and notch

c)

pubic bone and ischial ramus

d)

ilium and ischium

e)

ilium and pubis

102.

Which of the following is your “shin”?

a)

the anterior crest of the tibia’s diaphysis

b)

the diaphysis of the fibula

c)

the medial malleolus of the tibia

d)

the anterior crest of the fibula’s diaphysis

e)

the talus eminence of the tibia

103.

Fibrous joints that are also amphiarthroses include ______.

a)

symphysis

b)

syndesmosis

c)

suture

d)

gliding

104.

Which of the following is an example of rotation?

a)

bending at the waist to touch your toes

b)

nodding your head yes

c)

shaking your head no

d)

making a fist

105.

When a person does a push up, first pushing off the floor and fully straightening their elbow and the returning to the ground so that their chest touches the floor, what motions does the scapula go through?

a)

protraction and then retraction

b)

retraction and then protraction

c)

adduction and then abduction

d)

flexion and circumduction

106.

What components of sutures give this joint great strength?

a)

connecting fibrous filaments and flat, non-interlocking bones

b)

interconnecting tissue fibers and interlocking bones

c)

a special biological glue

d)

the presence of special cells that give great strength to sutures

107.

In the fetal skull, sutures are temporarily ______ to ______ movement.

a)

locked; prevent

b)

wide; allow

c)

fontanels; limit

d)

cartilaginous; prevent

108.

By the age of 21, the long bones are no longer able to grow in length due to closure of the epiphyses. The total number of joints in the body of an adult, therefore, is ______ the number of joints in a growing child.

a)

greater than

b)

the same as

c)

fewer than

109.

Fibrous joints allow no movement, and cartilaginous joints allow slight movement.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

What tissue covers the articulating surfaces of bones in a synovial joint?

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

fibrous cartilage

c)

epithelium

d)

chondroitin

111.

Which choice(s) places the joints in the correct order from most stable to most mobile? Select all that apply.

a)

Fibrous → cartilaginous → synovial

b)

Suture → syndesmosis → symphysis

c)

Gliding → syndesmosis → symphysis

d)

Shoulder → hip → wrist

112.

The rotator cuff muscles include all of the following except the ______.

a)

subscapularis

b)

supraspinatus

c)

teres major

d)

teres minor

e)

infraspinatus