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WorksheetsFRIDAY WEEKLY EXAM (27/06/2025)
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which pipe joint is most suitable for temporary installations where frequent dismantling is required?
a)
Flexible joint
b)
Flanged joint
c)
Expansion joint
d)
Screwed joint
2.
The most commonly used sewer material for house or lateral sewers, which is cheap and durable but heavy and brittle, is:
a)
Vitrified clay pipe
b)
Cast iron pipe
c)
RCC pipe
d)
Asbestos cement pipe
3.
Which sewer section is preferred for storm water drainage and is easy to construct and economical?
a)
Box section
b)
Egg-shaped section
c)
Circular section
d)
Horse-shoe section
4.
Which of the following is NOT a function of a trap in house drainage?
a)
Providing water seal
b)
Preventing foul gas entry
c)
Collecting waste water
d)
Admitting storm water
5.
In sewer maintenance, which test uses a smooth ball passed through the sewer to detect blockages?
a)
Smoke test
b)
Ball test
c)
Air test
d)
Mirror test
6.
What is the minimum recommended internal diameter for sewers according to standards?
a)
10 cm
b)
15 cm
c)
30 cm
d)
45 cm
7.
Match the following sewer components with their specific characteristics:
A. Inverted Siphon
B. Drop Manhole
C. Flushing Tank
D. Lamp Hole
1. Allows inspection using light insertion
2. Provides vertical connection between high and low level sewers
3. Enables sewage to pass under obstacles under pressure
4. Clears sewers near dead ends with stored water
a)
A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
b)
A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
c)
A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
d)
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
8.
Which type of rail is known for having the best stability and is most commonly used in India?
a)
Flat footed rail
b)
Double headed rail
c)
Bull headed rail
d)
Vignoles rail
9.
What is the main function of a fish plate in a railway track?
a)
To maintain gauge distance
b)
To absorb shocks and vibrations
c)
To connect two rails in both planes
d)
To provide vertical support to rails
10.
Which bitumen type is preferred for use in cold weather due to its low viscosity?
a)
Rapid curing bitumen
b)
Slow curing bitumen
c)
Cut back bitumen
d)
Medium curing bitumen
11.
Which is the correct function of a catch basin in a drainage system?
a)
To trap debris and sediment
b)
To increase the flow velocity
c)
To remove harmful gases
d)
To control odour in sewers
12.
What is the purpose of adzing sleepers in railway tracks?
a)
To tilt rails at 1 in 20 slope
b)
To increase rail strength
c)
To prevent rail expansion
d)
To distribute load evenly
13.
Which of the following is used to prevent the lateral movement of a railway vehicle on curves?
a)
Coning of wheels
b)
Tilting of rails
c)
Fish plates
d)
Dog spikes
14.
Which wing wall type is typically used for small bridges with low banks?
a)
Straight wing wall
b)
Splayed wing wall
c)
Return wing wall
d)
Wing wall with weep holes
15.
Which aggregate test is used to determine the resistance to weathering?
a)
Los Angeles abrasion test
b)
Soundness test
c)
CBR test
d)
Stripping value test
16.
Assertion (A): Concrete sleepers are most commonly used in modern railway tracks. Reason (R): Concrete sleepers have high durability and require less maintenance than timber sleepers.
a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c)
A is true but R is false
d)
A is false but R is true
17.
In the Los Angeles abrasion test, if the initial weight of the aggregate is 5000 grams and the final weight after the test is 4600 grams, calculate the percentage loss in weight.
a)
6%
b)
8%
c)
10%
d)
12%
18.
Which specific phase in the manufacturing of cement ensures the formation of clinkers and what is the typical temperature range of this phase?
a)
Burning phase, 1400-1500°C
b)
Grinding phase, 1000-1200°C
c)
Mixing phase, 600-900°C
d)
Drying phase, 300-500°C
19.
What is the detailed difference in the composition and properties between Hematite and Magnetite iron ores?
a)
Hematite: Red oxide, Magnetite: Black oxide
b)
Hematite: Sulfide form, Magnetite: Oxide form
c)
Hematite: 70% iron, Magnetite: 40% iron
d)
Hematite: Carbonate, Magnetite: Sulfide
20.
Which specific defect in bricks can result from the entrapment of air in the voids of clay and eventually causes weathering of the brick face?
a)
Black core
b)
Efflorescence
c)
Lamination bricks
d)
Bloating of bricks
21.
Which rock-forming mineral found in igneous rocks is capable of transforming into serpentine under specific conditions?
a)
Mica
b)
Quartz
c)
Feldspar
d)
Olivine
22.
How does the coefficient of softening distinguish the behavior of clay from that of glass under saturated and dry conditions?
a)
Coefficient of softening for clay is 0, for glass it is 1
b)
Coefficient of softening for both clay and glass is 1
c)
Coefficient of softening for clay is 1, for glass is 0
d)
Coefficient of softening is not applicable
23.
What is the purpose of the priming needle in stone blasting and how does its function directly impact safety?
a)
Maintains the hole for safe tamping
b)
Detonates the explosives
c)
Ignites the explosives directly
d)
Measures detonation pressure
24.
In X-ray shielding mortars, which material is primarily responsible for absorbing X-ray radiation and why is its specific density crucial?
a)
Lead sheets,low specific gravity
b)
Barium plaster , high specific gravity
c)
Aluminous cement, moderate specific gravity
d)
Pozzolana admixture, low specific gravity
25.
What property of Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite (C4AF) makes it distinct in terms of both cement coloration and heat of hydration?
a)
Provides color, low heat of hydration
b)
Provides strength, moderate heat of hydration
c)
No significant contribution to cement properties
d)
Produces rapid heat release
26.
In a blast furnace, why is the bosh considered the most critical zone, and what metallurgical processes are predominant in this section?
a)
It is the hottest part, major reduction reactions occur
b)
It is the charging zone where raw material enters
c)
It is the cooling zone where molten iron solidifies
d)
It is the slag removal zone
27.
What differentiates the thermal metamorphism from plutonic metamorphism in the formation of metamorphic rocks?
a)
Thermal metamorphism is driven by heat only
b)
Plutonic metamorphism is driven by pressure only
c)
Thermal metamorphism requires uniform heat and pressure
d)
Plutonic metamorphism is driven by heat only
28.
Explain the significance of the Young’s modulus of steel in structural applications and how it impacts stiffness and deflection in beams.
a)
Higher Young’s modulus increases corrosion rate
b)
Lower Young’s modulus increases flexibility
c)
Young’s modulus does not affect deflection
d)
Higher Young’s modulus increases stiffness,reduces deflection
29.
Why is Pozzolana cement recommended for marine structures, and how does its composition contribute to this property?
a)
It forms dense calcium silicate hydrates resistant to salt water
b)
Pozzolana reacts slowly to form weak compounds
c)
Contains excess gypsum making it suitable for underwater works
d)
It contains less lime and more silica for acid resistance
30.
What is the key difference in chemical resistance between silicious and calcareous rocks, and how does this impact their usage in acidic environments?
a)
Silicious rocks resist acids better
b)
Calcareous rocks resist acids better
c)
Both rocks equally resist acids
d)
Calcareous rocks are completely acid-resistant
31.
Which IS code is specifically used for the limit state design of reinforced cement concrete structures in India?
a)
IS 269:2015
b)
IS 456:2000
c)
IS 269:1989
d)
IS 800:2007
32.
In AutoCAD, which key is used to activate 'Object Snap' and what is its primary function?
a)
F4, Activates 3D object snap
b)
F8, Enables drawing vertical lines
c)
F7, Activates grid display
d)
F3, Ensures precise point selection
33.
Which projection system is predominantly used in India according to BIS standards and what is its major feature?
a)
Fourth angle projection, uncommon system
b)
Second angle projection, both views above XY
c)
Third angle projection, plan above XY
d)
First angle projection, elevation above XY
34.
In reinforced cement concrete, what is the minimum clear cover required for footings directly resting on soil?
a)
50 mm
b)
75 mm
c)
100 mm
d)
30 mm
35.
In AutoCAD, what is the primary difference between the 'Array' and 'Mirror' commands?
a)
Array reduces object size, Mirror duplicates objects at same scale
b)
Array duplicates objects, Mirror erases mirrored objects
c)
Array duplicates objects, Mirror creates reflected copies
d)
Array rotates objects, Mirror scales objects
36.
Which IS code governs the sizes and layout of drawing sheets in engineering drawing standards?
a)
IS 10714:2001
b)
IS 9609:1983
c)
IS 10711:1983
d)
IS 1165:1985
37.
What is the significance of slump value in concrete and how does it relate to workability?
a)
Indicates concrete's strength
b)
Indicates concrete's workability
c)
Indicates cement’s binding quality
d)
Indicates concrete's durability
38.
In AutoCAD, what does the 'OOPS' command restore and when can it be particularly useful?
a)
Reverses the last executed command
b)
Undo all the recent commands
c)
Deletes the previous selection
d)
Restores the last erased object set
39.
In AutoCAD, which modifying command is used to create a round corner between two intersecting lines?
a)
Chamfer
b)
Fillet
c)
Offset
d)
Trim
40.
What are the critical distinctions between the types of perspective projections and when is each typically applied?
a)
One-point: hidden objects, Two-point: short objects, Three-point: wide structures
b)
One-point: general views, Two-point: interior views, Three-point: exteriors only
c)
One-point: interior views, Two-point: wide structures, Three-point: tall buildings
d)
One-point: architectural exteriors, Two-point: short objects, Three-point: hidden objects
41.
Statement 1: In AutoCAD, the 'Extents' option plots all objects in the drawing regardless of view settings. Statement 2: The 'Limits' command sets the actual printable area on the paper.
a)
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
b)
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
c)
Both statements are true and Statement 2 explains Statement 1
d)
Both statements are true but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1
42.
Why is a clear understanding of 'Polar Coordinates' essential in AutoCAD drafting, especially when working with angled lines?
a)
It allows specifying points using distance and angle from a known reference
b)
It allows specifying points using X and Y distances only
c)
It allows specifying points using absolute Cartesian coordinates
d)
It is not essential in AutoCAD drafting
43.
Which AutoCAD command is used to enlarge or reduce the size of an object while maintaining its proportions?
a)
Offset (O)
b)
Copy (CO)
c)
Move (M)
d)
Scale (SC)
44.
What is the effective cover in RCC and how is it different from clear cover?
a)
Distance from face to outermost reinforcement
b)
Distance from face to center of gravity of section
c)
Distance from face to centroid of reinforcement
d)
Distance from face to center of concrete
45.
In isometric projection, what is the standard angle between the isometric axes?
a)
120 degrees
b)
45 degrees
c)
30 degrees
d)
90 degrees
46.
In perspective projection, which type is commonly used for representing tall structures?
a)
One-point perspective
b)
Two-point perspective
c)
Parallel perspective
d)
Three-point perspective
47.
What is the primary role of the 'Design Center' in AutoCAD?
a)
Controls layers and visibility only
b)
Used to manage user preferences only
c)
Used to delete unused layers
d)
Accesses hatches, blocks from other drawings
48.
What is the required minimum diameter for reinforcement bars used in footings as per IS standards?
a)
6 mm
b)
10 mm
c)
8 mm
d)
12 mm
49.
What is the major advantage of mild steel used in structural applications?
a)
Ductility and high elongation
b)
Non-recyclable material
c)
Higher modulus of elasticity than concrete
d)
High resistance to corrosion
50.
In a one-way slab, what is the aspect ratio requirement that defines it as such?
a)
Aspect ratio (Ly/Lx) ≤ 2
b)
Aspect ratio (Ly/Lx) ≥ 3
c)
Aspect ratio (Ly/Lx) < 1
d)
Aspect ratio (Ly/Lx) ≥ 2
51.
Which AutoCAD file extension is commonly used for standard drawing files?
a)
.dws
b)
.dwt
c)
.dwg
d)
.dxf
52.
Which IS code prescribes lettering standards in engineering drawing?
a)
IS 9609:1983
b)
IS 1165:1985
c)
IS 11664:1986
d)
IS 10713:1983
53.
Which IS code is used to specify the requirements for OPC 33-grade cement?
a)
IS 800:2007
b)
IS 456:2000
c)
IS 269:1989
d)
IS 10711:1983
54.
In AutoCAD, which coordinate entry method allows specifying distance and angle from a known point?
a)
Relative coordinates
b)
Absolute coordinates
c)
Cartesian coordinates
d)
Polar coordinates
55.
What is the standard graphical representation symbol for first angle projection?
a)
A square symbol with center circle
b)
Frustum of cone placed longitudinally
c)
Triangle with base facing observer
d)
Circle with a diagonal line through it
56.
Which IS code provides detailed guidelines for the construction of steel structures in India?
a)
IS 875:1987
b)
IS 800:2007
c)
IS 456:2000
d)
IS 456:1978
57.
Which rolled steel beam section is most suitable for gantry girders subjected to heavy lateral loads?
a)
ISWB
b)
ISJB
c)
ISMB with plates
d)
ISMB
58.
In steel design, what does the term 'lateral-torsional buckling' primarily refer to?
a)
Fatigue failure under repeated loads
b)
Shear failure in connections
c)
Lateral bracing failure
d)
Twisting of beam under bending
59.
What is the standard grade of structural steel used in India as per IS 2062?
a)
E-410 (Fe 600)
b)
Fe 410-S
c)
E-250 (Fe 410)
d)
Fe 250 (IS 226)
60.
Which type of RCC slab transfers loads in both directions and is supported on all four sides?
a)
Flat slab
b)
Ribbed slab
c)
Two-way slab
d)
One-way slab
61.
Which structural failure is most commonly associated with slender steel columns?
a)
Buckling
b)
Crushing
c)
Shear failure
d)
Torsional failure
62.
In RCC lintels, where should lap splices preferably be avoided?
a)
At quarter-span
b)
At support regions
c)
At mid-span
d)
At beam-column junction
63.
Which component of steel trusses is typically subjected to tension?
a)
Top chord
b)
Bottom chord
c)
Web members
d)
Diagonal braces
64.
What is the purpose of using hat sections in cold-formed steel floor systems?
a)
Used for top flange only
b)
Used for wall panels only
c)
Used for column stiffening only
d)
Used as floor bearer and joists
65.
Which type of irrigation canal is constructed to feed hydroelectric power stations?
a)
Power canal
b)
Navigation canal
c)
Carrier canal
d)
Feeder canal
66.
What is the main advantage of using lined canals in irrigation systems?
a)
Reduces seepage losses
b)
Increases cross-sectional area
c)
Reduces evaporation losses
d)
Increases velocity of flow
67.
Which type of irrigation method provides the highest water application efficiency?
a)
Sprinkler irrigation
b)
Lift irrigation
c)
Surface irrigation
d)
Drip irrigation
68.
In a gravity dam, the maximum permissible eccentricity for avoiding tension is _____.
a)
b/6
b)
b/2
c)
b/3
d)
b/5
69.
Which type of dam is constructed using rock boulders and is preferred in earthquake-prone areas?
a)
Rock-fill dam
b)
Gravity dam
c)
Arch dam
d)
Earth dam
70.
What is the function of a gallery in a gravity dam?
a)
Water supply regulation
b)
Drainage and inspection
c)
Spillway control
d)
Foundation anchoring
71.
What is the major disadvantage of sprinkler irrigation systems?
a)
High energy requirement
b)
Suitable for all weather conditions
c)
Less uniform water application
d)
Unsuitable for light soils
72.
Which irrigation method is commonly used for orchards and involves basin formation around each tree?
a)
Border strip flooding
b)
Free flooding
c)
Ring basin flooding
d)
Check basin flooding
73.
Which profile represents the elementary shape of a gravity dam?
a)
Rectangular
b)
Polygon
c)
Triangular
d)
Trapezoidal
74.
Assertion (A): Arch dams are thinner and more economical compared to gravity dams. Reason (R): Arch dams transfer the majority of water pressure to abutments through arch action.
a)
A is true but R is false
b)
A is false but R is true
c)
Both A and R are true and R explains A
d)
Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
75.
What is the main irrigation method adopted in more than 75% of irrigated land in India?
a)
Lift irrigation
b)
Drip irrigation
c)
Surface irrigation
d)
Sprinkler irrigation
76.
Which depreciation method results in a higher depreciation amount in the earlier years of a building's life?
a)
Quality survey method
b)
Constant percentage method
c)
Straight line method
d)
Sinking fund method
77.
What is the standard percentage provided for work-charged establishment in an estimate?
a)
1.5% to 2%
b)
3% to 5%
c)
1% to 1.5%
d)
2% to 3%
78.
Which method of calculating earthwork volume provides the most accurate result but requires an odd number of sections?
a)
Mid-sectional area method
b)
Trapezoidal formula
c)
Prismoidal formula
d)
Mean sectional area method
79.
The ________ method of valuation is particularly suitable for properties like hotels where profit determines capitalized value.
a)
Rental method
b)
Development method
c)
Valuation based on profit
d)
Direct comparison method
80.
The ________ in rate analysis covers expenses like office rent, depreciation of equipment, postage, and lighting.
a)
Contingency provision
b)
Direct cost
c)
Labour charges
d)
Overhead charges
81.
In long wall-short wall estimation, how is the length of the short wall in earthwork excavation calculated?
a)
Center-to-center distance minus half excavation width both sides
b)
Center-to-center distance plus full excavation width both sides
c)
Center-to-center distance minus full excavation width both sides
d)
Center-to-center distance plus half excavation width both sides
82.
What is the primary reason the centerline method is less accurate compared to the long wall-short wall method?
a)
Errors accumulate due to misaligned cross-sections
b)
Errors accumulate due to incorrect plan dimensions
c)
Errors accumulate due to wall thickness variations at junctions
d)
Errors accumulate due to long wall approximations
83.
Which method is used to find the centroid of a composite area?
a)
Graphical method
b)
Integration method
c)
Method of sections
d)
Method of moments
84.
Which type of friction occurs when a body is just about to move over another body?
a)
Rolling friction
b)
Sliding friction
c)
Dynamic friction
d)
Limiting friction
85.
What does Varignon’s theorem state in relation to moments?
a)
The sum of all moments equals zero irrespective of forces.
b)
Moment of all forces equals zero about every point.
c)
Moment of resultant equals sum of moments of components.
d)
The moment of a force about a point is equal to the sum of moments of its components about the same point.
86.
Which force system has all forces lying in the same plane but not meeting at a common point?
a)
Parallel force system
b)
Non-coplanar forces
c)
Non-concurrent coplanar forces
d)
Concurrent coplanar forces
87.
What is the term for the distance moved per unit time in a specified direction?
a)
Acceleration
b)
Speed
c)
Velocity
d)
Displacement
88.
Which type of loading produces bending in beams?
a)
Axial load
b)
Transverse load
c)
Thermal load
d)
Torsional load
89.
Which frictional condition has the maximum resistance before sliding initiates?
a)
Kinetic friction
b)
Static friction
c)
Limiting friction
d)
Rolling friction
90.
Which type of compass is used in total station instruments for orientation?
a)
Tubular Compass
b)
Prismatic Compass
c)
Trough Compass
d)
Circular Compass
91.
Which survey instrument measures both horizontal and vertical angles in one setup?
a)
Tilting Level
b)
Total Station
c)
Dumpy Level
d)
Cooke’s Reversible Level
92.
What is the purpose of using a heliograph in surveying?
a)
Measuring horizontal distances
b)
Signal communication using sunlight
c)
Measuring height differences
d)
Measuring angles only
93.
Which clinometer is commonly used to measure slope and set grades quickly?
a)
Indian Pattern Clinometer
b)
Hand Level
c)
Abney Level
d)
Ceylon Ghat Tracer
94.
Which type of levelling is essential when levelling across rivers to eliminate curvature and refraction errors?
a)
Simple Levelling
b)
Profile Levelling
c)
Cross-sectional Levelling
d)
Reciprocal Levelling
95.
Which part of the dumpy level is used to bring the bubble to the center during levelling?
a)
Tripod Stand
b)
Levelling Head
c)
Level Tube
d)
Telescope
96.
Which type of staff is used for very precise levelling operations requiring target alignment?
a)
Self-reading Staff
b)
Solid Staff
c)
Target Staff
d)
Telescopic Staff
97.
Which survey method is used for rapidly connecting a distant benchmark to a project site?
a)
Fly Levelling
b)
Simple Levelling
c)
Differential Levelling
d)
Profile Levelling
98.
Which type of error in levelling arises due to incorrect adjustment of the instrument’s line of sight?
a)
Personal error
b)
Instrumental error
c)
Natural error
d)
Collimation error
99.
Which survey method is used when the survey stations are connected using straight lines without forming a closed circuit?
a)
Triangulation survey
b)
Open traverse
c)
Geodetic survey
d)
Closed traverse
100.
Which adjustment eliminates parallax error in a dumpy level during temporary setup?
a)
Reversing the telescope only
b)
Focusing the eye piece and objective
c)
Adjusting foot screws only
d)
Adjusting the bubble only
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