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Lymphatic and Immune System Worksheet

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of innate immunity?

a)

Involves the function of phagocytic cells, which destroy the pathogen

b)

Involves the activation of the complement

c)

Induces inflammation

d)

It is immediately available to respond to infection

e)

It is specifically tailored to the nature of the pathogen

2.

Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphoid organ?

a)

Payer's patches

b)

Lymph nodes

c)

Thymus

d)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues

e)

Spleen

3.

Which of the following is a function of the spleen?

a)

Traps microbes with mucus

b)

Cleanses lymph

c)

Cleanses interstitial fluid

d)

Removes worn out blood cell

e)

Circulates lymph

4.

Lymph from the right arm, the right half of the head, and the right chest is received by the ___ .

a)

thoracic ducts

b)

cisterna chyli

c)

aorta

d)

superior vena cava

e)

right lymphatic duct

5.

Lymph from the body inferior to the diaphragm and from the left side superior to the diaphragm is received by the ___

a)

thoracic ducts

b)

superior vena cava

c)

right lymphatic duct

d)

cisterna chyli

e)

aorta

6.

The left subclavian vein receives lymph from the ___

a)

lumbar trunk

b)

thoracic duct

c)

right lymphatic duct

d)

left axillary vein

e)

jugular trunk

7.

T cell maturation takes place in the ___

a)

blood

b)

red bone marrow

c)

thymus

d)

none of these choices

e)

spleen

8.

Lymph nodes trap material draining from the ___, while the spleen filters the ____.

a)

blood; blood

b)

lymph; blood

c)

lymph; lymph

d)

blood; lymph

9.

Which of the following is the correct route of lymph flow through the lymph node?

4 lines
10.

Which area of the spleen contains immune cells?

a)

Cortical area

b)

Medullary sinus

c)

Red pulp

d)

White pulp

e)

Both red and white pulp

11.

Which of the following is NOT a physical defense mechanism?

a)

Skin

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Vomiting

d)

Epiglottis

e)

Lysozyme

12.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the innate immunity?

a)

Antibody production

b)

Complement activation

c)

NK cell - mediated apoptosis of abnormal cells

d)

Inflammation

e)

Phagocytosis

13.

Complements are ___

a)

proteins secreted by B cells

b)

proteins secreted by T cells

c)

proteins secreted by liver cells

d)

proteins secreted by plasma cells

14.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the activated complement?

a)

Lysis of the pathogen

b)

Facilitate phagocytosis

c)

Production of antibodies

d)

Induce inflammation

e)

Opsonization of the pathogen

15.

Phagocytic cells are ___

a)

neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

b)

macrophages, neutrophils, and immature dendritic cells

c)

macrophages, monocytes, and neutrophils

d)

macrophages, eosinophils, and immature dendritic cells

e)

macrophages only

16.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammation?

a)

Promotes repair of injured tissue

b)

Recruits phagocytic cells to the site of infection

c)

Activates endothelial cells to enable extravasation of immune cells

d)

Induces local blood clotting

e)

Causes lysis of the pathogen

17.

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

a)

Fever

b)

Heat

c)

Swelling

d)

Pain

e)

Redness

18.

Which of the following is NOT about the humoral immune response?

a)

It involves activation of T cells only

b)

It requires recognition of antigen

c)

It is mediated by production of antibodies

d)

It involves activation of B cells

e)

It develops in response to extracellular pathogens

19.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a)

T cells recognize antigens directly, whereas B cells recognize antigens only in a complex with MHC.

b)

Endogenous antigens are processed and presented via MHC class I and recognized by CD8 T cells.

c)

Upon activation, CD8 T cells become cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

d)

Upon activation, CD4 T cells become helper T cells.

e)

Exogenous antigens are processed and presented via MHC class II and recognized by CD4 T cells.

20.

Which cells secrete antibodies?

a)

B cells

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes

d)

Natural Killer cells

e)

T helper cells

21.

Which class of immunoglobulins is the most in serum and lymph, and the only class that crosses the placenta from mother to fetus?

a)

IgM

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgA

e)

IgG

22.

Which class of immunoglobulins is found in secretions including breast milk?

a)

IgD

b)

IgE

c)

IgA

d)

IgM

e)

IgG

23.

Which class of immunoglobulins is secreted first during infection?

a)

IgD

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

e)

IgA

24.

Vaccination is an example of .

a)

artificially acquired passive immunity

b)

naturally acquired active immunity

c)

naturally acquired passive immunity

d)
artificially acquired active immunity
25.

Transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus across the placenta is an example of .

a)

artificially acquired active immunity

b)

naturally acquired active immunity

c)

artificially acquired passive immunity

d)
naturally acquired passive immunity
26.

The heart lies in the .

a)
pericardium
b)

epicardium

c)

mediastinum

27.

The innermost layer of the heart is called .

a)

parietal layer of pericardium

b)
endocardium
c)

serous pericardium

d)

epicardium

28.

Which of the following is used to reduce friction between the layers of membranes surrounding the heart?

a)

Capillary endothelium

b)

Endocardium

c)

Synovial fluid

d)

Pericardial fluid

e)

Pleural fluid

29.

The visceral pericardium is also called ___

a)

None of these choices

b)

epicardium

c)

fibrous pericardium

d)

myocardium

e)

endocardium

30.

Which layer of the heart wall consists of cardiac muscle tissue?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Hypocardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Epicardium

e)

Pericardium

31.

Identify the pouch-like structure that increases the total filling capacity of the atrium.

a)

Interatrial septum

b)

Ventricle

c)

Fossa ovalis

d)

Coronary sulcus

e)

Auricle

32.

Identify the groove found on the surface of the heart that marks the boundary between the right and left ventricles.

a)

Coronary sinus

b)

None of these choices

c)

Posterior interventricular sulcus

d)

Coronary sulcus

e)

Anterior interventricular sulcus

33.

Identify the muscular ridges that are found on the anterior wall of the right atrium and extend into the auricles.

a)

Chordae tendinae

b)

Coronary sulci

c)

Papillary muscles

d)

Trabeculae carneae

e)

Pectinate muscles

34.

Identify tendon-like structures that attach the cusps of the tricuspid valve to the inner wall of the heart.

a)

Auricle

b)

Chordae tendineae

c)

Hyaline sulcus

d)

Pectinate muscles

e)

Papillary muscles

35.

Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Right atrioventricular valve

e)

Tricuspid valve

36.

Which heart valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

a)

Left atrioventricular valve

b)

Mitral valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Aortic valve

e)

Tricuspid valve

37.

Which heart valve prevents blood from flowing back after contraction of the left ventricle?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

e)

Right atrioventricular valve

38.

Which heart valve prevents blood from flowing back after contraction of the right ventricle?

a)

Left atrioventricular valve

b)

Aortic semilunar valve

c)

Tricuspid valve

d)

Pulmonary semilunar valve

e)

Right atrioventricular valve

39.

Contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly ___ .

a)

into auricles

b)

through atrioventricular valves

c)

through semilunar valves

d)

into arteries

e)

into veins

40.

Which of the following chambers of the heart contain deoxygenated (oxygen-poor) blood?

a)

Left atrium and right ventricle

b)

Left atrium only

c)

Right ventricle only

d)

Left atrium and left ventricle

e)

Right atrium and right ventricle

41.

Oxygen-poor blood that is drained from the tissue enters the __ (chamber) of the heart through ___ (blood vessel).

a)

right atrium; superior and inferior vena cava

b)

left atrium; pulmonary veins

c)

right ventricle; aorta

d)

left ventricle; pulmonary artery

42.

Which of the following blood vessel is used to distribute oxygenated blood to the myocardium?

a)

Vena cava

b)

Coronary vein

c)

Coronary artery

43.

Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers by ___

a)

interneurons

b)

chordae tendinae

c)

gap junctions

d)

desmosomes

e)

tight junctions

44.

Which network of specialized cardiac muscle fibers provide a path for each cycle of cardiac excitation to progress through the heart?

a)

Cardiovascular center

b)

Systemic circuit

c)

Cardiac conduction system

d)

Intercalated discs

e)

Pulmonary circuit

45.

Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart?

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, Bundle of His

b)

Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Atrioventricular (AV) node

c)

SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

d)

Purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, Bundle of His

e)

Bundle of His, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers

46.

In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers, the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for _____ period of time.

a)

a shorter

b)

a longer

c)

the same

47.

The inflow of which ions prolongs the depolarization phase of the cardiac muscle and prevents tetanic cardiac contractions regardless of the frequency and intensity of stimulation?

a)

Calcium ions

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Potassium ions

d)

Chlorine ions

e)

None of these choices

48.

Which of the following would lead to a decreased heart rate?

a)

Increased sympathetic stimulation

b)

Increased potassium levels in plasma

c)

Increased norepinephrine release

d)

Increased calcium levels in plasma

e)

Increased thyroid hormone release

49.

The first sound of the heart (S1, or lubb sound) is caused by turbulence of the blood associated with closure of the valve soon after begins.

a)
ventricular systole
b)

atrioventricular

c)

tricuspid

d)

pulmonary

50.

The second heart sound (dupp) closely follows which of the events listed below?

a)

Atrioventricular valves opening

b)

Valvular stenosis

c)

Semilunar valves opening

d)

Semilunar valves closing

e)

Atrioventricular valves closing

51.

The amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat is called __.

a)

End-Diastolic Volume (EDV)

b)

Cardiac Output (CO)

c)

None of these choices

d)

End-Systolic Volume (ESV)

e)

Stroke Volume (SV)

52.

Cardiac output is equal to the ___

a)

difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise

b)

product of heart rate and stroke volume

c)

difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume

d)

stroke volume at rest

e)

product of heart rate and blood pressure

53.

Which term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises?

a)

filling

b)

repolarization

c)

diastole

d)

systole

e)

diastole

54.

During which of the following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries?

a)

atrial diastole

b)

atrial systole

c)

ventricular diastole

d)

ventricular systole

55.

Which structure in the heart initiates action potentials that stimulate contraction of the heart at a constant rate of about 100 beats per minute?

a)

Bundle of His

b)

Atrioventricular node

c)

Cardiac accelerator nerves

d)

Sinoatrial node

e)

Cardiovascular center

56.

Which of the following electrocardiogram (EKG) waves represents atrial depolarization?

a)

R wave

b)

P wave

c)

Q wave

d)

T wave

e)

S wave

57.

Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles?

a)

S wave

b)

T wave

c)

P wave

d)

R wave

e)

Q wave

58.

Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate?

a)

Medulla oblongata

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Hypothalamus

59.

Stimulation of which nerve reduces heart rate?

a)

Vagus nerve

b)

Spinal accessory

c)

Hypoglossal nerve

d)

Cardiac accelerator nerve

e)

Phrenic nerve

60.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood?

a)

The primary circulating blood cells are the erythrocytes.

b)

The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45.

c)

The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit.

d)

Megakaryocytes are a common component of circulating blood

e)

Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix.

61.

Serum is ___

a)

plasma minus the formed elements

b)

the same as blood plasma

c)

plasma minus clotting proteins

d)

plasma minus the proteins

e)

plasma minus electrolytes

62.

Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in defense against pathogens?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Albumin

d)

Myoglobin

e)

Immunoglobulins

63.

Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?

a)

Albumin

b)

Prostaglandins

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Immunoglobulins

e)

None of these choices

64.

The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is .

a)

120 weeks

b)

5 to 9 days

c)

4 to 5 years

d)
120 days
65.

Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?

a)

erythropoietin (EPO)

b)

thrombopoietin (TPO)

c)

human growth hormone (hGH)

d)

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

e)

calcitonin (CT)

66.

Ferritin is a protein used to ___.

a)

store iron

b)

digest proteins

c)

transport oxygen

d)

produce antibodies

67.

The waste product bilirubin is formed from ___

a)

hemosiderin

b)

globin

c)

transferrin

d)

heme

e)

ferritin

68.

Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood?

a)

Not enough information to answer

b)

anti-A

c)

anti-A and anti-B

d)

anti-B

e)

No antibodies to ABO blood group antigens

69.

Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum?

a)

O positive

b)

AB positive

c)

None of these selections are

d)

AB negative

e)

Incorrect O negative

70.

A blood type B, Rh- can be safely transfused into ___ recipient.

a)

B, Rh-

b)

AB, Rh+

71.

A megakaryoblast will develop into ___

a)

a white blood cell

b)

a red blood cell

c)

a platelet

d)

either a white blood cell or a platelet

e)

none of these choices

72.

Which of the following blood cells function as phagocytic cells?

a)

Basophils

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Lymphocytes

73.

Which of the following blood cells are involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Platelets

e)

Basophils

74.

Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

75.

Which of the following blood cells are effective against large pathogens such as parasitic worms and associated with chronic inflammation?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Basophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Monocytes

76.

Which of the following cells are NOT granulocytes?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

e)

None of these choices

77.

Which of the following lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?

a)

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting

b)

anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation

c)

emigration, clotting, hemolysis

d)

hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

e)

vascular spasm, clotting, polycythaemia

78.

The blood clotting pathways require___

a)

Cl-

b)

K+

c)

Ca2+

d)

I-

e)

Na+

79.

Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart to other organs?

a)

capillaries

b)

veins

c)

arteries

d)

arterioles

e)

venules

80.

Which of the following blood vessels carries blood from the tissues back to the heart?

a)

veins

b)

arteries

c)

capillaries

d)

aorta

81.

Which layer of the arterial wall is responsible for vasoconstriction?

a)

tunica interna

b)

tunica media

c)

tunica fascia

d)

tunica externa

e)

tunica albuginea

82.

Which layer of the arterial wall is primarily composed of elastic and collagen fibers?

a)

tunica fascia

b)

tunica interna

c)

tunica externa

d)

tunica albuginea

e)

tunica media

83.

Elastic arteries function as ___.

a)

pressure reservoirs

b)

vasoconstrictors

c)

vasodilators

d)

conduits to the tissues of the trunk only

e)

barriers to microcirculation

84.

In resting individuals, which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed?

a)

Arterioles and capillaries

b)

Veins and venules

c)

Arteries and arterioles

d)

Venules and capillaries

85.

Which type of blood vessel plays a key role in regulating blood flow into capillaries?

a)

veins

b)

arteries

c)

venules

d)

arterioles

e)

aorta

86.

Which of the following structures are found in veins but NOT in arteries?

a)

tunica media

b)

valve

c)

tunica externa

d)

tunica interna

e)

lumen

87.

Which of the following is the most important method of capillary exchange?

a)

diffusion

b)

primary active transport

c)

transcytosis

d)

bulk flow

e)

secondary active transport

88.

Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?

a)

venules

b)

precapillary sphincters

c)

thoroughfare channels

d)

postcapillary sphincters

e)

valves in veins

89.

All of the following aid in venous return of blood to heart EXCEPT ___

a)

venoconstriction

b)

venous valves

c)

blood viscosity

d)

the respiratory pump

e)

the skeletal muscle pump

90.

The volume of blood that circulates through the systemic (or pulmonary) blood vessels per minute is called ___.

a)

tidal volume

b)

total peripheral resistance

c)

cardiac reserve

d)

stroke volume

e)

cardiac output

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