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ALL QUIZZ 2 TRAINING and answer final doc

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse is reviewing the chart of a client diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. Which pathophysiologic change should the nurse expect?

a)

Decreased pulmonary capillary permeability

b)

Reversible airway obstruction with bronchodilators

c)

Continuous hypoxia due to lung scarring

d)

Excess mucus production and bronchospasm

2.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath and fatigue. The nurse places the client on a pulse oximeter. Which oxygen saturation level indicates a need for immediate intervention?

a)

95%

b)

92%

c)

85%

d)

98%

3.

What is the primary purpose of mechanical ventilation in a patient with respiratory failure and signs of respiratory muscle fatigue?

a)

To deliver aerosolized medications more effectively

b)

To suction secretions more efficiently

c)

To allow time for lung tissue regeneration

d)

To maintain airway patency and provide artificial ventilation when the client cannot breathe adequately/or unable to do so

4.

A nurse is assessing a patient who is unresponsive following blunt chest trauma. The nurse notes paradoxical chest movement. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Notify the rapid response team

b)

Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare for advanced airway management

c)

Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees

d)

Encourage the client to take deep breaths

5.

Which arterial blood gas (ABG) value on a diagnostic chart indicates a hallmark of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

a)

PaO2 85 mmHg

b)

PaO2 60 mmHg

c)

(Pin on) PaO2 50 mmHg

d)

PaO2 95 mmHg

6.

7. Pin on

a)

Pao2 50 mmHg

b)

Pao2 80 mmHg

c)

Pao2 100 mmHg

d)

Pao2 120 mmHg

7.

A client with ARDS is showing signs of worsening condition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a)

Bradycardia and lethargy

b)

Dyspnea, restlessness, hypoxia

c)

Productive cough and fever

d)

Cyanosis and bradypnea

8.

Which method should the nurse use to provide immediate ventilation to an apneic client?

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Non-rebreather mask

c)

Bag-valve mask

d)

CPAP machine

9.

A trauma patient presents with no breath sounds on the right side. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Right pneumothorax

c)

Left lung collapse

d)

COPD exacerbation

10.

A patient in respiratory distress has an RR of 32 and unequal chest wall expansion. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Pleural effusion

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Pneumothorax

11.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) following chest trauma. Which of the following findings would most concern the nurse and indicate a worsening condition?

a)

Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min

b)

Oxygen saturation of 92% on 4L nasal cannula

c)

Temperature of 108°F (42.2°C)

d)

Blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg

12.

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained multiple injuries in a motor vehicle accident. The client is receiving high-flow oxygen, but their PaO2 remains critically low. Which of the following findings is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

a)

A. Bilateral crackles that resolve after suctioning

b)

B. Productive cough with yellow sputum

c)

C. Hypoxemia that does not improve with increased oxygen delivery

d)

D. Low-grade fever and decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe

13.

Which ICU client is most likely to need mechanical ventilation due to acute respiratory distress syndrome? (ARDS)

a)

PaO2 90 on 40% FiO2

b)

A client receiving 0.6 (60%) 02 with a PaO2 45

c)

PaO2 88 on 2L nasal cannula

d)

PaO2 80 on room air

14.

Which ventilator adjustment helps improve oxygenation in ARDS patients?

a)

Decrease FiO2

b)

Increase PEEP 4 cm water

c)

Increase tidal volume

d)

Decrease respiratory rate

15.

Which chest tube drainage amount requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider?

a)

400 mL hemothorax drainage

b)

50 mL/hr

c)

100 mL over 4 hours

d)

30 mL in 30 minutes

16.

A client in the ICU suddenly develops JDV and absent breath sounds on the left side, tachycardia, and distended neck veins. What does the nurse suspect?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Tension pneumothorax

c)

Hemothorax

d)

Cardiac tamponade

17.

What should the nurse do if continuous bubbling is observed in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?

a)

Clamp the tube

b)

Notify the healthcare provider

c)

Lower the drainage system

d)

Flush the chest tube

18.

Tell if the following are Anticipated, Contraindicated, or Non essential for thoracentesis: A. IV line B. ABG (arterial blood gas) C. Chest tube insertion D. CT scan of the chest E. Thoracentesis

a)

A. Anticipated B. Anticipated C. Anticipated D. Non essential E. Contraindicated

b)

A. Contraindicated B. Non essential C. Anticipated D. Anticipated E. Anticipated

c)

A. Non essential B. Contraindicated C. Non essential D. Anticipated E. Anticipated

d)

A. Anticipated B. Contraindicated C. Non essential D. Anticipated E. Non essential

19.

Which of the following requires immediate intervention?

a)

150 mL serous drainage

b)

200 mL blood in 3 hours

c)

400 mL blood from chest tube

d)

50 mL of cloudy drainage

20.

A trauma patient is reporting severe rib pain. What is the best initial nursing action?

a)

Encourage deep breathing

b)

Administer prescribed opioid

c)

Apply heat pack

d)

Begin chest physiotherapy

21.

What is the priority goal for a patient with respiratory distress?

a)

Prevent infection

b)

Maintain oxygenation

c)

Promote ambulation

d)

Administer IV fluids

22.

Which combination is most effective for DVT prevention in post-op patients?

a)

Ambulation, compression stockings, and Lovenox

b)

Bedrest, heat therapy, aspirin

c)

IV fluids, morphine, incentive spirometer

d)

High-protein diet and oxygen therapy

23.

A ventilated patient is hyperventilating. What ventilator setting should be adjusted?

a)

Tidal volume

b)

FiO₂

c)

Decrease ventilator rate

d)

PEEP

24.

A ventilated patient is becoming agitated. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer IV fluids

b)

Increase sedation

c)

Perform suctioning

d)

Check tube placement

25.

A trauma patient involved in a motor vehicle accident presents with multiple rib fractures on one side of the chest. The nurse observes that the affected area of the chest moves inward during inspiration and outward during expiration. What is this finding most indicative of?

a)

Bronchospasm

b)

paradoxical chest movement

c)

Pneumonia

d)

COPD

26.

A nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) with a group of students. Which of the following best describes the primary problem occurring at the alveolar level in ARDS?

a)

Thickening of bronchial walls

b)

Destruction of cilia in the upper airway

c)

Destruction of alveolar-capillary membrane leading to fluid leakage

d)

Overproduction of surfactant causing alveolar inflation

27.

The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings support this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

a)

Temperature of 103°F (39.4°C)

b)

Productive cough with green sputum

c)

PaO2 of 50 mmHg on 60% FiO2

d)

Clear chest x-ray

e)

Bradycardia

28.

The nurse is caring for a client being mechanically ventilated. The PEEP has been increased several times throughout the day. The client’s blood pressure suddenly drops from 124/78 to 80/54 and the oxygen saturation (SpO2) drops from 98% to 82%. At 1000, considering the data below what is the priority action?

a)

Decrease PEEP

b)

Administer diuretic

c)

Auscultate breath sounds

d)

Check blood glucose

29.

A client involved in a motor vehicle accident 36 hours ago. The nurse caring for this client plans frequent assessments to monitor for what high-risk complication?

4 lines
30.

A client has an oral endotracheal tube (ETT) inserted to relieve an upper airway obstruction and to facilitate removing secretions. What is the first responsibility of the nurse immediately following tube placement?

a)

Obtain ABG

b)

Assess for bilateral breath sounds

c)

Connect ventilator

d)

Apply restraints

31.

A client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome is having increased difficulty breathing. The arterial blood gas indicates and arterial oxygen saturation of 54% on oxygen at 10 l per minute. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

a)

Increase oxygen flow

b)

Auscultate breath sounds and reposition the client

c)

Administer morphine

d)

Start IV fluids

32.

The nurse is caring for a client who has fractured ribs due to a motor vehicle accident. The nurse notes the client’s respirations are shallow with spinning of right chest wall. What intervention should the nurse initiate first?

a)

Initiate incentive spirometer

b)

Raise HOB

c)

Decrease pain

d)

Notify provider

33.

What is a potential complication of mechanical ventilation?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)

c)

COPD

d)

Pleural effusion

34.

What type of shock can result from a pneumothorax?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Sepsis

c)

Obstructive

d)

Distributive

35.

A Trauma patient has JVD, muffled heart sounds, and BP 79/50. What should the nurse prepare for?

a)

Pericardiocentesis

b)

Chest tube insertion

c)

Intubation

d)

Thoracentesis

36.

What is the priority goal for a patient with a pneumothorax and chest tube?

a)

Prevent infection

b)

Adequate oxygenation/ Allow lung expansion and oxygenation

c)

Reduce pain

d)

Maintain suction

37.

What instruction should the nurse give during chest tube removal?

a)

Breathe rapidly

b)

Hold breath and exhale quickly

c)

Shallow breath and cough

d)

Take a deep breath and hold while bearing down

38.

The nurse is caring for a client being mechanically ventilated. When the high-pressure alarm sounds, with no obvious cause, what is the priority intervention?

a)

Manually ventilate the client with the ambu-bag

b)

sedate the patient

c)

put patient in prone position

d)

give the patient medication

39.

A nurse needs to administer 8 mL/hr using a tubing with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. What is the correct flow rate?

a)

25 gtt/min

b)

19 gtt/min

c)

10 gtt/min

d)

15 gtt/min

40.

Which of the following is a potential cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in an ICU patient?

a)

Early extubation

b)

Mechanical ventilation for an long period

c)

Use of humidified nasal cannula

d)

Frequent oral suctioning

41.

When filling the humidification chamber of a ventilator, what fluid should the nurse use?

a)

Tap water

b)

Sterile water

c)

Distilled vinegar

d)

Normal saline

42.

Which set of arterial blood gas findings is most consistent with ARDS?

a)

FiO₂ 30%, PaO₂ 90, PaCO₂ 35

b)

FiO₂ 60%, PaO₂ 50, PaCO₂ 55

c)

FiO₂ 28%, PaO₂ 88, PaCO₂ 40

d)

FiO₂ 40%, PaO₂ 85, PaCO₂ 30

43.

Which instruction should the nurse give a patient with a recent pulmonary embolism?

a)

Avoid all activity for 72 hours

b)

Exercise vigorously to restore circulation

c)

Ambulate every 15 minutes

d)

Balance activity with rest period

44.

Which ventilator alarm change is most likely caused by patient coughing or airway secretions?

a)

Low-pressure alarm

b)

High-pressure alarm

c)

Apnea alarm

d)

No alarm

45.

A patient with infiltrates on chest x-ray is increasingly dyspneic. Which interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

a)

Elevate head of bed

b)

Administer lorazepam

c)

Provide chest x ray infiltration

d)

Give supplemental oxygen

e)

Place the patient supine

46.

A client with severe ARDS is on 100% FiO₂. What interventions may be required to improve oxygenation? Select all that apply.

a)

Increase PEEP

b)

Increase tidal volume

c)

Position the client prone

d)

Lower respiratory rate

e)

Decrease PEEP

47.

Which action should the nurse question in ventilator care?

a)

Provide oral care every 2 hours

b)

Check the client's pulse oximeter reading every 8 hours

c)

Keep HOB elevated at least 30 degrees

d)

Suction as needed

48.

A client receiving oxygen has a PaO₂ of 25 mmHg. What does this indicate?

a)

Normal gas exchange

b)

Low ventilation

c)

Mild hypoxia

d)

Overoxygenation

49.

Which finding may indicate a complication from prolonged mechanical ventilation?

a)

Decreased blood pressure

b)

Increased temperature from ventilator-associated pneumonia

c)

Constipation

d)

Bradycardia

50.

A patient not on mechanical ventilation has low oxygen saturation. What intervention should the nurse implement?

a)

Increase tidal volume

b)

Increase FiO₂ and reduce exertion (volume)

c)

Decrease oxygen flow

d)

Administer diuretics

51.

A patient with ARDS remains hypoxemic despite receiving high levels of oxygen. What does this indicate?

a)

Normal response to oxygen therapy

b)

O₂ won't help much.

c)

Hypoventilation

d)

Surfactant overproduction

52.

A ventilated ARDS patient has an oxygen saturation of 89%. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Administer a bronchodilator

b)

Auscultate lung sounds

c)

Increase IV fluids

d)

Elevate the foot of the bed

53.

Which of the following patients is most at risk for pulmonary embolism?

a)

60-year-old with hypertension

b)

25-year-old smoker with pelvic fracture

c)

35-year-old athlete with a sprained ankle

d)

50-year-old with asthma

54.

A trauma patient is increasingly hypoxic, tachypneic, and restless. Chest x-ray shows bilateral infiltrates. What complication should the nurse anticipate?

a)

COPD

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Anticipated ARDS

d)

Bronchitis

55.

The nurse is caring for a client being mechanically ventilated. When the high-pressure alarm sounds, with no obvious cause, what is the priority intervention?

a)

Manually ventilate the client with an Ambu-bag

b)

Increase FiO₂

c)

Call respiratory therapy

d)

Reassess ventilator settings

56.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. When the client reports increasing shortness of breath, what is the priority action?

a)

Check for occlusions in the tubing.

b)

Increase oxygen flow

c)

Notify the physician

d)

Reposition the client

57.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). What goal should be included in the care plan?

a)

Maintain coagulation times within the therapeutic range

b)

Increase mobility

c)

Decrease oxygen use

d)

Promote fluid restriction

58.

The nurse is caring for a client being mechanically ventilated. The PEEP has been increased several times throughout the day. The client’s blood pressure suddenly drops from 124/78 to 80/54 and the oxygen saturation (SpO2) drops from 98% to 82%. At 1000, considering the data below what is the priority action?

a)

A. Auscultate breath sounds

b)

B. Increase fluid rate

c)

C. Call the physician

d)

D. Decrease tidal volume

59.

A nurse is caring for a client with an extensive pulmonary embolism and a medical history of hemorrhagic stroke. The client has a blood pressure of 78/46 mm/Hg and heart rate of 120 bpm. What is the best treatment option for this client?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Heparin infusion

c)

Alteplase administration

d)

Pulmonary embolectomy

60.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who becomes hypotensive. What is most likely to be the cause of hypotension in this client?

a)

Hypovolemia is secondary to leakage of fluid into the interstitial spaces.

b)

Decreased respiratory rate

c)

Increased cardiac contractility

d)

Vasodilation from infection

61.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who becomes hypotensive. What is most likely to be the cause of hypotension in this adult?

a)

An Increased cardiac output because of high levels of PEEP

b)

Increased lung compliance

c)

Alkalosis from hyperventilation

d)

Pulmonary embolism

62.

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The client is intubated and receiving oxygen at 40% (FiO2 0.4). What is the priority laboratory value to report to the healthcare provider?

a)

PaO2 of 62 mmHg

b)

HCO3 of 24

c)

SpO2 of 94%

d)

PaCO2 of 35

63.

A client involved in a motor vehicle accident 36 hours ago. The nurse caring for this client plans frequent assessments to monitor for what high-risk complication?

a)

COPD

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

d)

Cardiac tamponade

64.

Family members of a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are very anxious and ask if the client is going to die. What is the best option to address the family’s immediate concerns?

a)

Support the family and help them understand the realistic expectation of the client’s chance of survival.

b)

Avoid discussing prognosis

c)

Reassure them that recovery is certain

d)

Refer them to billing office

65.

A client has an oral endotracheal tube (ETT) inserted to relieve an upper airway obstruction and to facilitate removing secretions. What is the first responsibility of the nurse immediately following tube placement?

a)

Start mechanical ventilation

b)

Document the tube size

c)

Tape the tube securely

d)

Assess for bilateral breath sounds

66.

A client with a recent spinal cord injury reports sudden difficulty breathing. What complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

A. Atelectasis

b)

B. Bronchospasm

c)

C. Pulmonary edema

d)

D. Hemothorax

67.

After completing continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT), when should the nurse anticipate the client will likely resume regular dialysis?

a)

In 5 weeks

b)

In 48 hours

c)

In 2 days

d)

In 10 days

68.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE) what goal should be included in the plan of care?

a)

Avoid all activity for 24 hours

b)

Promote resolution of the thrombus with anticoagulants

c)

Begin thrombolytic therapy without consent

d)

Maintain oxygen saturation >95% by deep suctioning

69.

The client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome is having increased difficulty breathing, and the arterial blood gas indicates an arterial oxygen saturation of 54% on oxygen at 10 L per minute. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

a)

Prepare for endotracheal intubation

b)

Increase the oxygen flow rate

c)

Elevate the head of the bed

d)

Administer bronchodilator

70.

A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 78%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate?

a)

Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation

b)

Place in high Fowler’s position

c)

Start chest physiotherapy

d)

Administer IV fluids

71.

The nurse is assessing a client with blunt chest trauma and finds equal breath sounds muffled heart sounds and distended neck veins. The blood pressure is 80/50 and heart rate is 120 based on these findings what is the priority nursing action?

a)

Start dopamine infusion

b)

Administer morphine

c)

Prepare for chest tube insertion

72.

The nurse is caring for clients admitted to the ICU. Which client is most likely to need mechanical ventilation due to acute respiratory distress syndrome?

a)

A. A client receiving FiO₂ 60% with a PaO₂ of 45 mmHg

b)

B. A client with FiO₂ 40% and PaO₂ of 90 mmHg

c)

C. A client with 2 L nasal cannula and SaO₂ of 94%

d)

D. A client with BP 130/80 and respiratory rate of 18

73.

The nurse is assessing a pt with blunt chest trauma and finds equal breath sounds, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins. The BP is 80/50 and hr is 120. Based on these findings, what is the priority nursing action?

a)

Prepare for emergent pericardiocentesis

b)

Administer IV fluids

c)

Monitor cardiac rhythm

d)

Suction the airway

74.

The nurse caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome on mechanical ventilation. The spo2 is decreasing despite increasing the fio2 several times. What order from the healthcare provider should the nurse implement first?

a)

Increase respiratory rate

b)

Increase PEEP by 2 cm H₂O

c)

Administer IV fluids

d)

Lower tidal volume

75.

A client involved in a motor vehicle accident 36 hour ago. The nurse caring for this client plans frequent assessments to monitor for what high risk complication?

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

d)

Pleural effusion

76.

A client is receiving mechanical ventilation via a cuffed tracheostomy tube. The ventilator alarm is activated and the nurse can hear the client speak. What is most likely the problem?

a)

The tracheostomy tube is blocked

b)

The client is over-sedated

c)

The cuff is underinflated

77.

What is the correct action to take regarding the chest drainage system during ambulation?

a)

Clamp the chest tube briefly during ambulation

b)

Keep the drainage system below chest level

c)

Disconnect the drainage system

d)

Change the chest tube dressing before walking

78.

Here is Bubbling in the water seal chamber, and on the other chamber when the patient breaths it tide up and down with respirations?

a)

The chest tube system has a leak

b)

These are expected findings

c)

The tube is kinked

d)

The chest tube should be clamped

79.

Pt on a ventilator drops their O2 SATs and is struggling to breath and the alarms are going off. What do you do?

a)

Bag the pt

b)

Call the code blu

c)

assess the patient

80.

What is the primary purpose of applying positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) in a patient receiving mechanical ventilation?

a)

Increase respiratory rate

b)

Enhance secretion clearance

c)

Keep alveoli open and prevent collapse

d)

Prevent hyperventilation

81.

The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having a pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following are common clinical manifestations?

a)

A. Hemoptysis

b)

B. Bradycardia

c)

C. Low-grade fever

d)

D. Productive cough

e)

E. Sudden onset of dyspnea

82.

The nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit, who develops absent breath sounds on the left side, tachycardia and distended neck veins. What does the nurse suspect is the cause for the change in the client’s condition?

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Tension pneumothorax

d)

Pneumonia

83.

The nurse is caring for a client with chest tube due to pneumothorax. What is the priority goal of care for this client?

a)

Maintain chest tube drainage below insertion site

b)

Ensure adequate oxygenation

c)

Monitor for infection at the site

d)

Keep the client on bed rest

84.

The nurse is caring for a client who is about to have the chest tube removed by the health care provider. What would the nurse instruct the client to do when the tube is about to be removed? Rational: During chest tube removal it is important to have the client take a deep breath and hold it while bearing down.

a)

Take short shallow breaths

b)

Take a deep breath and bear down (Valsalva maneuver)

c)

Exhale forcefully

d)

Hold your breath after exhaling

85.

A patient in the ICU with unstable hemodynamics requires dialysis. Which therapy is most appropriate?

a)

Intermittent hemodialysis (IHD)

b)

Peritoneal dialysis

c)

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)

d)

Hemofiltration only at night

86.

A nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of respiratory failure due to a large pulmonary embolism. What mechanism primarily contributes to this complication?

a)

Decreased pulmonary compliance

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

d)

Alveolar collapse

87.

A patient diagnosed with pulmonary embolism has a drop in SpO₂ from 94% to 88%. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a)

Notify the healthcare provider

b)

Increase flow of the oxygen rate

c)

Reposition the patient flat

d)

Call for a rapid response

88.

A patient develops sudden restlessness and dyspnea. Which diagnostic test will most likely confirm a pulmonary embolism?

a)

Chest X-ray

b)

ABG

c)

CT pulmonary angiography

d)

Echocardiogram

89.

A nurse notes absent breath sounds in the left upper lung lobe of a trauma patient. What condition does this most likely indicate?

a)

Pleural effusion

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Atelectasis

90.

Which symptom is most commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Sudden onset chest pain

c)

Slow onset of wheezing

d)

Gradual onset of fever

91.

A patient develops ARDS following multiple respiratory infections. What finding is characteristic of this condition?

a)

Wheezing

b)

Refractory hypoxemia

c)

Productive cough

d)

Bradycardia

92.

The nurse assists with endotracheal intubation. After confirming the cuff is inflated, what is the first action the nurse should take?

a)

Check ABG values

b)

Auscultate for bilateral breath sounds

c)

Call respiratory therapy

d)

Secure the tube with tape

93.

A client has a SpO₂ of 84% with abnormal ABG values and signs of respiratory distress. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Elevate the head of the bed

b)

Administer a bronchodilator

c)

Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for intubation

d)

Encourage deep breathing exercises

94.

The high-pressure ventilator alarm is activated and the cause is unknown. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Call the respiratory therapist

b)

Disconnect the ventilator and manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve mask

c)

Increase FiO₂ to 100%

d)

Document the ventilator setting

95.

Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to a UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel)?

a)

Adjust the oxygen flow

b)

Administer oral medications

96.

Which of the following is considered a hallmark sign of a pulmonary embolism (PE) that the nurse should assess for?

a)

Stridor

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hemoptysis

d)

Night sweats

97.

Which nursing interventions are effective in the prevention of pulmonary embolism in hospitalized patients?

a)

Early ambulation

b)

Application of compression stockings

c)

Use of sequential compression devices (SCDs)

d)

Keeping the patient in bed with legs elevated at all times

e)

Restricting fluids to prevent fluid overload

98.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation with PEEP. Which of the following statements about PEEP and ventilation are correct?

a)

PEEP keeps alveoli open and improves gas exchange

b)

High PEEP increases the risk of barotrauma and pneumothorax

c)

Hyperventilation leads to low PaCO₂ and respiratory alkalosis

d)

Hypoventilation causes CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis

e)

The safest and most effective strategy is to use the highest possible PEEP at all times