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MLT 2212 Basic Immunology Exam 1 Review Ch 1-8

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Phagocytosis is appropriately categorized into which of the following?

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Innate immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Specific immunity

2.

A patient with a viral infection that has initiated their cell-mediated immunity might have an increased number of which leukocytes in their peripheral blood?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Basophils

3.

Which of the following cells can phagocytize foreign microbes?

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Natural killer (NK) cells

4.

Which of the following cells is a phagocytic cell that has a similar morphology to nerve cells?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Mast cells

d)

Macrophages

5.

Secondary lymphoid tissues that are located near our joints and serve as a collecting duct for lymph fluid are:

a)

spleen cells.

b)

lymph nodes.

c)

MALT.

d)

CALT.

6.

Foreign microbes that enter through a cut in our hand should expect defense from which lymphoid tissue?

a)

CALT

b)

Spleen

c)

MALT

d)

Thymus

7.

Which of the following is NOT a type of immune molecule?

a)

adhesion molecules.

b)

antibodies.

c)

chemotaxins.

d)

clusters of differentiation.

8.

A patient with antibodies in their serum to a particular virus has activated which immune cells?

a)

NK cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

T lymphocytes

9.

Which lymphocyte is part of our innate immunity?

a)

NK cells

b)

B cells

c)

T helper cells

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

10.

Which of the following is an internal defense mechanism?

a)

Keratin coating epithelial cells

b)

Lactic acid in sweat

c)

Surfactant in mucosal secretions

d)

Phagocytosis

11.

A pathogen entering the respiratory tract would encounter which external defense mechanism?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Movement of cilia

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Lactic acid

12.

Normal flora is best described by which of the following statements?

a)

One type of bacteria that is normally present and never causes disease

b)

A mix of bacteria that are normally present that never cause disease

c)

A mix of bacteria that are normally present and do not typically cause disease

d)

One type of bacteria that is normally present and that we constantly are defending against

13.

Acute phase reactants act by doing which of the following?

a)

Promoting destruction by releasing proteolytic enzymes

b)

Promoting adherence to pathogens

c)

Limiting phagocytosis

d)

Limiting adherence to pathogens

14.

Which of the following occurs during an inflammatory response?

a)

Constriction of the blood vessels

b)

Decreased permeability of fluid through the vessels

c)

Diapedesis

d)

Migration of macrophages within 30 mins.

15.

Which inflammatory response is responsible for the symptom of swelling?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Increased permeability of fluid through vessels

c)

Diapedesis

d)

Increased blood flow to area

16.

Which of the following phagocytic steps should occur after the others?

a)

Formation of phagosome

b)

Outflowing of cytoplasm

17.

An antigenic determinant is also called:

a)

an immunogen.

b)

an epitope.

c)

an antibody.

d)

a polysaccharide.

18.

Which of the following molecules is the best immunogen?

a)

Protein

b)

Polysaccharide

c)

Nucleic acid

d)

Lipid

19.

Which of the following is a low-molecular-weight molecule that has one binding site for an antibody?

a)

Antigen

b)

Hapten

c)

Immunogen

d)

Adjuvant

20.

Antigens found in different species that trigger a similar antibody response are called:

a)

heterophile antigens.

b)

haptens.

c)

alloantigens.

d)

autoantigens.

21.

The term “human leukocyte antigen” is synonymous with:

a)

allele.

b)

haplotype.

c)

major histocompatibility complex.

d)

chromosome.

22.

A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response in an immunocompetent host is called:

a)

an immunogen.

b)

an antibody.

c)

a hapten.

d)

an acute-phase reactant.

23.

MHC class I antigens are recognized by which of the following cells?

a)

CD4+ T cells

b)

CD8+ T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Macrophages

24.

Characteristics of heterophile antigens include which of the following?

a)

Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody

b)

One's own self-antigens

25.

NK cell cytotoxicity involves which of the following?

a)

Release of lysosomal contents

b)

Fusion of lysosomal granules

26.

MHC class I protein is found on:

a)

red blood cells.

b)

all nucleated cells.

c)

B cells and macrophages only.

d)

stem cells only.

27.

A cell that can recall previous contact with a particular antigen so that subsequent exposure leads to a more rapid and more effective immune response than the first encounter is which type of cell?

a)

Memory lymphocyte

b)

Effector lymphocyte

c)

Plasma cell

d)

Stem cell

28.

The purpose of negative selection of B cells is to:

a)

eliminate B cells that don't express mu.

b)

prevent activation of B cells in the bone marrow.

c)

direct more B cells to become plasma cells.

d)

eliminate B cells that are specific for self-antigens.

29.

Predominant cell types involved in the humoral immune response are:

a)

eosinophils.

b)

macrophages.

c)

neutrophils.

d)

B cells.

30.

The only cells in the body capable of specifically recognizing and distinguishing different antigenic determinants are:

a)

macrophages.

b)

dendritic cells.

c)

lymphocytes.

d)

neutrophils.

31.

T lymphocytes undergo antigen-independent maturation in the:

a)

thymus.

b)

bone marrow.

c)

lymph node.

d)

spleen.

32.

The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are:

a)

plasma cells.

b)

B cells.

c)

T helper cells.

d)

cytotoxic T cells.

33.

A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way?

a)

Plasma cells are only found in peripheral blood.

b)

Only plasma cells secrete circulating antibody.

c)

Plasma cells secrete cytokines.

d)

Plasma cells are an immature form in B-cell development.

34.

The function of CD4+ T cells is:

a)

to help B cells make antibody.

b)

to kill virally infected cells.

c)

phagocytosis.

d)

production of opsonins.

35.

Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells and tumor cells?

a)

CD4 T cells

b)

CD8 T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Plasma cells

36.

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?

a)

Fab

b)

CL

c)

CH

d)

Hinge region

37.

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary response?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

38.

Which of the following is characteristic of IgG?

a)

First class of antibody to appear

b)

Found mainly in secretions

c)

The least abundant antibody in serum

d)

Provides immunity for the newborn

39.

Identify the correct pairing of an immunoglobulin and its property.

a)

IgA: crosses the placenta

b)

IgG: most abundant in serum

c)

IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell

d)

IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response

40.

Which of the following is a characteristic of IgA?

a)

It is found in secretions.

b)

It fixes complement.

c)

It is a pentamer in serum.

d)

It is the primary response antibody.

41.

Which immunoglobulin is found in only trace amounts in the serum?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgD

d)

IgA

42.

Which is a characteristic of IgM?

a)

It can cross the placenta.

b)

It is able to fix complement.

c)

It increases greatly in the secondary response.

d)

It can bind only two antigens.

43.

Identify the true statement about the anamnestic response versus the primary antibody response.

a)

The primary response has a long lag phase; the anamnestic response has a short lag phase.

b)

The primary response has a short lag phase; the anamnestic response has a long lag phase.

c)

The primary response involves a rapid increase in antibody titer, whereas the anamnestic response involves a rapid decrease in antibody titer.

d)

The primary response involves predominantly an increase in IgG antibodies, whereas the anamnestic response involves predominantly an increase in IgM antibodies.

44.

Which option best describes a monoclonal antibody?

a)

Antibody made against multiple epitopes

b)

Antibody made by a variety of B cells

c)

Antibody made from a single antibody-producing cell

d)

All antibodies of any one particular class

45.

An Fab fragment consists of:

a)

two heavy chains.

b)

two light chains.

c)

one light chain and one-half of a heavy chain.

d)

one light chain and an entire heavy chain.

46.

Characteristics of cytokines include which of the following?

a)

They are directly cytotoxic to bacteria.

b)

They are produced primarily by the liver.

c)

They are chemical messengers that regulate the immune system.

d)

They are polysaccharides.

47.

Many cytokines are produced in response to:

a)

anemia.

b)

infectious stimuli.

c)

low platelet counts.

d)

immunodeficiency.

48.

A cytokine “storm” is a:

a)

systemic transfer of reactive macrophages induced by cytokines.

b)

cytokine-mediated invasion of an infected wound by leukocytes.

c)

massive, pathological overproduction of cytokines that contributes to pathogenesis.

d)

psychological response to cytokines that bind hypothalamic receptors.

49.

IL-2 is produced by one cell, and the same IL-2 stimulates that same cell. This type of cytokine activity is called:

a)

autocrine.

b)

paracrine.

c)

endocrine.

d)

pleotropic.

50.

Multiple cytokines are activated to cause similar biological effects. What is this process called?

a)

Pleiotropy

b)

Redundancy

c)

Synergism

d)

Antagonism

51.

Which of the following plays a role in innate immunity?

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-10

c)

TNF-α

d)

IL-3

52.

Identify the main action of IL-6.

a)

Stimulates red blood cell production.

b)

Stimulates synthesis of acute-phase proteins.

c)

Inhibits antigen presentation by macrophages.

d)

Decreases activation of T and B cells.

53.

Type I interferons play a significant role in protection against which type of infection?

a)

Bacterial

b)

Fungal

c)

Parasitic

d)

Viral

54.

Erythropoietin regulates:

a)

T-cell function.

b)

bone marrow cell differentiation.

c)

proinflammatory cytokine synthesis.

d)

the acute-phase response.

55.

Which of the following cytokines is produced by Th1 cells and is suppressive for Th2 lymphocytes?

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-4

c)

TGF-beta

d)

IFN-gamma

56.

Which complement component is found in both the classical and alternative pathways?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

Factor B

d)

C3

57.

Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway?

a)

IgG

b)

Mannose-binding lectin

c)

C3b

d)

C1q

58.

Which of the following is the correct order of activation of complement in the lectin activation pathway?

a)

C1, C4, C2, C3

b)

MBL, C4, C2, C3

c)

C3, factor B, C3

d)

MBL, C2, C3, C4

59.

The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of which of the following?

a)

Antibody

b)

C3

c)

Mannose

d)

C1qrs

60.

The recognition unit in the classical complement pathway consists of:

a)

C4b2a3b.

b)

C5b6789.

c)

C1qrs.

d)

factor B.

61.

C5b6789 functions in:

a)

target cell lysis.

b)

recognition of antigen.

c)

chemotaxis.

d)

complement inhibition.

62.

A patient has an abnormal alternative pathway activation pattern. Which complement proteins should be assessed to further investigate the problem?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

C3

d)

C4

63.

A coworker says she has an allergy to latex. As her supervisor, what should you advise her to do?

a)

Wear latex gloves but wash her hands often to stop the allergy.

b)

Wear gloves made of an alternative material.

c)

Do not wear gloves.

d)

Wash the latex gloves before using.

64.

A laboratory technologist receives blood samples via the pneumatic tube system. One of the tubes breaks in the carrier. To break the chain of infection, what should the laboratory technologist do?

a)

Wear gloves before handling the broken sample.

b)

Open the bag in the tube station without gloves.

c)

Pour the blood that spilled out into a new tube.

d)

Send the sample back to the sending station as is.

65.

How should you wash your hands after removing gloves?

a)

Rinse only your fingers with water for 20 seconds.

b)

Wash your hands without soap for 10 seconds.

c)

Wash your hands with soap for at least 20 seconds.

d)

Run water over your hands and then apply hand sanitizer.

66.

What is the most appropriate laboratory safety wear?

a)

Cloth laboratory coat worn unbuttoned

b)

Fluid-resistant laboratory gown with wrist cuffs

c)

A patient gown worn tied in the back

d)

No laboratory coat unless you have to clean up a spill

67.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) developed standard precautions using the assumption that:

a)

outpatients are generally healthy enough, so no precautions need to be taken.

b)

all patients are potentially infected or carriers of transmittable organisms, so appropriate precautions need to be followed.

c)

only patients with coughs are potentially infected or carriers of transmittable organisms, so appropriate precautions are recommended only for these patients.

d)

all hospitalized patients are considered healthy until blood culture results are available; precautions are recommended for those with positive results.

68.

What does the acronym RACE stand for?

a)

Run, active, call, escape

b)

Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish

c)

Recall, alarm, call, exit

d)

Run, alarm, code, extinguish

69.

What does the acronym PASS stand for?

a)

Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep

b)

Pass, activate, sweep, scram

c)

Pull, alarm, squeeze, sweep

d)

Pass, activate, scram, scream

70.

Which of the following situations is an example of a postanalytical variable?

a)

Not centrifuging a specimen long enough

b)

Laboratory professional not realizing that a reagent on an instrument was depleted

c)

Not properly diluting a patient sample

d)

Entering the wrong test results for a patient when documenting results

71.

The Lean system benefits the laboratory by:

a)

eliminating waste.

b)

decreasing employee satisfaction.

c)

enabling a laboratory to do less with more.

d)

increasing costs.

72.

Which option is considered the primary goal of a Six Sigma program?

a)

To increase laboratory productivity

b)

To cut laboratory costs

c)

To decrease the amount of reagent used

d)

To reduce variables and decrease errors