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Dispute Resolution Mock Board

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which law was the first to institutionalize the Katarungang Pambarangay?

a)

PD 1508

b)

PD 1293

c)

Barangay Reform Act

d)

Katarungang Pambarangay Act

2.

What is the role of the Lupong Tagapamayapa in the barangay justice system?

a)

To represent the barangay in court proceedings.

b)

To mediate and settle disputes at the barangay level.

c)

To enforce punishments for offenders in the community.

d)

To provide legal advice to residents in the barangay.

3.

Which venue applies when a dispute arises at the workplace?

a)

The barangay where the respondent resides.

b)

The barangay where the workplace is located.

c)

Any barangay chosen by the complainant.

d)

The barangay where the school/institution is located.

4.

Who promulgated the PD 1508 that institutionalized KP?

a)

President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo

b)

President Ferdinand Marcos

c)

President Corazon Aquino

d)

President Rodrigo Duterte

5.

Where is a dispute filed if there is only one respondent?

a)

In any barangay of the complainant's choice.

b)

In the barangay where the complainant resides.

c)

In the barangay where the respondent resides.

d)

In the nearest barangay to where the dispute occurred.

6.

If there are multiple respondents residing in different barangays, where can the dispute be filed?

a)

In any barangay where the complainant resides.

b)

In the barangay where the dispute occurred.

c)

In any barangay where the respondents reside at the option of the complainant.

d)

In the nearest barangay to where the respondents reside.

7.

What is the Katarungang Pambarangay Law?

a)

RA 7160

b)

RA 7610

c)

RA 7601

d)

RA 9208

8.

What is the composition of the Lupong Tagapamayapa?

a)

The punong barangay and five to ten members.

b)

The punong barangay and ten to twenty members.

c)

The punong barangay and twenty to thirty members.

d)

The punong barangay and any number of members who are willing to serve.

9.

In disputes involving real properties, where should the complaint be brought?

a)

The barangay where the respondent resides.

b)

The barangay where the workplace is located.

c)

The barangay where the school/institution is located.

d)

The barangay where the real property is situated.

10.

What are the elements of restorative justice?

a)

Encounter, amends, reintegration, inclusion

b)

Encounter, punishment, retribution, exclusion

c)

Encounter, compensation, rehabilitation, forgiveness

d)

Encounter, restitution, community service, mediation

11.

Which of the following is not a benefit of restorative justice?

a)

It recognizes that offenders harm victims, communities, and even themselves.

b)

It involves more parties, including victims and communities.

c)

It measures success by how much punishment has been inflicted.

d)

It recognizes the importance of community involvement in reducing crime.

12.

What is the main difference between restorative justice and retributive justice?

a)

Restorative justice seeks to repair the harm caused by crime, while retributive justice seeks to punish the offender for their crime.

b)

Restorative justice focuses on the harm caused by crime, while retributive justice focuses on the law that has been broken.

c)

Restorative justice involves only the offender, while retributive justice involves the offender, the victim, and the community.

d)

Restorative justice is a process of resolving conflicts, while retributive justice is a court proceeding.

13.

Which of the following is a characteristic of retributive justice?

a)

Focuses on repairing the harm caused by crime.

b)

Seeks to compensate victims of crime.

c)

Views punishment as the best response to crime.

d)

Requires maximum involvement of the victim, offender, and community.

14.

Who is responsible for providing overall supervision of the incident in critical incident management?

a)

Incident Commander

b)

First Responder

c)

Command Post

d)

Crisis Management Committee

15.

What is the primary responsibility of the Red Team in critical incident management?

a)

To provide medical training to the Incident Commander.

b)

To role-play the adversary and challenge the organization's effectiveness.

c)

To conduct investigations and gather evidence at the incident scene.

d)

To formulate crisis management procedures and integrate concerned offices/units.

16.

What is the purpose of Contingency Planning in critical incident management?

a)

To establish command post locations for incident management.

b)

To prevent or better respond to emergency situations.

c)

To provide support and assistance to the Crisis Management Committee.

d)

To engage and guide efforts of non-governmental agencies during crises.

17.

What is the role of the PNP in responding to natural calamities and disasters?

a)

To manage an incident that could be resolved by ordinary response without the involvement of the Crisis Management Committee (CMC).

b)

To manage an incident that needs a CMC-directed operation requiring the implementation of special tasks by one or more of the urgent services of the Philippine government.

c)

To act as the first responder in the affected area to provide area security and support in the conduct of search, rescue, and retrieval operations.

d)

To follow the ICS operational procedures only in situations that require the involvement of the Crisis Management Committee (CMC).

18.

What is the purpose of the Pre-Disaster Stage in disaster management?

a)

Activation of Disaster Incident Management Task Groups.

b)

Provision of security and traffic assistance to returning evacuees.

c)

Identification of disaster-prone areas and risk mapping.

d)

Submission of After Disaster Response Report.

19.

Which stage of disaster management involves the activation of Disaster Incident Management Task Groups (DIMTG)?

a)

Pre-Disaster Stage

b)

Disaster Response Stage

c)

Post-Disaster Stage

d)

Human Induced Incident Stage

20.

Which stage of disaster management involves the deployment of personnel for relief operations?

a)

Pre-Disaster Stage

b)

Disaster Response Stage

c)

Post-Disaster Stage

d)

Human Induced Incident Stage

21.

What is Level 1 alert level during human-induced critical incidents?

a)

There is a strong possibility that a human-induced critical incident may occur within a short period of time.

b)

A human-induced critical incident has just occurred or has been pre-empted.

c)

There is no information to suggest a specific human-induced critical incident may occur.

d)

Human-induced critical incident is possible, but not likely.

22.

What is Level 3 alert level during human-induced critical incidents?

a)

There is a strong possibility that a human-induced critical incident may occur within a short period of time.

b)

A human-induced critical incident has just occurred or has been pre-empted.

c)

There is no information to suggest a specific human-induced critical incident may occur.

d)

Human-induced critical incident is possible, but not likely.

23.

How many major functional areas is the ICS structured on?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Six

24.

Which Command Staff member is responsible for monitoring safety conditions and developing measures to ensure the safety of personnel?

a)

Safety Officer (SO)

b)

Public Information Officer (PIO)

c)

Liaison Officer (LO)

d)

Negotiation Team (NT)

25.

Which Command Staff member serves as the primary contact for supporting agencies assisting at the incident?

a)

Safety Officer (SO)

b)

Public Information Officer (PIO)

c)

Liaison Officer (LO)

d)

Negotiation Team (NT)

26.

Which General Staff member is responsible for directing actions to meet the incident objectives?

a)

Operation Staff

b)

Planning Staff

c)

Budget and Logistics Staff

d)

Administrative Staff

27.

Which General Staff member is responsible for tracking incident-related costs, personnel records, and procurement contracts?

a)

Operation Staff

b)

Planning Staff

c)

Budget and Logistics Staff

d)

Administrative Staff

28.

What is the primary concern of the Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC)?

a)

Providing logistical support to emergency responders.

b)

Formulating crisis management procedures and coordinating government, military/police and public efforts towards the prevention and control of crisis incidents.

c)

Providing financial assistance to disaster victims.

d)

Collecting intelligence and conducting investigations related to the incident.

29.

How many sub-committees does the PNP NHQ CIMC have?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Six

30.

What is the role of the CIMTG?

a)

To provide logistical support to emergency responders during natural disasters.

b)

To carry out the mandates of the...

31.

How many committees does the PNP NHQ CIMC have?

a)

Three

b)

Four

32.

What is the role of the CIMTG?

a)

To provide logistical support to emergency responders during natural disasters.

b)

To carry out the mandates of the PNP CIMC on human-induced (man-made) incidents.

c)

To collect intelligence and conduct investigations related to the incident.

d)

To provide financial assistance to disaster victims.

33.

What is the term for a situation in which perpetrators hold person(s) captive against their will as bargaining chips, refusing the demands of authorities to surrender?

a)

Hostage

b)

Hostage-taking

c)

Tactical Interrogation

d)

Stronghold

34.

Who are individuals or groups that hold another person(s) against their will as bargaining chips or for personal interests?

a)

Hostage takers

b)

Negotiators

c)

Incident Commanders

d)

Tactical Interrogators

35.

What is the term used to describe a situation during hostage-taking where the victim develops rapport and becomes sympathetic with the captor?

a)

Stockholm Syndrome

b)

Hostage

c)

Negotiator

d)

Hot debrief

36.

What is the term for positive proof that the hostage is alive, obtained from a reliable or verified source?

a)

Pay-off

b)

Proof of life

c)

Hostage taker

d)

Stronghold

37.

What is the role of the Secondary Negotiator in a hostage negotiation?

a)

Act as a buffer between command personnel and the Negotiation Team.

b)

Maintain a visual display of all relevant information.

c)

Interview individuals associated with the suspect to gather information.

d)

Assist the primary negotiator.

38.

Who is responsible for managing all aspects of negotiations in a hostage situation?

a)

Negotiation Team Leader (NTL)/Coordinator

b)

Primary Negotiator

c)

Secondary Negotiator

d)

Intelligence Liaison/Recorder

39.

What is the purpose of establishing an Advanced Command Post (ACP) in a hostage situation?

a)

To initiate contact with the hostage-taker.

b)

To gather information from witnesses.

c)

To control and organize resources and exercise command.

d)

To preserve evidence and take custody of witnesses.

40.

What should first responders do if the situation becomes volatile in a hostage situation?

a)

Request deployment of the Hostage Negotiation Team (HNT).

b)

Evacuate nearby areas and clear areas for other responders.

c)

Maintain security, crowd and traffic control at the incident scene.

d)

Brief the TL, HNT, and turn over the conduct of negotiation.

41.

What does the 'C' stand for in the ICER method?

a)

Control

b)

Contain

c)

Communicate

d)

Coordinate

42.

Why is it important to contain the hostage-taker's mobility to the smallest location?

a)

To restrict the hostage-taker within the inner perimeter.

b)

To evaluate the situation and gather information.

c)

To establish a temporary command post.

d)

To deny the hostage-taker the opportunity to observe police activities.

43.

What is the purpose of evaluating the situation in the ICER method?

a)

To isolate physical and psychological activities.

b)

To assess the threats and estimate the location of the command post.

c)

To gather cursory information about the situation.

d)

To report the number and identities of hostage-takers and hostages.

44.

What is the recommended approach when negotiating in a hostage situation?

a)

Conduct negotiations in person.

b)

Allow non-law enforcement officers to participate in negotiations.

c)

Adhere to the ethics of negotiation.

d)

Use force to compel the hostage-taker to cooperate.

45.

Under what circumstances may the tactical assault be resorted to in a hostage situation?

a)

When negotiations have been unsuccessful.

b)

When the hostage-taker poses imminent danger to the negotiator or hostage.

c)

When the hostage-taker demands it.

d)

When the incident becomes publicized in the media.

46.

What is the purpose of the Assault Team in the hostage situation?

a)

To coordinate deliveries and hostage receptions.

b)

To provide medical emergency assistance.

c)

To secure and neutralize the hostage-taker if negotiations fail.

d)

To manage traffic and ensure public safety.

47.

What is the importance of clearing and securing the crime scene after the neutralization of the hostage-taker?

a)

To gather evidence for future analysis and investigation.

b)

To provide medical assistance to injured persons.

c)

To facilitate the debriefing of hostages and participating personnel.

d)

To issue press statements and inform the public about the incident.

48.

When should the CMC and CIMTG be deactivated in the hostage situation?

a)

After the initiation of negotiations with the hostage-taker.

b)

Once the crowd is under control and the perimeter is secured.

c)

After the neutralization of the hostage-taker and rescue of hostages.

d)

At the beginning of the debriefing process with hostages and participants.

49.

Which negotiation approach is founded on an interactive assessment of the crisis situation as it unfolds and is created through the interaction of the negotiator and the perpetrator?

a)

Bargaining Negotiation Approach

b)

Expressive Negotiation Approach

c)

Communication-based Negotiation Approach

d)

Surrender Approach

50.

What should the negotiator say when introducing themselves to the leader?

a)

"I am a negotiator and I am here to negotiate."

b)

"My name is , I am a negotiator and I am willing to help."

c)

"I am a negotiator and I have the authority to meet your demands."

d)

"My name is , and I am in charge here."

51.

Which negotiation approach focuses on the exchange or distribution of resources?

a)

Bargaining Negotiation Approach

b)

Expressive Negotiation Approach

c)

Communication-based Negotiation Approach

d)

Surrender Approach

52.

Which negotiation approach emphasizes the emotional state of the hostage-taker?

a)

Bargaining Negotiation Approach

b)

Expressive Negotiation Approach

c)

Communication-based Negotiation Approach

d)

Surrender Approach

53.

Which type of personality disorder may cause a hostage-taker to suffer from delusions or hallucinations?

a)

Mentally deranged

b)

Severe depression

c)

Personality disorder

d)

Paranoid

54.

Which type of personality disorder is characterized by deeply ingrained maladaptive patterns of behavior resulting from child abuse?

a)

Mentally deranged

b)

Severe depression

c)

Personality disorder

d)

Sociopath

55.

Which type of personality disorder may lead a hostage-taker to believe they are threatened or persecuted?

a)

Mentally deranged

b)

Severe depression

c)

Personality disorder

d)

Paranoid

56.

What is the main objective of terrorists who take hostages?

a)

achieving political purposes

b)

suffering from mental aberration

c)

anti-social behavior due to child abuse

d)

manifesting traits devoid of conscience

57.

Which type of hostage-taker is mentally ill and takes hostages during a period of psychiatric disturbance?

a)

Professional Hostage Taker

b)

Psychotic Hostage Taker

c)

Person in Crisis

d)

Common Criminals

58.

Which type of hostage-taker takes hostages due to prolonged frustration, despair, and personal problems?

a)

Professional Hostage Taker

b)

Psychotic Hostage Taker

c)

Person in Crisis

d)

Common Criminals

59.

What is the inverse of Stockholm Syndrome, where abductors develop sympathy for their hostages?

a)

Stockholm Syndrome

b)

Lima Syndrome

c)

London Syndrome

d)

Oslo Syndrome

60.

Which of the following is NOT a specific guideline for Civil Disturbance Management (CDM) operations?

a)

The CDM contingent shall not carry any kind of firearms.

b)

Tear gas, smoke grenades, water cannons, or any similar anti-riot device may be used without restrictions.

c)

The members of the CDM contingent dealing with the demonstrators shall be in prescribed uniform.

d)

A separate security contingent may be organized to provide immediate assistance to the CDM contingents.

61.

What is the maximum distance that a CDM contingent should be stationed away from the place where a public assembly is being held, according to Batas Pambansa 880?

a)

50 meters

b)

100 meters

c)

200 meters

d)

500 meters

62.

What is the purpose of Consequence Management in crisis management?

a)

Resolving the event without further incident.

b)

Ensuring the safety of all participants.

c)

Mitigating the impact of adverse effects.

d)

Apprehending all perpetrators.

63.

In the 4P Crisis Management Model, which phase focuses on predicting, preventing, and preparing for crises?

a)

Proactive Phase

b)

Reactive Phase

c)

Performance Phase

d)

Emergency Phase

64.

What is the purpose of the Prediction phase in crisis management?

a)

To establish positive contact with the Crisis Management Committee (CMC).

b)

To ensure a smooth and speedy rehabilitation or return to normalcy.

c)

To foretell the likelihood of crises occurring or man-made.

d)

To neutralize the perpetrator(s) of the crisis incident.

65.

Which phase of crisis management focuses on planning, organization, training, and stockpiling of equipment and supplies?

a)

Prediction phase

b)

Preparation phase

66.

How often is the lupon constituted in each barangay?

a)

every year

b)

every two years

c)

every three years

d)

every four years

67.

How many members are there in the lupon?

a)

5 to 10

b)

10 to 15

c)

10 to 20

d)

15 to 20

68.

What is the role of the pangkat ng tagapagkasundo?

a)

To provide legal advice on matters involving questions of law.

b)

To issue summons and conduct hearings for disputes.

c)

To administer oaths in connection with katarungang pambarangay proceedings.

d)

To bring together parties for amicable settlement of disputes.

69.

When can the parties go directly to court instead of seeking settlement through the lupon?

a)

If the accused is under detention.

b)

If a person has been deprived of personal liberty.

c)

If the action is coupled with provisional remedies.

d)

All of the above.

70.

How long does the pangkat have to arrive at a settlement or resolution of a dispute?

(a)  

71.

How long does the pangkat have to arrive at a settlement or resolution of a dispute?

a)

5 days

b)

10 days

c)

15 days

d)

20 days

72.

Who is authorized to administer oaths in katarungang pambarangay proceedings?

a)

Punong Barangay and members of the pangkat

b)

Barangay Secretary and lupon members

c)

City or Municipal Mayor and barangay officials

d)

Department of Justice and public prosecutors

73.

Which government agency is responsible for promulgating rules and regulations for katarungang pambarangay?

a)

Department of Justice

b)

Department of the Interior and Local Government

c)

Office of the President

d)

Supreme Court

74.

How long does the lupon have to transmit the settlement or arbitration award to the appropriate court?

a)

1 day

b)

3 days

c)

5 days

d)

7 days

75.

In what language should the amicable settlements be written?

a)

English

b)

Filipino

c)

Language known to the parties

d)

Language known to the lupon chairman

76.

What happens if the parties fail to agree on the membership of the pangkat?

a)

The case is automatically referred to court.

b)

The lupon chairman appoints the members.

c)

The parties draw lots to determine the members.

d)

The case is dismissed without settlement.

77.

Who may assist minors and incompetents during katarungang pambarangay proceedings?

a)

Lawyers

b)

Next-of-kin who are not lawyers

c)

Legal guardians appointed by the court

d)

Public prosecutors

78.

A group of activists is protesting against police brutality and has organized a peaceful demonstration in Burnham Park. The Baguio City police office has received complaints from nearby residents about the noise and disruption caused by the protest. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies would be most appropriate for the police department to use?

a)

Avoiding

b)

Defeating/Competing

c)

Accommodating

d)

Collaborating

79.

What is the benefit of using mediation as a conflict resolution process?

a)

It allows one party to make a decision on behalf of the other.

b)

It is faster and less expensive than other processes.

c)

It guarantees a favorable outcome for one of the parties.

d)

It allows the parties to work together to find a mutually acceptable solution.

80.

What can a mediator do to assist the parties in reaching a solution during mediation?

a)

Give legal advice to one of the parties.

b)

Advocate for one party's interests over the others.

c)

Force the parties into a solution.

d)

Clarify issues, identify concerns, and help parties understand each other's interests.

81.

How are decisions made during mediation?

a)

by the mediator

b)

by one of the parties

c)

by a judge or arbitrator

d)

by the parties themselves

82.

What is a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)?

a)

A legal document that outlines the mediator's decision on the dispute.

b)

A document that outlines the terms of the parties' agreement reached during mediation.

c)

A document that outlines the legal rights of each party.

d)

A document that outlines the financial penalties for breaching the mediation agreement.

83.

When can a submission or contract for arbitration be revoked?

a)

At any time during the arbitration process

b)

Only if both parties agree to revoke it

c)

If there are grounds existing at law for revoking any contract

d)

When a court orders the revocation

84.

What can the court do if a party petitions to vacate or set aside an award?

a)

Issue a new award

b)

Order a new hearing before the same or new arbitral tribunal

c)

Refer the case to a different court for review

d)

Suspend the proceedings indefinitely

85.

What order can the court issue in case of the death of a party in an arbitration proceeding?

a)

An order dismissing the arbitration proceeding.

b)

An order extending the time for serving notice of a motion to recognize or vacate an award.

c)

An order appointing a new arbitrator.

d)

An order invalidating the entire arbitration agreement.

86.

What is the effect of a party's death on the proceedings after an award has been recognized?

a)

The proceedings are terminated, and a new arbitration must begin.

b)

The proceedings continue without any changes.

c)

The court appoints a new party to replace the deceased.

d)

The court may order a retrial of the case.

87.

Who can be appointed as mini-trial panel members?

a)

Senior executives of each party.

b)

Lawyers representing each party.

c)

Judges from the court overseeing the mini-trial.

d)

Arbitrators with expertise in the subject matter of the dispute.

88.

Which division is responsible for promoting the importance and public acceptance of mediation, conciliation, arbitration, and other ADR forms?

a)

Secretariat

b)

Public Information and Promotion Division

c)

Training Division

d)

Records and Library Division

89.

What are the primary responsibilities of the Training Division in the OADR?

a)

Dissemination of information and promotion of ADR methods.

b)

Formulation of effective standards for ADR training.

c)

Issuance of certifications of training to ADR practitioners and service providers.

d)

Establishment and maintenance of a central repository of ADR information.

90.

Which division is responsible for the establishment and maintenance of a central repository of ADR laws, rules, and other relevant information?

a)

Secretariat

b)

Public Information and Promotion Division

c)

Training Division

d)

Records and Library Division

91.

Who appoints the members of the Advisory Council?

a)

The OADR Executive Director

b)

The Secretary of Justice

c)

The Chairman of the Council

d)

The representatives from the mediation profession

92.

Who recommends the appointment of members to the Advisory Council?

a)

The Secretary of Justice

b)

The OADR Executive Director

c)

The Chairman of the Council

d)

The representatives from the mediation profession

93.

Which of the following is NOT considered an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) method under RA 9285?

a)

Mediation

b)

Arbitration

c)

Litigation

d)

Conciliation

94.

What is the role of the Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution (OADR) established under RA 9285?

a)

To provide free legal advice to individuals involved in disputes.

b)

To train mediators and arbitrators for ADR processes.

c)

To oversee the operations of traditional court systems.

d)

To promote the use of litigation in resolving conflicts.

95.

What is the effect of reaching a settlement through alternative dispute resolution methods, as stated in RA 9285?

a)

The decision is binding and final, similar to a court judgment.

b)

The decision can be appealed to a higher court for review.

c)

The decision is non-binding and can be disregarded by the parties involved.

d)

The decision requires additional approval from the OADR to be enforceable.

96.

What is the statutory timeframe for completing the entire alternative dispute resolution process under RA 9285?

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

97.

What is the main benefit of using alternative dispute resolution (ADR) methods, as provided by RA 9285?

a)

Reduced costs and faster resolution compared to court litigation.

b)

Guaranteed favorable outcomes for all parties involved.

c)

Mandatory participation of all parties in the dispute.

d)

Binding decisions that cannot be appealed.

98.

Under RA 9285, which of the following is NOT required for a valid arbitration agreement?

a)

It must be in writing.

b)

It must be signed by the parties.

c)

It must identify the subject matter of the dispute.

d)

It must be approved by the court.

99.

Who may be appointed as a member of the Lupong Tagapamayapa?

a)

Any person who is a registered voter in the barangay.

b)

Any person who is actually residing or working in the barangay and not otherwise disqualified by law.

c)

Any person who has a law degree and is licensed to practice law.

d)

Any person who is an incumbent barangay official.

100.

How is the Lupong Tagapamayapa constituted?

a)

The members are appointed by the Department of the Interior and Local Government.

b)

The members are elected by the barangay residents.

c)

The punong barangay prepares a notice to constitute the lupon and proposes the names of members who have expressed their willingness to serve, which is posted in three conspicuous places in the barangay.

d)

The members are appointed by the mayor of

101.

How many members make up the Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo?

a)

One member

b)

Two members

c)

Three members

d)

Four members

102.

How are the members of the Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo chosen?

a)

They are appointed by the lupon chairman.

b)

They are elected by the barangay council.

c)

They are selected by the parties involved in the dispute.

d)

They are nominated by the city or municipal court.