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Femur, Pelvis

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary reason the femur must be rotated internally for an AP hip radiograph?

a)

To reduce patient discomfort

b)

To place the femoral neck parallel to the IR due to the 15-20 degree anterior angle

c)

To visualize the lesser trochanter

d)

To prevent overlapping of bony structures

2.

The greater trochanter is described as:

a)

A small prominence located medially and posteriorly

b)

A large prominence located superiorly and laterally to the femoral shaft

c)

Located at the center of the femoral head

d)

The connection point between the neck and shaft

3.

In hip localization method #2, from the ASIS you should go:

a)

Lateral 1-2", then superior 3-4"

b)

Medial 1-2", then inferior 3-4"

c)

Medial 3-4", then inferior 1-2"

d)

Lateral 3-4", then superior 1-2"

4.

In the anatomical position, which of the following is NOT visible?

a)

True AP of the knee

b)

True AP of the leg

c)

True AP of the hip

d)

True AP of the ankle

5.

The pelvic girdle consists of:

a)

Two hip bones only

b)

Two hip bones and the sacrum

c)

Four bones: two hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx

d)

The sacrum and coccyx only

6.

The three divisions of the hip bone fuse together during:

a)

Childhood

b)

The teenage years

c)

Early adulthood

d)

Middle age

7.

Which structure forms the anterior border of the false pelvis?

a)

The ala or wings

b)

The abdominal muscles

c)

The sacrum

d)

The ischium

8.

The SI joints are characterized as:

a)

Cartilaginous joints

b)

Fibrous joints

c)

Amphiarthrodial joints

9.

The symphysis pubis is held together by:

a)

Synovial fluid only

b)

A fibrocartilaginous disk and ligaments

c)

Bone fusion

d)

Muscle attachments

10.

Which characteristic is typical of a female pelvis?

a)

Narrower and deeper shape

b)

Less flared ilia

c)

Oval or heart-shaped inlet

d)

Wider and more shallow with more flared ilia

11.

The male pubic arch angle is typically:

a)

Greater than 90 degrees

b)

Less than 90 degrees

c)

Exactly 90 degrees

d)

Variable and unpredictable

12.

The outlet of the true pelvis is triangular and made up of:

a)

The two ASIS and the symphysis pubis

b)

The two ischial tuberosities and the tip of the coccyx

c)

The sacrum and the two ilia

d)

The acetabulum and the obturator foramen

13.

What imaging modality is now used instead of cephalopelvimetry for evaluating birth canal dimensions?

a)

CT scan

b)

MRI

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Nuclear medicine

14.

Avulsion fractures of the pelvis are:

a)

Common in elderly patients

b)

Almost exclusive to adolescent athletes

c)

Always require surgical repair

d)

Painless injuries

15.

Chondrosarcomas are characterized by:

a)

Bone destruction without calcifications

b)

Bone destruction with calcifications in the cartilaginous tumor

c)

Only soft tissue involvement

d)

Rapid, painless growth

16.

The older term for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) was:

a)

Congenital hip fracture

b)

Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)

c)

Infant hip syndrome

d)

Pediatric hip dysplasia

17.

The first indicator of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease is typically:

a)

Severe pain

b)

Visible deformity

c)

A limp

d)

Fever

18.

The radiographic appearance of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease shows:

a)

Enlarged femoral head

b)

Flattened or fragmented femoral head

c)

Displaced femoral neck

d)

Thickened joint space

19.

Metastatic carcinoma most commonly affects bones containing:

a)

Yellow bone marrow

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Cortical bone only

d)

Trabecular bone only

20.

The bones most commonly affected by metastatic carcinoma include:

a)

Hands and feet

b)

Skull, spine, ribs, femurs, and pelvis

c)

Radius and ulna

d)

Tibia and fibula

21.

The radiographic appearance of metastatic carcinoma typically shows:

a)

Single large lesion

b)

Numerous small lytic lesions

c)

Bone sclerosis only

d)

Joint space narrowing

22.

Osteoarthritis is also known as:

a)

Inflammatory joint disease

b)

Degenerative joint disease (DJD)

c)

Infectious arthritis

d)

Autoimmune arthritis

23.

The radiographic appearance of osteoarthritis includes:

a)

Widened joint spaces

b)

Narrowed, irregular joint spaces with sclerotic surfaces and spurs

c)

Bone destruction

d)

Soft tissue swelling only

24.

Pelvic ring fractures may require which special projection when the AP is inconclusive?

a)

Lateral projection

b)

Oblique projection

c)

Inlet projection

d)

Outlet projection

25.

Proximal femur fractures are most commonly found in:

a)

Young athletes

b)

Middle-aged adults

c)

Older adults

d)

Adolescents

26.

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) diagnosis is made using:

a)

AP pelvis only

b)

Lateral hip only

c)

AP pelvis and bilateral frog-leg

d)

CT scan

27.

When performing frog-leg views for SCFE, what precaution should be taken?

a)

Use higher kVp

b)

Perform with caution as abduction may increase slippage

c)

Always use a grid

d)

Ensure patient is sedated

28.

The epiphyseal plate in SCFE appears:

a)

Narrower than normal

b)

Wider than normal

c)

Completely closed

d)

Fragmented

29.

Which imaging modality is used to assess hip joint stability during movement in newborns?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Sonography

d)

Nuclear medicine

30.

Nuclear medicine is particularly useful for:

a)

Detecting fractures

b)

Measuring bone density

c)

Detecting early signs of bone infection

d)

Evaluating joint spaces

31.

CT and MRI generally:

a)

Replace conventional radiography

b)

Are used as primary imaging

c)

Add information to what was already obtained by x-ray

32.

Which of the following is NOT commonly used as a positioning landmark in practice?

a)

Iliac crest

b)

ASIS

c)

Symphysis pubis

d)

Greater trochanter

33.

The ischial tuberosity is:

a)

Always used for positioning

b)

Technically a bony landmark but not commonly used in practice

c)

Located on the ilium

d)

The same as the ischial spine

34.

The iliac crest extends from:

a)

ASIS to AIIS

b)

ASIS to PSIS

c)

PSIS to PIIS

d)

AIIS to PIIS

35.

The greater sciatic notch is located on the:

a)

Ischium

b)

Pubis

c)

Ilium

d)

Sacrum

36.

The lesser sciatic notch is located:

a)

Superior to the ischial spine

b)

Inferior and anterior to the ischial spine

c)

On the ilium

d)

On the pubis

37.

The symphysis pubis is classified as a:

a)

Synovial joint

b)

Fibrous joint

c)

Cartilaginous joint

d)

Compound joint

38.

The symphysis pubis has limited movement during:

a)

Normal walking

b)

Pelvic trauma and labor/delivery

c)

Deep breathing

d)

Arm movements