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Exam 2 Review study guide: Ch. 8-11

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Allosteric feedback inhibition is best described by which of the following statements?

a)

A molecule binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site, causing a change in enzyme activity.

b)

A substrate binds directly to the active site of an enzyme, increasing its activity.

c)

An enzyme is permanently deactivated by a covalent modification at the active site.

d)

A product of a reaction binds to the active site, blocking substrate binding.

2.

Which of the following produces the NADH and ATP? You can pick more than one.

a)

Transition reaction

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Electron Transfer Chain

3.

What is the final electron acceptor in the ETC for aerobic respiration?

a)

H+

b)

NAD+

c)

O2

d)

ADP

4.

Anaerobic respiration includes all the following characteristics except?

a)

Can produce up to 36 ATP

b)

A different final electron acceptor than O2

c)

Goes through the same steps as aerobic respiration

d)

Needs oxygen to move the electron down the membrane in the electron transport chain

5.

Differentiate between oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation, and identify when each occurs in cell respiration.

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation uses the electron transport chain and occurs in the mitochondria, while substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

b)

Both oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation occur only during glycolysis.

c)

Substrate-level phosphorylation uses the electron transport chain, while oxidative phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis.

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation are identical processes that occur simultaneously throughout cell respiration.

6.

The overarching chemical equation for cellular respiration is C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, and for photosynthesis it is 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2. In cellular respiration, glucose is oxidized and oxygen is reduced. Which of the following correctly matches the equations and the molecules oxidized/reduced?

a)

Cellular respiration: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (glucose oxidized, oxygen reduced); Photosynthesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

Cellular respiration: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 (CO2 oxidized, water reduced); Photosynthesis: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

Cellular respiration: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O (oxygen oxidized, glucose reduced); Photosynthesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

d)

Cellular respiration: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 (glucose reduced, oxygen oxidized); Photosynthesis: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

7.

Prokaryotic cells produce more net ATP from glucose than eukaryotes because:

a)

they do not use ATP to transport pyruvate into mitochondria

b)

they don't have an investment stage

c)

they use a different type of glucose

d)

they lack glycolysis

8.

There are two major types of fermentation. Which of the following correctly describes both types, their purpose, and their result?

a)

Alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation; both convert glucose to NAD+ in the absence of oxygen, producing either alcohol and CO2 or lactic acid as a result.

b)

Aerobic and anaerobic fermentation; both require oxygen and produce water as a result.

c)

Alcoholic fermentation and acetic acid fermentation; both convert proteins to amino acids, producing alcohol and vinegar.

d)

Lactic acid fermentation and butyric acid fermentation; both use sunlight to produce glucose and oxygen.

9.

The reactions that occur in the mitochondria (cellular respiration) are related to photosynthesis in which of the following ways?

a)

The products of photosynthesis are the reactants for cellular respiration.

b)

Cellular respiration and photosynthesis use the same energy source.

c)

Photosynthesis occurs only in mitochondria, just like cellular respiration.

d)

Cellular respiration produces oxygen, which is used in photosynthesis.

10.

Some factors that can affect an enzyme's function include temperature, pH, substrate concentration, and the presence of inhibitors. Which of the following is an example of a factor that can affect enzyme function?

a)

Temperature

b)

Color

c)

Shape of container

d)

Amount of light

11.

What temperature profile fits that of microbes that are part of the human microbiota?

a)

Profile 2 (mesophiles, optimal temperature around 37°C)

b)

Profile 1 (psychrophiles, optimal temperature around 10°C)

c)

Profile 3 (thermophiles, optimal temperature around 60°C)

d)

Profile 4 (hyperthermophiles, optimal temperature above 80°C)

12.

The process by which bacteria reproduce is called:

a)

Binary fission

b)

Mitosis

c)

Budding

d)

Fragmentation

13.

Is a culture enters death phase, all cells will eventually die.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

A type of cell that may be able to survive the death phase is:

a)

Endospore-forming cell

b)

Lysed cell

c)

Senescent cell

d)

Autolysed cell

15.

Is oxygen used by all bacteria? What is one method bacteria use to neutralize harmful oxygen radicals

a)

Yes, all bacteria require oxygen and use catalase to digest nutrients

b)

No they use superoxide dismutase to convert oxygen into oxygen radicals into less harmful substances

c)

No they avoid oxygen by forming spores

d)

Yes but they only grow in anaerobic enviorments

16.

In which way can temperature affect bacterial growth.

a)

Temperature can increase or decrease the rate of bacterial growth.

b)

Temperature has no effect on bacterial growth.

c)

Temperature only affects viruses, not bacteria.

d)

Temperature causes bacteria to change color.

17.

Hyperthermophile

a)

80-110*C

b)

20-40*C

c)

0-15*C

d)

4-25*C

18.

Mesophile

a)

20-40*C

b)

80-110*C

c)

0-15*C

d)

50-80*C

19.

Psychrophile

a)

0-15*C

b)

20-40*C

c)

80-110*C

d)

50-80*C

20.

Psychotroph

a)

4-25*C

b)

0-15*C

c)

80-110*C

d)

20-40*C

21.

Thermophile

a)

50-80*C

b)

4-25*C

c)

0-15*C

d)

20-40*C

22.

Based on temperature profiles, human pathogens are typically which type of bacteria?

a)

Psychrophiles

b)

Thermophiles

c)

Mesophiles

d)

Hyperthermophiles

23.

Bacteria associated with food contaminants include which of the following?

a)

Salmonella

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Lactobacillus

d)

Rhizobium

24.

__________ would be able to contaminate salted fish.

a)

Halophiles

b)

Thermophiles

c)

Acidophiles

d)

Psychrophiles

25.

Which of the following is the most common category of bacteria?

a)

acidophiles

b)

alkaliphiles

c)

extreme alkaliphiles

d)

neutrophiles

26.

What term best describes H. pylori?

a)

Acidophile

b)

Psychrophile

c)

Neutrophile

d)

Alkaliphile

e)

Barophile

27.

________ is when the cell membrane moves away from the cell wall due to osmosis occurring within the cytoplasm.

a)

Plasmolysis

b)

Turgor pressure

c)

Cytolysis

d)

Endocytosis

28.

Quorum sensing always occurs between members of the same species.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

This method of bacterial communication is involved in the formation of biofilms by:

a)

enabling bacteria to coordinate gene expression and behavior for biofilm development

b)

preventing bacteria from adhering to surfaces

c)

destroying the extracellular matrix of biofilms

d)

inhibiting the growth of other microorganisms in the environment

30.

Characteristics of biofilms that complicate the treatment of infections involving biofilms include:

a)

Increased resistance to antibiotics

b)

Rapid cell division

c)

Lack of extracellular matrix

d)

Enhanced immune system recognition

31.

The bacterium that causes Hansens disease (leprosy), Mycobacterium leprae, infects mostly the extremities of the body: hands, feet, and nose. Can you make an educated as to its optimum temperature of growth.

a)

25-37°C

b)

0-15°C

c)

80-100°C

d)

-20-20°C

32.

The ideal disinfectant has these characteristics:

a)

Expensive, non-toxic, non-corrosive, Fast-acting, stable, and easy to use.

b)

Expensive, difficult to store, stable during storage, and highly toxic.

c)

Inexpensive, Fast-acting, Stable during storage, capable of controlling microbial growth while being harmless to humans, animals, and objects

d)

Inexpensive, Unstable, corrosive, and harmful to humans.

33.

The D value stands for which of the following, and what does it measure?

a)

Decimal reduction time; it measures the time required to reduce a microbial population by 90%.

b)

Density value; it measures the mass per unit volume of a substance.

c)

Diffusion rate; it measures the speed at which molecules spread.

d)

Dilution factor; it measures the concentration of a solution.

34.

Some targets of antimicrobials include:

a)

Cell wall synthesis

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Muscle contraction

d)

Nerve impulse transmission

35.

Do targets of antimicrobials change depending on the organism? Why?

a)

Yes, it changes depending on the organism because different organisms have different structures and metabolisms

b)

No, it remains the same for all organisms regardless of their type.

c)

Yes, but only for plants and not for animals.

d)

No, it only changes depending on the environment, not the organism.

36.

Enveloped viruses are more susceptible than nonenveloped viruses because:

a)

their lipid envelope is easily disrupted by environmental factors.

b)

they have a stronger protein coat than nonenveloped viruses.

c)

they replicate faster than nonenveloped viruses.

d)

they are resistant to disinfectants.

37.

Environmental factors that can alter the effect of antimicrobials include:

a)

Temperature, pH, and presence of organic matter

b)

Color of the antimicrobial agent

c)

Shape of the microorganism

d)

Time of day the antimicrobial is used

38.

Refrigeration slows down the growth of most microbes, but which ones are not affected by this process?

a)

Psychrophiles will not experience this effect.

b)

Thermophiles will not experience this effect.

c)

Mesophiles will not experience this effect.

d)

Halophiles will not experience this effect.

39.

Examples of using osmotic pressure as a microbial control method include:

a)

Salting meat to preserve it

b)

Boiling water to kill microbes

c)

Using UV light for sterilization

d)

Autoclaving surgical instruments

40.

Organisms that are more resistant to these methods are known as:

a)

Bacterial spores

b)

Vegetative bacteria

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

41.

What must be taken into consideration when choosing chemical method for antimicrobial control?

a)

Effectiveness, safety, and compatibility with the material being treated

b)

The color of the chemical

c)

The taste of the chemical

d)

The price only

42.

Iodophors might be considered optimal antimicrobials because they are effective and less irritating, but what might make them non-optimal?

a)

They can be inactivated by organic matter

b)

They are always toxic to humans

c)

They are not effective against any microbes

d)

They are only used for water purification

43.

Rank the different antimicrobials as low, medium, and high-level.

a)

Low-level: Quaternary ammonium compounds; Medium-level: Alcohols; High-level: Glutaraldehyde

b)

Low-level: Alcohols; Medium-level: Glutaraldehyde; High-level: Quaternary ammonium compounds

c)

Low-level: Glutaraldehyde; Medium-level: Quaternary ammonium compounds; High-level: Alcohols

d)

Low-level: Alcohols; Medium-level: Quaternary ammonium compounds; High-level: Glutaraldehyde

44.

Which germicide classification is correct?

a)

High level = kill all pathogens including endospores

Intermediate level = kill fungal spores, protozoan cysts, viruses, pathogens, bacteria

Low level = kill vegetative bacteria, fungi, protozoa, some viruses

b)

High level = kill vegetative bacteria, fungi, protozoa, some viruses

Intermediate level = kill all pathogens including endospores

Low level = kill fungal spores, protozoan cysts, viruses, pathogens, bacteria

45.

Rank Most resistant to Most susceptible

A)Gram + Bacteria B)Mycobacteria C)Active Stage Protozoa D)Prions

E)Bacterial Endospores F)Cysts of Protozoa G)Fungi H)Enveloped Viruses

I)Nonenveloped Viruses J)Gram - Bacteria

a)

D, E, B, F, C,

J, G, I, A, H

b)

H, A, I, G, J,

C, F, B, E, D

c)

A, B, D, J, I,

E, C, F, G, H

46.

Prions are more susceptible than Mycobacterium

a)

T

b)

F

47.

Prion = Most Resistant

Enveloped Viruses = Most Suceptible

a)

T

b)

F

48.

Gram - are more resistant than Gram + bacteria

a)

T

b)

F

49.

Non enveloped viruses are more susceptible than enveloped viruses

a)

F

b)

T

50.

Where do theses fall on the scale?

Most resistant (1) - (10) Most susceptible

a)

(1) Prions

(2) Bacterial Endospores

(3) Mycobacteria

(4) Cysts of Protozoa

(5) Active Stage Protozoa

b)

(6) Gram - bacteria

(7) Fungi

(8) Nonenveloped Viruses

(9) Gram + Bacteria

(10) Enveloped Viruses

c)

(1) Prions

(2) Mycobacterium

(3) Bacterial Endospores

(4) Fungi

(5) Gram - Bacteria

d)

(6) Gram + Bacteria

(7) Enveloped Viruses

(8) Active Stage Protozoa

(9) Cyst of Protozoa

(10) Non enveloped Viruses

51.

Disinfection

a)

Reduces or destroys microbial load of an inanimate object through heat or antimicrobial chemicals

b)

Reduces microbial load of inanimate item to safe public health levels through application of heat or antimicrobial chemicals

c)

eliminates all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses from inanimate object

52.

Sanitization

a)

Reduces microbial load of an inanimate item to safe public health levels through application of heat or antimicrobial chemicals

b)

Reduce microbial load on skin or tissue through application of an antimicrobial chemical

c)

Completely eliminates all vegetative cells, endospores and viruses from an inanimate object

53.

Sterilization

a)

Completely eliminates all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses from an inanimate object

b)

Reduces microbial load on skin or tissue through gentle or firm scrubbing and use of mild chemicals

c)

Reduces or destroys microbial load of an inanimate object through application of heat or antimicrobial levels

54.

Antisepsis

a)

Reduces microbial load on skin or tissue through application of an antimicrobial chemical

b)

Reduces microbial load on skin or tissue through gentle to firm scrubbing and use of mild chemicals

c)

Reduces microbial load of an inanimate object through application of heat antimicrobial chemicals

55.

Degerming

a)

Reduces microbial load on skin or tissue through gentle scrubbing and use of mild chemicals

b)

Reduces microbial load on skin through application of an antimicrobial chemical

56.

Cleaning surfaces like lab benches, clinical surfaces, and bathrooms

a)

disinfection

b)

sanatization

c)

degerming

57.

chlorine bleach, phenols, glutaraldehyde

a)

disinfection

b)

sanitization

c)

sterilization

58.

commercial dishwashing of eating utensils, cleaning public restrooms

a)

sanatization

b)

antisepsis

c)

disinfection

59.

detergents contaning phosphates, industrial strength cleaners

containing quaterary ammonium compounds

a)

Sanitization

b)

Sterilization

c)

Degerming

60.

Prep of surgical equipment, needles for injections

a)

Sterilization

b)

Sanatization

c)

Degerming

61.

Pressurized steam, chemicals, radiation

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Antisepsis

62.

Boric acid, isopropyl alcohol, hydrogen perioxide, iodine

a)

antsepsis

b)

degerming

c)

disinfection

63.

Soap, Alcohol Swab

a)

Degerming

b)

Sanatization

c)

Disinfection

64.

Handwashing

a)

Degerming

b)

Antisepsis

c)

Sterilization

65.

Cleaning skin broken due to injury, cleaning skin before surgery

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Sanitization

c)

Degerming

66.

Catabolism

Anabolism

a)

Break larger molecules

Synthesize larger molecules

b)

Synthesize larger molecules

Break larger molecules

67.

Metabolism = The sum of controlled biochemical rxns

within a cell, ultimate function is to reproduce the cell

a)

T

b)

F

68.

Glycolysis

Krebs Cycle

ETC/Chemiosmosis

a)

substrate level

substrate level

oxidative

b)

oxidative

oxidative

substrate level

69.

Oxidation = ____

Reduction = ____

a)

lose

gain

b)

gain

lose

70.

Glycolysis products

a)

2 ATP

b)

2 NADH

c)

2 Pyruvate

d)

2 NAD

71.

Substrate level phosphorylation

a)

transfer of phosphate

b)

ADP + Pi = ATP

c)

ATP ---> ADP + Pi

d)

driven by chemiosmosis

72.

Entner-Douoroff Pathway products

a)

2 Pyruvate

b)

1 NADH

c)

1 NADPH

d)

1 ATP

e)

1 FAD

73.

Entner-Duoroff Pathways is used by some bacteria

a)

T

b)

F

74.

Pentose- Phosphate pathway products

a)

2 NADPH

b)

1 ATP

c)

precursor metabolities

d)

1 FAD

75.

Krebs products (per glucose)

a)

2 ATP

b)

2 FADH2

c)

6 NADH

d)

4 Co2

e)

4 FAD

76.

transition to krebs products (per glucose)

a)

2 acetyl-CoA

b)

2 Co2

c)

2 NADH

d)

2 FAD

77.

Krebs occurs in ____ of prokaryotes and _____ in eukaryotes

a)

cytosol

matrix of mitochondria

b)

matrix of mitochondria

cytosol

78.

In aerobic respiration ___ serves as the final electron acceptor

In anaerobic respiration ___ serves as the final electron acceptor

a)

O2

NO3^- / SO4^2- / CO3^2-

b)

NO3^- / SO4^2- / CO3^2-

O2

79.

NADH yeild ___ ATP

FADH2 yeild ___ATP

a)

3

2

b)

2

3

80.

ETC occurs in ___ for prokaryotes and ___

for eukaryotes

a)

plasma membrane

mitochondrial membrane

b)

mitochondrial membrane

plasma membrane

81.

Light-dependent (light) rxs occur in _____

Ligh-independent (dark) rxs occur in ____

a)

cytoplasmic membrane / thylakoid membrane

cytoplasm / stroma

b)

cytoplasm / stroma

cytoplasmic membrane / thylakoid membrane

82.

In light independent reactions, the steps of glycolysis go in reverse

a)

T

b)

F

83.

light independent rxn product pathway

a)

3 molecules of CO2 enter, 1 G3P leave, 2 molecules of G3P make one molecule of glucose

b)

I molecule of glucose enter, 2 molecules of G3P leave, 1 G3P make 3 molecules of CO2

84.

Phototrophs

a)

use light energy to drive ATP production

b)

depend on redox rxns of inorganic or organic compounds

c)

carbon from organic molecules

d)

use CO2 as carbon source

85.

Chemotrophs

a)

depend on redox rxns of inorganic or organic compounds

b)

use light energy to drive ATP production

c)

use CO2 as a Carbon source

d)

Carbon from organic molecules

86.

Autotrophs

a)

use CO2 as a Crabon source

b)

Carbon from organic molecules

c)

depend on redox rxns of inorganic and organic molecules

d)

use light energy to drive ATP production

87.

Heterotrophs

a)

Carbon from organic molecules

b)

use CO2 as a Carbon source

c)

depend on redox rxns of inorganic or organic compounds

d)

use light energy to drive ATP production

88.

Cyanobacteria, plants (Oxygenic)

Green Bacteria, Purple Bacteria (Anoxygenic)

a)

Photoautotroph

b)

Photoheterotroph

c)

Chemoautotroph

d)

Chemoheterotroph

89.

Green bacteria, purple nonsulfur bacteria

a)

Photoheterotroph

b)

Photoautotroph

c)

Chemoautotroph

d)

Chemoheterotroph

90.

Iron-oxidizing bacteria

a)

Photoheterotroph

b)

Photoautotroph

c)

Chemoheterotroph

d)

Chemoautotroph

91.

Fermentative bacteria, Animals, Protozoa, Fungi, Bacteria

a)

Chemoheterotroph

b)

Chemoautotroph

c)

Photoheterotroph

d)

Photoautotroph

92.

Oxygenic

Anoxygenic

a)

produces O2

Doesnt produce O2

b)

Doesnt produce O2

produces O2

93.

grow between 6.5-7.5 ph

a)

Neutrophiles

b)

Acidophiles

c)

Alkalinophiles

94.

grow in ph 6 or less

a)

neutrophiles

b)

acidophiles

c)

alkalinophiles

95.

grow in 8.5 - 11.5

a)

alkalinophiles

b)

acidophiles

c)

neutrophiles

96.

molds and yeasts are

a)

acidophiles

b)

neutrophiles

97.

Endospores and cysts cease most metabolic activity in dry enviorments from years

a)

t

b)

f

98.

How does H. Pylori (a neurtophile) survive in the stomach

a)

produces urease, which breaks down urea into amonium ions making the enviorment more neutral

b)

It doesnt

c)

produces lipase, which creates a phospholipid capsuke around itself protecting it from harsh stomach acids

99.

salt loving organisms

a)

Halophiles

b)

Barophiles

100.

organisms that live under extreme atmospheric conditions

a)

Barophiles

b)

Halophiles

101.

____ Require high salt

_____Tolerate high salt

a)

Obligate Halophiles

Facultative Halophiles

b)

Facultative Halophiles

Obligate Halophiles

102.

Require Oxygen, undergo aerobic repiration

a)

Obligate Aerobes

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Microanaerobes

d)

Aerotolerant anaerobes

103.

do not use aerobic respiration, tolerate but cant use oxygen, have enzymes that detoxify oxygens poisonous forms

a)

Aerotolerant anaerobes

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Microanaerophiles

d)

aerobes

104.

Grow via fermentation, aerobic respiration or anaerobic respiration when O2 not avaible

a)

Faciltative anaerobes

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Areobes

d)

Aerotolerant anaerobes

105.

unable to use O2 and most are harmed by oxygen radicals, do not use areobic respiration

a)

Anaerobes

b)

Aerobes

c)

Obligate aerobes

d)

Microareophiles

106.

require a minimum O2 concentration (1-10%), lower than atmospheric air (21%), have a limited ability to detoxify hydrogen perioxide and superoxide radicals

a)

Microaerophiles

b)

Anaerobes

c)

Aerobes

d)

Obligate Aerobes

107.

Obligate Anaerobes lack all 3 enzymes that break down toxic by products

a)

Superoxide dismutase

b)

Urease

c)

Catalase

d)

Perioxidase

108.

Why measure microbial populations

a)

determine how severe an infection is/ how far it has spread

b)

food preservation techniques

c)

evaluate disinfectants and antibiotics

d)

measure H2O contamination

109.

How does allosteric FB inhibition work?

a)

Goes back and changes the first enzyme

b)

Goes back and changes the first gene

c)

Goes back and changes the first compound

110.

chemical equation for cellular respiration is C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

b)

6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

111.

The chemical equation for photosynthesis is

a)

6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

112.

The chemical equation for cellular respiration is C_H_O_ + _O2 → _CO2 + _H2O

a)

6

12

6

6

6

6

b)

6

6

6

12

6

6

113.

The chemical equation for photosynthesis it is _CO2 + _H2O → C_H_O_ + _O2

a)

6

6

6

12

6

6

b)

6

12

6

6

6

6