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Anatomy Chp 1-5

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Histology is the study of structures that can be observed without a magnifying lens.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

We live in an ever‑changing environment outside of our body, yet our internal conditions remain relatively stable. This is called ________.

a)

evolution

b)

metastasis

c)

responsiveness

d)

homeostasis

3.

An _________blank is composed of two or more tissues types, whereas _________blank are microscopic structures in a cell.

a)

organ system; organs

b)

organ; organelles

c)

organelle; molecules

d)

organ; molecules

4.

The study of the structure and function of cells is called

a)

comparative physiology

b)

cytology

c)

exploratory physiology

d)

gross anatomy

5.

What are the simplest body structures considered alive?

a)

Organs

b)

Organ systems

c)

Cells

d)

Organelles

6.

The prefix hypo‑ means ________, whereas hyper‑ means ________.

a)

front; back

b)

right; left

c)

inside; outside

d)

below; above

7.

A(n) ________ is a group of similar cells and their intercellular materials in a discrete region of an organ performing a specific function.

a)

organelle

b)

organ system

c)

macromolecule

d)

tissue

8.

A physiological ________ is a difference in chemical concentration, electrical charge, physical pressure, temperature, or other variables between one point and another.

a)

feedback loop

b)

barrier

c)

gradient

d)

imbalance

9.

Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates the pancreas to release insulin. Insulin lowers blood glucose. This is an example of ________.

a)

integration control

b)

set point adjustment

c)

dynamic equilibrium

d)

negative feedback

10.

The study of normal body structures is called ________.

a)

anatomy

b)

microscopy

c)

biology

d)

physiology

11.

When a woman is giving birth, oxytocin intensifies contractions until the baby is expelled. This is an example of ________.

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

set point adjustment

d)

integration control

12.

The lexicon of standard international anatomical terms is ________.

a)

formed from thousands of French word roots

b)

called Terminologia Anatomica (TA)

c)

formed from thousands of Italian word roots

d)

called Nomina Anatomica (NA)

13.

What does “hypercalcemia” mean?

a)

Elevated sodium levels

b)

Lowered sodium levels

c)

Lowered calcium levels

d)

Elevated calcium levels

14.

Which of the following lists levels of human structure from the most complex to the simplest?

a)

Organ, organ system, tissue, cell, organelle

b)

Organ system, organelle, tissue, cell, organ

c)

Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle

d)

Organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system

15.

Chemicals in a solution move down a concentration gradient from ________ concentration to ________ concentration.

a)

higher; lower

b)

lower; higher

c)

. equal; equal

d)

higher; higher

16.

During exercise, body temperature rises. Blood vessels dilate and heat is lost. This is an example of ________.

a)

integration control

b)

negative feedback

c)

set point adjustment

d)

positive feedback

17.

The study of how the body functions is called ________.

a)

anatomy

b)

pathology

c)

biology

d)

physiology

18.

What is the answer to this: Table sugar is a disaccharide called _________ and is made up of the monomer(s) _________

a)

sucrose; glucose and fructose

b)

maltose; glucose and sucrose

c)

glycogen; glucose and fructose

d)

lactose; glucose and galactose

19.

Carbon is very versatile in forming bonds with other atoms because it has _________blank valence electrons.

a)

four

b)

two

c)

eight

d)

six

20.

Nucleic acids are _________blank of _________blank.

a)

monomers; monosaccharides

b)

polymers; nucleotides

c)

monomers; ATP

d)

polymers; DNA

21.

Proteins perform all of the following functions except _________

a)

produce muscular and other forms of movement

b)

store hereditary information

c)

regulate transport of solutes into and out of cells

d)

give structural strength to cells and tissues

22.

Proteins are _________built from _________ different amino acids.

a)

molecules; 10

b)

peptides; 25

c)

polymers; 20

d)

monomers; 10

23.

All enzymes are _________

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

cofactors

24.

Which of these is hydrophobic?

a)

K+

b)

Fat

c)

Water

d)

Cl−

25.

What is indicated by the arrow?

a)

Prion

b)

Anion

c)

Proton

d)

Electron

26.

When table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl), is placed in water _________.

a)

Na+ and Cl− form polar covalent bonds with each other

b)

Na+ and Cl− form ionic bonds with each other

c)

Na+ and Cl− become separated by their Van der Waals forces

d)

ionic bonds between Na+ and Cl− are broken

27.

The most abundant element in the human body, by weight, is _________

a)

calcium

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

28.

_________ is a monosaccharide, whereas _________ is a polysaccharide.

a)

Cellulose; glucose

b)

Fructose; sucrose

c)

Glucose; starch

d)

Lactose; glycogen

29.

Na (atomic no. 11) reacts with Cl (atomic no. 17) to become stable. In the reaction, Na will _________, while Cl will _________

a)

give up one electron; accept one electron

b)

become an anion; become a cation

c)

give up one proton; accept one proton

d)

share one electron with chlorine; share one electron with sodium

30.

Triglycerides consist of a 3-carbon compound called _________ bound to three _________.

a)

glycerol; fatty acids

b)

lactate; glycerols

c)

sterol; fatty acids

d)

eicosanoid; steroids

31.

Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16. How many valence electrons does it have?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

16

d)

8

32.

In a workout your muscle cells produce lactate, yet you maintain a constant blood pH because _________.

a)

metabolic acids are neutralized in muscle cells before released into the blood

b)

metabolic bases are produced at the same rate by muscle cells to neutralize the acids

c)

the body contains chemicals called buffers that resist changes in pH

33.

What type of bond attracts one water molecule to another?

a)

An ionic bond

b)

A covalent bond

c)

A hydrolytic bond

d)

A hydrogen bond

34.

Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. Sodium has _________

a)

12 electrons and 11 neutrons

b)

12 protons and 11 electrons

c)

12 neutrons and 11 protons

d)

12 electrons and 11 protons

35.

The breakdown of glycogen (an energy-storage compound) is an example of a(n) _________ reaction.

a)

synthesis

b)

exergonic

c)

equilibrium

d)

endergonic

36.

Which one of the following would not increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

A rise in temperature

b)

An increase in reactant concentrations

c)

The presence of a catalyst

d)

A decrease in reactant concentrations

37.

_________ differ from one another in their number of neutrons and atomic mass.

a)

Anions

b)

Isotopes

c)

Cations

d)

Free radicals

38.

Which of these has the highest H+ concentration?

a)

Saliva, pH = 6.6

b)

Lemon juice, pH = 2.3

c)

Household ammonia, pH = 10.8

d)

Tomato juice, pH = 4.7

39.

A drastic conformational change in a protein in response to extreme heat or pH is called _________

a)

denaturation

b)

deconformation

c)

saturation

d)

contamination

40.

What is the name of the positively charged subatomic particle?

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Proton

d)

Element

41.

What type of bond involves the unequal sharing of electrons?

a)

Polar covalent

b)

Nonpolar covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Hydrogen

42.

White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of _________

a)

cotransport

b)

phagocytosis

c)

pinocytosis

d)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

43.

Which of the following is not one of the three basic components of a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

None of these are basic components of a cell.

c)

Interstitial fluid

d)

Cytoplasm

44.

What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?

a)

Both involve transport of a solute down its concentration gradient.

b)

. Both involve the use of energy provided by ATP.

c)

Both involve transport of a solute up its concentration gradient.

d)

Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport

45.

Which of the following organelles is not involved in protein synthesis?

a)

Smooth ER

b)

The nucleus

c)

Rough ER

d)

The Golgi complex

46.

The plasma membrane is mostly made of molecules that have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. These molecules are called _________

a)

lipoproteins

b)

phospholipids

c)

glycolipids

d)

proteoglycans

47.

The most abundant molecules in the plasma membrane are _________

a)

cholesterol molecules

b)

prostaglandins

c)

glycolipids

d)

phospholipids

48.

Which of the following processes requires the use of energy?

a)

Filtration

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

49.

Muscle cells contain numerous _________ to serve their high demand for ATP.

a)

Golgi vesicles

b)

lysosomes

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

50.

What is the branch of biology that investigates cells called?

a)

Arthrology

b)

Microscopy

c)

Microscopy

d)

Cytology

51.

______ play an important role in cell division, and are made of ______.

a)

Inclusions; centrosomes

b)

Ribosomes; intermediate filaments

c)

Centrioles; microtubules

d)

Mitochondria; microtubules

52.

The sodium-potassium ( Na+−K+ ) pump transports both sodium and potassium _________blank their concentration gradients in a process called _________

a)

down; countertransport

b)

up; active transport

c)

up; cotransport

d)

down; active transport

53.

A patient was severely dehydrated, losing a large amount of fluid. The patient was given intravenous fluids of normal saline. Normal saline is ______ to your blood cells and is about ______ NaCl.

a)

isotonic; 9%

b)

hypertonic; 9%

c)

hypotonic; 9%

d)

isotonic; 0.9%

54.

A protein that is bound to a carbohydrate is called a

a)

phosphoprotein

b)

proteocalyx

c)

lipoprotein

d)

glycoprotein

55.

Which organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Centriole

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi complex

56.

The flat-shaped cells found covering the skin are ______ in shape.

a)

cylindrical

b)

spherical

c)

columnar

d)

squamous

57.

Which function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Active transport

d)

Exocytosis

58.

Simple diffusion is defined as the movement of

a)

molecules from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration

b)

gas molecules across a membrane

c)

water molecules across a membrane

d)

molecules from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

59.

When sugar is mixed with water, equilibrium is reached when

a)

molecules of sugar stop moving

b)

water and sugar molecules are moving at the same speed

c)

there are the same number of water molecules as dissolved sugar molecules

d)

the dissolved sugar molecules are evenly distributed throughout the solution

60.

Which of the following does not affect the rate of diffusion?

a)

Temperature

b)

Membrane permeability

c)

The amount of available ATP

d)

Steepness of the concentration gradient

61.

Diffusion is one of the processes in which materials are exchanged between a cell and its environment.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What does facilitated diffusion require?

a)

Lipid or carbohydrate carriers

b)

Carrier proteins

c)

Lipid carriers

d)

Carbohydrate carriers

63.

Facilitated diffusion occurs______

a)

in either direction depending on the temperature

b)

into the cell only

c)

in either direction depending on the concentration gradient of the molecule

d)

in either direction depending on the size of the molecule

64.

Facilitated diffusion is used to transport _________

a)

H₂O and O₂

b)

sugars and amino acids

c)

sugars and H₂O

d)

CO₂ and H₂O

65.

Unlike simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion requires energy expenditure by the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Osmosis is best defined as the movement of _________

a)

molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration

b)

water molecules inside a container

c)

water molecules across a membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of lower concentration

d)

water molecules across a membrane from an area of low water to an area of higher concentration

67.

Which of the following will pass through a cell membrane most easily?

a)

Large polar molecules

b)

Large nonpolar molecules

c)

Small nonpolar molecules

d)

Small polar molecules

68.

Facilitated diffusion requires a specific transporter for a specific molecule.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

A red blood cell placed in a hypertonic medium will ________

a)

become a white blood cell

b)

burst

c)

shrink

d)

. expand

70.

A 5% urea solution is hypotonic to a 10% urea solution.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

If a cell is placed in an isotonic medium, there will be no net movement of water.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The sodium–potassium pump functions to pump ________

a)

sodium and potassium ions into the cell

b)

sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell

c)

sodium and potassium ions in both directions across the cell membrane

d)

sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell

73.

What is the source of energy used to power the sodium–potassium pump?

a)

Breakdown of ATP

b)

Transport of GTP by the pump

c)

Formation of ATP

d)

Breakdown of GTP

74.

During one cycle, the sodium–potassium pump binds and moves _________blank.

a)

1 Na⁺ and 2 K⁺

b)

2 Na⁺ and 3 K⁺

c)

3 Na⁺ and 3 K⁺

d)

3 Na⁺ and 2 K⁺

75.

The sodium–potassium pump is a transmembrane protein.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The binding and release of sodium or potassium ions are due to conformational changes in the protein.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Eye color is caused by genes at multiple loci. This phenomenon is called _________

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

sex linkage

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

pleiotropy

78.

What is the complementary DNA base sequence to the DNA strand TGCCAT?

a)

UGCCAU

b)

TGCCAT

c)

ACGGTA

d)

ACGGUA

79.

The stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is _________

a)

anaphase

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

metaphase

80.

After cytokinesis, the cell enters the G1 phase.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

In chromatin, DNA winds around disc-shaped clusters of eight proteins called _________

a)

kinetochores

b)

centrioles

c)

histones

d)

nucleosomes

82.

The human genome consists of approximately _________ pairs of nucleotides.

a)

3000

b)

3 billion

c)

300,000

d)

3 million

83.

The alleles possessed by all members of a population collectively are called the _________

a)

species DNA

b)

genetic drift

c)

phenotype

d)

gene pool

84.

If one allele is not phenotypically expressed in the presence of another, we say that it is a _________ allele.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

homozygous

d)

suppressed

85.

Hemophilia is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. This means that _________

a)

females can be carriers but cannot get hemophilia

b)

a male can give the allele to their son but not to their daughter

c)

a male who has hemophilia inherited the allele from his mother

d)

the gene is found on the Y chromosome

86.

A karyotype shows the _________ chromosomes sorted and isolated from a cell in _________.

a)

23; interphase

b)

46; S phase

c)

46; prophase

d)

46; metaphase

87.

Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?

a)

Metaphase

b)

The S phase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

88.

Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of a cell during _________of the cell cycle.

a)

the S phase

b)

prophase

c)

anaphase

d)

metaphase

89.

Which of the following is not found in RNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Ribose

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

90.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of the cell cycle?

a)

G1 → G2 → M → S

b)

G1 → M → G2 → S

c)

G1 -> S -> G2 -> M

d)

G1 → G2 → S → M

91.

During mitosis, the division of the cytoplasm is called _________

a)

mitosis

b)

cytokinesis

c)

cytogenetics

d)

meiosis

92.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the phases of mitosis?

a)

prophase → anaphase → metaphase → telophase

b)

prophase → metaphase → telophase → anaphase

c)

prophase -> metaphase -> anaphase -> telophase

d)

metaphase → prophase → anaphase → telophase

93.

DNA replication occurs in mitosis.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Mitosis and cytoplasmic division result in the formation of two genetically identical cells.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Which of the following events does NOT occur in prophase of mitosis?

a)

The chromosomes are replicated.

b)

The mitotic spindle begins to form.

c)

The nuclear membrane breaks down.

d)

The nucleolus breaks down.

96.

In DNA, which nitrogenous base pairs with adenine?

a)

Guanine

b)

Thymine

c)

Uracil

d)

Cytosine

97.

What term describes nuclear division?

a)

Cell cycle

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase

d)

Mitosis

98.

DNA replication occurs during the G2 phase.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

During which phase do sister chromatids separate and start moving toward opposite poles of the cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

100.

Name the "pinched in" region of the chromosome labeled 2.

a)

Centromere

b)

Kinetochore

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Histone

101.

Which phase of the cell cycle is labeled 2?

a)

First gap phase (G1)

b)

Second gap phase (G2)

c)

Mitotic phase (M)

d)

Synthesis phase (S)

102.

The clear gel inside a cell is called _________.

a)

interstitial fluid

b)

cytosol

c)

matrix

d)

tissue fluid

103.

The _________ gives rise to the _________.

a)

ectoderm; nervous system and epidermis

b)

endoderm; muscular system and skeletal system

c)

mesoderm; endoderm

d)

endoderm; mesoderm

104.

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Organ muscle

d)

Smooth muscle

105.

The clear gel that usually surrounds cells is called interstitial fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

The four primary tissue types found in adult organs include all of the following except _________ tissue.

a)

nervous

b)

connective

c)

fibrous

d)

epithelial

107.

Epithelium that consists of more than one layer of cells is called _________

a)

stratified

b)

squamous

c)

pseudostratified

d)

columnar

108.

Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and _________.

a)

fibroblasts

b)

neuroglia

c)

myocytes

d)

chondrocytes

109.

The middle primary germ layer is called _________, which gives rise to a gelatinous material called _________, which then gives rise to different types of connective tissue such as bone, cartilage, and blood.

a)

mesoderm; fibroblasts

b)

ectoderm; mesenchyme

c)

mesoderm; mesenchyme

d)

ectoderm; stem cells

110.

Neurons usually have multiple short, branched processes called _________, which receive signals from other cells and conduct messages to the _________.

a)

nerve fibers; glial cells

b)

axons; dendrites

c)

nerve fibers; dendrites

d)

dendrites; cell body

111.

The covering of body surfaces and the lining of body cavities is composed of _________ tissue.

a)

nervous

b)

epithelial

c)

muscle

d)

muscle

112.

An epithelium with a single layer of tall cells would be classified as which type of epithelium?

a)

Stratified columnar epithelium

b)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

d)

  • Simple squamous epithelium

113.

Skeletal muscle is described as

a)

nonstriated and voluntary

b)

striated and involuntary

c)

nonstriated and involuntary

d)

striated and voluntary

114.

Mesoderm gives rise to muscle, bone, and blood.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

______ secrete ______ into ______.

a)

Goblet cells; mucus; the blood

b)

Endocrine glands; hormones; the blood

c)

Endocrine glands; hormones; ducts

d)

Exocrine glands; hormones; ducts

116.

Tissues whose cells are most susceptible to stimuli that change the membrane potential are called _________.

a)

excitable tissues

b)

loose connective tissues

c)

epithelium

d)

stroma

117.

Which of the following is not a primary tissue type?

a)

Connective

b)

Nervous

c)

Bone

d)

Epithelium

118.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Distal

b)

Medial

c)

Lateral

d)

Proximal

119.

 

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Right upper quadrant

b)

Left upper quadrant

c)

Left lower quadrant

d)

Right lower quadrant

120.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

121.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Superior

b)

Lateral

c)

Proximal

d)

Inferior

122.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Right lower quadrant

b)

Right upper quadrant

c)

Left lower quadrant

d)

Left upper quadrant

123.

s towards the front of the body.

a)

Anterior

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Superior

124.

is farther from the trunk or origin of a structure.

a)

Medial

b)

Anterior

c)

Distal

d)

Superior

125.

is towards the midline of the body.

a)

Anterior

b)

Distal

c)

Superior

d)

Medial

126.

is upward or towards the head.

a)

Anterior

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Superior

127.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Right lower quadrant

b)

Left upper quadrant

c)

Right upper quadrant

d)

Left lower quadrant

128.

 

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Medial

b)

Proximal

c)

Superior

d)

Distal

129.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Left lower quadrant

b)

Left upper quadrant

c)

Right lower quadrant

d)

Right upper quadrant

130.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Lateral

b)

Distal

c)

Medial

d)

Inferior

131.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Left lower quadrant

b)

Right upper quadrant

c)

Left upper quadrant

d)

Right lower quadrant

132.

Which structure is highlighted and indicated by the leader line?

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

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