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Worksheets

Bio FInal Review

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When muscles are not used, they decrease in size. This is known as:

a)

hypertrophy

b)

dystrophy

c)

atrophy

d)

sarcomere

2.


When gametes join together and combine chromosomes, the resulting cell is called a(an):

a)

germline cell

b)

gamete

c)

zygote

d)

allele

3.

Select those exercises that are most beneficial for a person with DMD.

a)

biking

b)

walking

c)

weightlifting

d)

swimming

e)

running

4.

The term for a muscles decreasing in size after exercising is:

a)

hypertrophy

b)

atrophy

c)

dystrophy

d)

sarcomere

5.

The contractive unit of a muscle is shown below. It is called a(an):

a)

muscle fiber

b)

sarcomere

c)

fascicle

d)

hypertrophy

6.

Select the functions of proteins from the selections below:

a)

structure for an organism

b)

movement & building muscle

c)

immune defense

d)

transport & chemical messengers

e)

helps with biochemical reactions inside & outside cells

7.

Which two proteins are important to muscles and muscle contractions?

a)

actin and myosin

b)

fascicle and myofibril

c)

cardiac and skeletal

d)

skeletal and smooth

8.

Which of the following are types of muscle tissue found in the human body? Select all that apply.

a)

Smooth

b)

Nervous

c)

Cardiac

d)

Connective

e)

Skeletal

9.

Muscles are divided into large sections known as _____________ which contain smaller muscle fibers within them.

a)

myofibrils

b)

fascicles

c)

sarcomeres

d)

tendons

10.

Which is true of DMD? Check all that apply.

a)

it is seen more in females than males.

b)

it is seen more in males than females.

c)

the disorder progress over time.

d)

it is a genetic disorder passed from one/both parents.

11.

The correct organization of a muscle from largest to smallest is:

a)

myofibril > muscle fiber > fascicle > muscle

b)

muscle fiber > fascicle > muscle > myofibril

c)

fascicle > musckl > muscle fiber > myofibril

d)

muscle > fascicle > muscle fiber > myofibril

12.

Which of the following is not a protein found in human muscles?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

sarcolemma

d)

creatine

e)

dystrophin

13.

the protein filament shown below by the red arrow is:

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

titin

d)

dystrophin

14.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below. Which part of the diagram is the ACTIVE SITE of the enzyme?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

15.

How does a person get DMD?

a)

Mutated gene on the Y chromosome usually passed down from the father

b)

Mutated gene on the X chromosome usually passed down from the mother

c)

Mutated gene that occurs early in life from an unknown mutagen (anything that causes a mutation).

d)

A person gets DMD from being inactive early in life and never recovers from the disease

16.

Which of the following is NOT a functions of proteins in our body?

a)

structural

b)

contractile

c)

enzymes

d)

temperature regulation

17.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below. Which part of the diagram is the ENZYME-SUBSTRATE COMPLEX?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

18.

What is DMD?

a)

dytophy muscle dysfunction

b)

disabled muscular disease

c)

duchenne muscular dystrophy

d)

dysfunctional muscle disease

19.

When a person has two alleles for a trait that are identical (HH, HH), they are said to be _________ for that trait.

a)

homozygous

b)

heterzygous

c)

carrier

20.

When protein filament is being identified by the red arrow below?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

titin

d)

dystrophin

21.

What is the importance of enzymes to our digestive system?

a)

enzymes control the temperature for digestion process to occur normally.

b)

enzymes help with absorption of molecules into your blood.

c)

enzymes help speed up the process of breaking down food.

d)

enzymes block nutrients from leaving your body.

22.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below. Which part of the diagram is showing the SUBSTRATES?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

23.

Look at the enzyme complex diagram below.  Which part of the diagram is showing the PRODUCTS after the enzyme does its' job?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

24.

Patients with DMD lack which muscle protein?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

creatine

d)

dystrophin

25.

When a person had two different alleles for a given trait, they are said to be __________ for that trait.

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

26.

Every normal human has _________ chromosomes. The sex chromosome configuration for a male is __________.

a)

44; XX

b)

44: XY

c)

46; XY

d)

2; XY

27.


Somatic cells go through the process of __________ to produce new body cells while our reproductive organs go through _________ to produce new sex cells.

a)

DNA Replication; Mitosis

b)

Meiosis; Mitosis

c)

Mitosis; Karyotype

d)

Mitosis; Meisosis

28.

 

When gametes join together and combine chromosomes, the resulting cell is called a(an):

a)

germline cell

b)

gamete

c)

zygote

d)

allele

29.

What process in Meiosis is shown below?

a)

independent assortment

b)

crossing over

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

female chromosomes

30.

How many chromosomes are in a human sperm cell?

a)

46

b)

44

c)

23

d)

2

31.

Select the somatic cells below.

a)

hair

b)

bone

c)

blood

d)

sperm

e)

muscle

32.


Select all the cell types that are produced from the process shown below.

a)

hair

b)

bone

c)

blood

d)

sperm

e)

egg

33.

Which of the following is an example of a haploid cell?

a)

blood cell

b)

muscle cell

c)

sperm cell

d)

hair cell

34.

Select the gametes below.

a)

ovaries

b)

sperm

c)

testes

d)

egg

e)

blood

35.

Select all the cell types that are produced from the process shown below.

a)

hair

b)

bone

c)

blood

d)

sperm

e)

muscle

36.

what is a gene?

a)

the entire sequence of human DNA made of A, T, C, G

b)

a segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein

c)

a entire condensed strand of DNA

37.

Approximately how many genes do humans have?

a)

10,000

b)

20,000

c)

30,000

d)

40,000

38.

How are chromosomes inherited?

a)

Each offspring inherits a random number of chromosomes from each parent.

b)

Male offspring inherit their chromosomes from their mothers.

c)

Female offspring inherit their chromosomes from their fathers.

d)

Each offspring inherits half of their chromosomes from each parent.

39.


How many chromosomes does a haploid cell have in comparison to a diploid cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

Double the amount

c)

Same amount

d)

Zero

40.

What process is shown below?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

41.


What percentage of human DNA nucleotides actually code for the production of proteins?

a)

1.5%

b)

99%

c)

98.5%

d)

10%

42.


When pairing up chromosomes to make a karyotype, which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to determine matching chromosomes?

a)

Length of the chromosome

b)

Placement of thier centromeres

c)

Location and size of their G-bands

d)

Base pairing sequence

43.


If a G were added to the original DNA strand with bases AATTGAACACATGCGCCC after the 3rd base, what type of mutation would this be an example of

a)

Chromosome

b)

Point

c)

Frameshift

d)

Nondisjunction

44.


An addition or deletion of a DNA/RNA base causes which type of mutation?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Point

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

45.

What is a mutation?

a)

A disorder

b)

When a person has supernatural powers

c)

Any change in a DNA sequence

d)

Anything that causes cancer

46.


How many autosomes do we have in each somatic cell?

a)

46

b)

2

c)

44

d)

1

47.

Which type of chromosome mutation results in changing the size of the chromosome and causing multiple copies of a gene to occur?

a)

Duplication

b)

Translocation

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Point

48.


A mutation that has neither a positive or negative effect on an organism's survival rate is called a(an):

a)

Harmful Mutation

b)

Beneficial Mutation

c)

Neutral Mutation

49.

Which type of chromosome mutation results in chromosomes not separating correctly and resulting in too many or not enough chromosomes in each sex cell?

a)

Duplication

b)

Translocation

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Frameshift

50.

 

Which is an example of where mitosis would occur?  Select all that apply.

a)

development of sperm cells

b)

grass growing

c)

broken bone healing

d)

formation of new blood cells

51.


Using a scratch sheet of paper, determine which two mRNA sequences below code for the same protein.  

mRNA #1: UCG CUAGCG ACC AGU UCA                

   mRNA #2: AGC CUC GCC ACU CGU AGU                  

mRNA #3: AGU UUA GCA ACG AGA UCA                    

mRNA #4: AGC CUA GCC AAC CAU UCC

a)

#1 and #2

b)

#2 and #3

c)

#3 and #4

d)

#1 and #4

52.

A substitution of one DNA/RNA base for another is an example of which type of mutation?

a)

frameshit

b)

point

c)

addition

d)

deletion

53.


You have a DNA sequence that codes for a protein and is 126 bases long.  A frameshift mutation occurs at the 100th base.  How many amino acids will be unaffected in this protein chain and remain in correct order?

a)

99

b)

35

c)

2

d)

33

54.


Which type of mutation appears to most likely lead to DMD?

a)

silent

b)

missense

c)

nonsense

d)

nondisjunction

55.

 

A diagram that shows the number and appearance of chromosomes in a cell is called a (an):

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleus

c)

karyotype

d)

centromere

56.

If the 5th base of the original strand of DNA with bases AATTGAACACATGCGCCC was changed from a G to a C, what type of mutation would this be an example of?

a)

chromosome

b)

point

c)

frameshift

d)

nondisjunction

57.

are mutations always bad?

a)

yes

b)

no

58.


Looking at the karyotype, what gender is this patient?

a)

male

b)

female

59.

the two main types of mutations are?

a)

gene & chromosome mutations

b)

dna & meiosis mutations

c)

meiosis & gene mutations

d)

chromosome & DNA mutations

60.


Which of the following explanation is best to explain why is it important for a person to consume protein if/when they are actively working out?

a)

muscles requite protein as energy to do the work

b)

the filaments involved in contractions are made up of proteins

c)

it helps them breathe easier during workouts

d)

protein helps a person sleep better so they recover after workouts

61.

which is the best explanation/definition for "dystrophy"?

a)

increase in muscle size

b)

decrease in muscle size due to lack of use

c)

decrease in musle size after direct use

d)

a temporary increase in muscle size.

62.

patients with DMD lack which muscle protein?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

creatine

d)

dystrophin

63.

myofibrils are made up small, contractile units known as:

a)

muscle fibers

b)

muscles

c)

sarcomeres

d)

flexors

64.

what is DMD?

a)

dystrophy muscle dysfunction

b)

disabled muscular disease

c)

duchenne muscular dystrophy

d)

dysfunctional muscle disease

65.

which types of exercise is/are recommended for people with DMD? Check all that apply

a)

weightlifting

b)

bicycling

c)

swimming

d)

running

e)

pushups

66.

what protein filament is being identified by the red arrow below?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

titin

d)

dystrophin

67.

a decrease in muscle size due to lack of use is:

a)

hypertrophy

b)

atrophy

c)

dystrophy

d)

dystrophin

68.

In our analogy for what is happening in DMD patients, what structure served as our "boat anchors" attaching from the sarcolemma to the inside of the myofibril?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

dystrophin

d)

creatine

69.

In the opening video for L1 on DMD, select all choices that are true about the people in the video:

a)

they were all boys

b)

the disease was different for each individual

c)

many were in wheelchairs

d)

many were happy and able to perform daily activites

70.

how does a person get DMD?

a)

mutated gene on the Y chromosome usually passed down from the father

b)

mutated gene on the X chromosome usually passed down from the mother

c)

mutated gene that occurs early in life from an unknown mutagen

d)

a person gets DMD from being inactive early in life and never recovers from the disease

71.

The protein filament show below by the red arrow is:

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

titin

d)

dystrophin

72.

what are the two primary proteins involved in a muscle contraction within a sarcomere?

a)

actin & titin

b)

myosin & dystrophin

c)

actin & myosin

d)

titin & dystrophin

73.

which structure(s) represent the axon terminal; the last part of the neuron to receive/transmit a signal?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

f

74.

what were noticeable physical differences with the UCSD Juncos as compared to he Mt. Laguna Juncos?

a)

more head black

b)

less head black

c)

shorter wings

d)

more white tail feathers

e)

less white tail feathers

75.

the "master" gland of the endocrine system that controls/regulates many other glands/organs of the body is the:

a)

pituitary gland

b)

pineal gland

c)

adrenal gland

76.

which hormone is typically released when under stress and was studied in the Junco experiment?

a)

oxytocin

b)

estrogen

c)

testosterone

d)

cortisol

77.

which male Junco must be the father of the offspring?

a)

male 3

b)

male 7

c)

male 11

d)

male 14

78.

which structure below are dendrites, structures that receive information for a nerve cell?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

79.

A 16-year-old high school student has been feeling persistently sad and unmotivated for the past several months. She struggles to concentrate in class, has lost interest in hobbies she once enjoyed, and often feels hopeless. She also has trouble sleeping and experiences changes in her appetite. Her doctor suspects that her brain may not be producing enough of a neurotransmitter responsible for mood regulation and emotional stability.

what hormone is probably the cause of this?

a)

dopamine

b)

endorphins

c)

norepinephrine

d)

serotonin

80.

what molecules are shown below in the circle and *?

a)

vescicles

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

synapses

d)

dendrites

81.

what division of the nervous system controls our "fight or flight" emergency response?

a)

somatic nervous sytem

b)

sensory nervous sytem

c)

sympathetic nervous system

d)

parasympathetic nervous system

82.

what conclusion can be made regarding wing size between Junco samples from UCSD and Mt. Laguna?

a)

UCSD male Juncos have longer wings that Mt. Laguna male juncos

b)

mt. Laguna Juncos have shorter wings for both males and females

c)

UCSD Juncos have shorter wings for both males and females

d)

MT. Laguna females have short wings and males have longer wings than their UCSD counterparts

83.

what type of inheritance pattern is explained below?

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

pure dominance

84.

the chart below measures the whiteness of the tail feathers in Juncos. what statement below is most true?

a)

females had more whiteness in their tail feathers than males

b)

UCSD Juncos had more whiteness in their tail feathers than Mt Laguna juncos

c)

males had less whiteness in their tail feathers than females

d)

mt Laguna Juncos had more whiteness in their tail feathers for both sexes than UCSD juncos

85.

which inheritance pattern has two alleles equally expressed in the phenotype?

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

codominance

86.

which type of natural selection is occurring when the average/intermediate form of a phenotype is favored in the environment?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

various selection

87.

After the dought of 1977 on the Galapagos Islands, in 1983 there was rain for 40 days straight.  What type of finches were favored during this time period?

a)

large beak

b)

medium beak

c)

small beak

88.

Most human traits are controlled by two or more genes like height, hair color, eye color and skin color.  Which type of inheritance pattern does this describe?

a)

polygenic inhertiance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

codominance

89.

From the video The Beak of the Finch, where the Grant's retraced the footsteps of Charles Darwin on the Galapagos Islands, what type of finches were favored after the drought of 1977 and what type of food source was available to these birds?

a)

large beak; large seeds

b)

small beak; small seeds

c)

medium beak; cactus plants

90.


The process where organisms with useful traits/adaptations for their environment have a survival advantage & reproduce with more offspring to pass on these traits is known as:

a)

evolution

b)

natural selection

c)

genetic variation

d)

mutations

91.

Which type of natural selection shows one extreme version of a phenotype is favored in the environment?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

various selection

92.

What organism did Charles Darwin study most while on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

iguanas

b)

finches

c)

juncos

d)

seagulls

93.

What is the function of the B-cells as part of our last line of defense against pathogens?

a)

locate and destroy any infected host cell

b)

create antibodies to prevent future infections

c)

release histamine to create redness and swelling

d)

to trap pathogens and sweep them out with cilia

94.

Which quadrant appears to have the greatest number of bacteria colonies?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

95.

Select all those that are part of the 1st line of defense for our immune system.

a)

skin

b)

mucus

c)

cilia

d)

inflammation

e)

t-cells

96.

Which quadrant of our Petri dish served as the control for our experiment?

a)

quadrant a

b)

quadrant b

c)

quadrant c

d)

quadrant d

97.


Which of the following bacteria cells would we expect to increase in number and be most resistant to antibiotics?

a)

purple

b)

green

c)

brown

d)

red

98.

Which quadrant of our Petri dish did we place the swab directly from the surface of the area we chose to test at YLHS?

a)

quadrant a

b)

quadrant b

c)

quadrant c

d)

quadrant d

99.

When a macrophage touches a pathogen, what does it do to the pathogen?

a)

reproduces with it

b)

eats it

c)

identifies it

d)

makes holes in the cell membrane

100.


Which quadrant of our Petri dish did we place the swab used to sample our hand after touching the surface of our tested are but before we washed/sanitized our hand?

a)

quadrant a

b)

quadrant b

c)

quadrant c

d)

quadrant d

101.

Select all the environmental conditions that bacteria reproduce best in.

a)

warm/hot temperatures

b)

sunlight

c)

darkness

d)

moist

e)

dry

102.

Which line of defense would fevers fall into?

a)

1st line of defense

b)

2nd line of defense

c)

3rd line of defense

d)

4th line of defense

103.


Which quadrant of our Petri dish did we place the swab used to sample our hand after washing/sanitizing after touching the surface of our tested area?

a)

quadrant a

b)

quadrant b

c)

quadrant c

d)

quadrant d

104.

Which type of cells remember the antigens so the immune system can fight off the pathogen faster?

a)

b-cells

b)

t-cells

c)

memory cells

d)

macrophages

105.


Select the pathogens listed below.

a)

viruses

b)

bacteria

c)

fungus

d)

parasites

e)

vaccines

106.


Which quadrant of our Petri dish SHOULD have the least amount of bacteria and mold growth?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

107.

Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell?

a)

macrophage

b)

t-cells

c)

b-cells

d)

platelet

108.


From our readings, which type of material tested with the highest levels of bacteria?

a)

metal

b)

vinyl

c)

cloth

d)

rubber

e)

concrete

109.


For one bacterium, how many new cells will it form when it reproduces?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

110.

According to the study associated with the graph below, what surfaces on the sampled bus/train had the highest likelihood for contracting a bacterial infection?

a)

under the seats

b)

on the windows

c)

on the floors and seats

d)

on the armrests and handrails

111.


Some bacteria can reproduce in 20 minutes.  How many of these bacteria would there be from one parent after three hours of time?

a)

128

b)

256

c)

512

d)

1024

112.

Addie's initial illness was caused by which type of bacterial infection?

a)

e. coli

b)

strep throat

c)

mrsa

113.

Which of the following is a method by which bacteria reproduce?

a)

meiosis

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

binary fission

d)

nondisjunction

114.

what is mrsa

a)

the name of the antibiotic used to kill bacteria

b)

methicillin-resistant stapholococcus aureus

c)

stenotrophomonos

d)

millions of resistant small animals

115.

From the articles, all of the following are mentioned to help stop the spread of MRSA except:

a)

shower/bathe regularly

b)

do not share drinks with others

c)

wash hands with soap/water

d)

do not share unwashed towels

116.


How many MRSA hospitalizations (per 1,000 hospitalizations) were there in the year 2000?

a)

approx 3

b)

approx 4

c)

approx 40

d)

approx 400

117.


In the chart below, what does it mean that a variation of bacteria is "resistant" to antibiotics?

a)

it means that antibiotics work effectively to kill bacteria

b)

it means that antibiotics do not kill the bactera

c)

it means that certain types of antibiotics must be used

118.


During the video, we notice a pattern of Addie getting slightly better, then worse, then slightly better, then worse again and repeating this pattern multiple times.  This pattern was most likely caused by:

a)

doctors providing the incorrect medicine and then changing it

b)

bacteria becoming resistant to the antibiotics the doctors were giving her

c)

addie not comfortably resting and trying to do too much in the hospital

d)

too many doctors were trying to help her and their treatments were always different for different doctors

119.


Addie's first symptom that something was wrong was:

a)

a fever

b)

stomach pain

c)

vomiting

d)

hip pain

120.


According to the graph below, which antibiotics are most at-risk of not being effective against resistant strains of bacteria?  Check all that apply.

a)

ampicillin

b)

penicillin

c)

bacitracin

d)

tetracycline

e)

vancomycin

121.


Based on these numbers below, what is the survival rate if someone contracts an antibiotic-resistant bacterial infection?

a)

5% or less

b)

50% survival rate

c)

90% or less

d)

95% or greater

122.


After realizing that no antibiotic was working for the second infection, doctors informed Addie's mother that the bacterial infection was _______ resistant, meaning it was resistant to ALL antibiotics.  

a)

mrsa

b)

all

c)

omni

d)

pan

123.


Risk for contracting MRSA increases in/at all of the following situations EXCEPT:

a)

crowded areas

b)

sharing of equipment

c)

skin to skin contact with others

d)

athletic facilities

e)

doing homework in my room

124.

What type of growth curve do we see in the graph below?

a)

logistic

b)

exponential

c)

simulated

d)

mathematical

125.

By the end of the video, Addie was told by doctors that she wasn't a "good candidate" for a lung transplant.  Why did doctors say this to her family?

a)

addie's lungs were as good as the donor lungs

b)

the lungs were from a younger donor and addie was too old

c)

The bacteria in Addie's body would destroy the new lungs.

d)

Her mother's insurance couldn't cover the cost of the surgery.

126.


While on the life support machine, Addie got a much more serious bacterial infection.  This bacteria was

a)

Stenotrophomonas

b)

mrsa

c)

methicillin

d)

Stapholococcus

127.


As things worsened from Addie's intial illness, she was put on a machine to help remove carbon dioxide from her blood while replenishing it with oxygen.  This machine is known as a/an:

a)

mrsa

b)

ecmo

c)

antibiotic

d)

lung transplant

128.


Who gets credited for the discovery of DNA in most science books?

a)

watson & crick

b)

rosalind franklin

c)

mark watney

d)

teddy sanders

129.


The second bacterial infection came from

a)

Too many doctors handling Addie without properly sanitizing prior.

b)

the nursing staff

c)

the tubes of the life support machine

d)

leftover bacteria from the initial infection

130.


Select all examples of genetic engineering used in/on organisms.

a)

glofish used to detect water pollution

b)

growing foods in large quantities

c)

growing foods that take larger to spoil

d)

growing foods that have added nutrients

131.


Select those reasons why The Human Genome Project was so important to science.

a)

genes that caused diseases were identified

b)

genetic tests were discovered to identify disorders

c)

better medicines/treatments were created