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Elimination and Thermoregulation

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Secretion and excretion of physiological waste products by the kidneys and intestines

(a)  

2.

Two distinct methods of elimination include:

a)

Emesis, diaphoresis

b)

Diaphoresis, urination

c)

Defecation, Emesis

d)

Urination, defecation

3.

(a)   elimination works to control blood composition and concentration. Absorbs nutrients and rids of excess fluid and electrolytes to maintain homeostasis

4.

Stretch receptors stimulated at ___-___, triggering the voiding reflex

a)

250-400L

b)

250-400mL

c)

400-600mL

d)

100-200mL

5.

Factors affecting urination include:

a)

Medications

b)

Fluid/food intake

c)

Muscle tone

d)

Pathological conditions

e)

Exercise

6.

Normal urinary elimination should look like:

a)

30mL/hr

b)

void every 6 hours

c)

void once per shift

d)

100mL/hr

7.

Production of abnormally large amounts of urine

a)
Diuresis
b)
Polyuria
c)
Anuria
d)
Oliguria
8.

Which chronic condition is mainly associated with polyuria and polydipsia?

a)
Hypertension
b)
Asthma
c)
Diabetes mellitus
d)
Chronic kidney disease
9.

Compulsive intake of excessive amounts of fluid

a)
Dehydration
b)
Hyponatremia
c)
Oliguria
d)
Polydipsia
10.

<100mL of urine a day, associated with patients on dialysis and with kidney failure

a)
Normal urine output
b)
Anuria
c)
Oliguria
d)
Polyuria
11.

<400mL of urine a day

a)
Normal urination
b)
Polyuria
c)
Anuria
d)
Oliguria
12.

Which term describes voiding often at nighttime? Common in the elderly and pregnant

a)
diuresis
b)
polyuria
c)
urinary incontinence
d)
nocturia
13.

What is the definition of dysuria?

a)
Dysuria is the inability to urinate.
b)
Dysuria is the condition of experiencing pain or discomfort during urination.
c)
Dysuria refers to excessive urination frequency.
d)
Dysuria is a type of urinary tract infection.
14.

What is the definition of hesitancy?

a)

Can't urinate but have the urge to

b)

Painful urination

c)

Urinate often

d)

Voiding often at nighttime

15.

A loss of voluntary control of urination can be related to a _____ _____ injury.

(a)  

16.

During a home​ visit, an older adult male client mentions that he has experienced an increase in the frequency of urination at night. Which condition should the nurse discuss as a possible factor related to increased urinary elimination at​ night? (Select all that​ apply.)

  1. A) Infection​

  2. B) Oliguria​

  3. C) Recognition of bladder fullness​

  4. D) Nocturia​

  5. E) Residual urine

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

17.

Which of the following are risk factors for alterations in urination?

a)

Aging

b)

Arteriosclerosis

c)

Surgery

d)

Acute/Chronic Conditions

e)

Constipation

18.

We palpate before auscultate.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What can be expected in a urinary physical examination?

a)

Palpation of abdomen

b)

Assessment of flank pain

c)

Skin turgor

d)

Percussion of abdomen

20.

Your elderly patient is having issues with urination frequency. You and your collogues are concerned about residual urine issues. What is the most convenient diagnostic test can be used to assess if the patient is experiencing residual urine?

a)

Urine Study

b)

Bladder Scan

c)

Cystoscopy

d)

Kidney Biopsy

21.

What is the most common diagnostic tool for health assessment often done individuals with urinary symptoms.

a)
Ultrasound
b)
Blood test
c)
CT scan
d)
Urinalysis
22.

You are caring for a patient admitted with urination retention. What are some independent nursing interventions you can complete?

a)

Monitoring input and output

b)

Catheter care

c)

Incontinence care

d)

Urine specimen collection

e)

Suggest surgery for a urostomy

23.

This medication blocks receptors in the detrusor muscle of the bladder, preventing contractions and the urge to avoid

*used in patients who constantly urinate to slow things down

a)

Cholinergic medication

b)
Diuretic medication
c)
Muscle relaxant medication
d)
Anticholinergic medication
24.

This medication stimulates bladder contraction and assists with voiding via relaxation of trigone and sphincter muscles

*take on empty stomach

a)

Solifenacin Medication

b)

Tolterodine Medication

c)

Anticholinergic Medication

d)

Cholinergic Medication

25.

Your patient presents with polyuria and urine incontinence. Which medication might they be prescribed to help this urinary issue?

a)
Furosemide
b)
Duloxetine
c)

Anticholinergics

d)

Cholinergics

26.

After completing a bladder scan of a patient, it is evident that they are experiencing urinary retention. What medication might be prescribed to help solve this issue?

a)
Furosemide
b)

Anticholinergics

c)
Tamsulosin
d)

Cholinergics

27.

This treatment is used for kidney failure and is when a semipermeable membrane is used to filter blood by osmosis per patient schedule

(a)  

28.

When blood flows through external machine

*when giving treatment to patient, be mindful of limb restriction

*NO BP in the arm that receives treatment!

a)

Anticholinergic dialysis

b)

Cholinergic Dialysis

c)

Hemodialysis

d)

Peritoneal dialysis

29.

Solution is instilled into abdomen and rests there while molecules exchange and then it is drained

*typically used for temporary/acute kidney failure

a)
Peritoneal dialysis
b)
Fluid resuscitation
c)
Kidney transplant
d)
Hemodialysis
30.

Which structure stores urine before it is excreted from the body?

a)
ureter
b)
urethra
c)
kidney
d)
bladder
31.

The average adult bladder can comfortably hold:

a)
800 to 1000 milliliters
b)
100 to 150 milliliters
c)
200 to 300 milliliters
d)
400 to 600 milliliters
32.

Upon completing a bladder scan after a patient has urinated, you find the bladder is still full of urine. This patient is most likely experiencing...

a)
kidney stones
b)
bladder infection
c)
urinary retention
d)
urinary incontinence
33.

A nurse notes that a patient urinates frequently at night. This is called

a)
incontinence
b)
nocturia
c)
polyuria
d)
diuresis
34.

Which of the following is a normal color and clarity of urine?

a)
Bright red and cloudy
b)
Dark brown and opaque
c)
Green and foamy
d)
Pale yellow to deep amber, clear
35.

The nurse is teaching the patient about fluid intake. Which fluids are considered a diuretic and may increase urination?

a)
Water and herbal tea
b)
Fruit juices and smoothies
c)
Milk and protein shakes
d)
Caffeinated beverages and alcoholic drinks.
36.

Which nursing intervention can be completed to promote normal urinary elimination?

a)

Providing privacy and adequate positioning

b)
Limit fluid intake to reduce bathroom visits.
c)
Advise patients to avoid regular bathroom breaks.
d)
Encourage patients to hold urine for longer periods.
37.

Which is not a function of the urinary system?

a)

Filtration

b)

Waste storage and removal

c)

Homeostasis maintenance

d)

Hormone production

38.

Formation and expulsion of feces

-retrains nutrients and removes waste

-highly individualized

a)

Urine elimination

b)

Bowel elimination

c)

Diarrhea elimination

d)

Nutrients elimination

39.

Peristalsis is defined as

a)
Peristalsis is the voluntary movement of muscles in the heart.
b)
Peristalsis is the absorption of nutrients in the intestines.
c)
Peristalsis is the process of breaking down food into smaller pieces.
d)
Peristalsis is the involuntary contraction of muscles that moves food through the digestive system.
40.

Fiber that is good for colon health, and eases/prevents constipation

a)

Insoluble fiber

b)

Soluble fiber

41.

Type of fiber that lowers blood cholesterol, improves blood sugars, help stay full longer

a)

Insoluble fiber

b)

Soluble fiber

42.

Which of the following are factors affecting bowel elimination?

a)

Diet

b)

Irregular eating schedules

c)

Spicy foods/foods high in sugar

d)

Allergies

43.

Which of the following are factors affecting bowel elimination and cause constipation?

a)

Decreased Activity

b)

Medication (Opioids)

c)

Anesthesia Procedures

d)

Increased whole grains in diet

44.

During an office​ visit, a client reports infrequent and difficult bowel movements. Which teaching topic should the nurse include when developing the​ client's plan of​ care? (Select all that​ apply.)

  1. A) The importance of staying active​

  2. B) The avoidance of raw​ fruit, vegetables, and meat when traveling abroad​

  3. C) The importance of cooking and storing food correctly​

  4. D) The use of laxatives or stool softeners​

  5. E) The importance of consuming adequate amounts of fluid and fiber

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

45.

The passage of liquid feces with increased frequency

(a)  

46.

What are potential risks that are associated with diarrhea

a)

Rapid passage of chyme and loss of fluid and electrolytes

b)

Skin breakdown

c)

Electrolyte imbalances

d)

Edema

47.

Presence of excess gas leading to inflation and stretching of intestines

a)
Nausea
b)

Flatulence

c)
Diarrhea
d)
Constipation
48.

Results from inflammation of the diverticula

*most patients with this are asymptomatic

-can compress arteries, obstruct the bowel, perforate, and cause bleeding

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Diverticular disease

d)

Liver failure

49.

occurs when the contents of the intestine are unable to move through the intestine

-can be mechanical or functional

a)
Intestinal inflammation
b)
Irritable bowel syndrome
c)
Gastroenteritis
d)

Bowel obstruction

50.

The daughter of a​ wheelchair-bound older adult client is concerned because her mother has been experiencing urinary incontinence. Which statement should the nurse use to explain the condition to the​ daughter?

A) "Renal blood flow and ability to concentrate urine decrease in older​ adults."​

  1. B) "Mobility issues may cause urinary​ incontinence."​

  2. C) "The frequency of voiding varies in older adults and may cause urinary​ incontinence."​

  3. "D) The kidneys reach maximum size at ages 35 to​ 40."

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

51.

A surgically created opening that connects internal organ to the abdominal wall eliminating waste products

(a)  

52.

The nurse should anticipate conducting which assessment when preparing to provide care for a client experiencing alterations in bowel​ function? (Select all that​ apply.)

  1. A) Abdominal assessment​

  2. B) Skin assessment​

  3. C) Client interview​

  4. D) Renal assessment​

  5. E) Inguinal area assessment

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

53.

An inguinal hernia is defined as

a)
A type of muscle strain in the back
b)
A condition affecting the heart
c)
A hernia that occurs in the upper abdomen
d)
An inguinal hernia is a condition where tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles in the groin.
54.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a positive fecal test for occult blood. The nurse should anticipate which collaborative activity to further identify the cause of the​ client's problem?

 

a)

Colonoscopy

b)

Cystoscopy

c)

Ultrasonic bladder scan

d)

Direct rectal exam

55.

Lowers surface tension of stool so that water can penetrate, soften, and allow for easier passing

*hold if patient has diarrhea

a)

Stool Softeners

b)

Stimulant Laxatives

c)

Osmotic Laxatives

d)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

56.

Stimulates intestinal peristalsis and increases the volume of water and electrolytes in intestine

*bowel movement should occur within 12 hours

a)

Stimulant Laxatives

b)

Stool Softeners

c)

Osmotic Laxatives

d)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

57.

Draws water into intestine to increase mass of stool and stretching of musculature

*causes peristalsis

a)

Osmotic Laxatives

b)

Stimulant Laxatives

c)

Stool Softeners

d)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

58.

Supplemental fiber to soften fecal mass and increase bulk

*take two hours before or after other meds

*take with at least 8oz of water

a)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

b)

Osmotic Laxatives

c)

Stimulant Laxatives

d)

Stool Softeners

59.

Augments acetylcholine, increasing upper GI motility and peristalsis

*don't use with bowel obstruction, perforation, or hemorrhage

a)

Prokinetic Agents

b)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

c)

Osmotic Laxatives

d)

Stimulant Laxatives

60.

Blocks opioid mu receptors in GI tract

a)

Opioid Antagonists

b)

Prokinetic Agents

c)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

d)

Osmotic Laxatives

61.

Blocks action of acetylcholine, slowing motility of the intestines

a)

Antidiarrheal

b)

Opioid Antagonists

c)

Prokinetic Agents

d)

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

62.

What is meconium?

a)
Meconium is the fluid surrounding a fetus in the womb.
b)
Meconium is the first stool of a newborn.
c)
Meconium is a type of medication for newborns.
d)
Meconium is a special formula for feeding infants.
63.

Which part of the GI tract is mainly responsible for water absorption and stool formation?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Esophagus

64.

Your patients stool SHOULD look...

a)
Green and watery
b)
Black and hard
c)
Brown, well-formed, smooth texture
d)
Yellow and loose
65.

Your patient is experiencing difficult, infrequent bowel movements. What is the medical term for what the patient is experiencing?

a)
Irritable Bowel Syndrome
b)
Constipation
c)
Diarrhea
d)
Bowel Obstruction
66.

Your patient passes black, tarry stools (melena). This indicates:

a)
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
b)
Hemorrhoids causing bright red blood.
c)
Dietary iron deficiency.
d)
Lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
67.

What is the most common cause of constipation in hospitalized patients?

a)

Increased activity

b)

High-Fiber diets

c)

Opioid pain medications

d)

Stress

68.

Which of the following foods would most help prevent constipation?

a)

Whole grains

b)

Bananas

c)

White rice

d)

Cheese

69.

As a nurse, you know that a bowel training program is most useful for patients with:

a)

Acute diarrhea

b)

Normal bowel habits

c)

Neurological conditions causing incontinence

d)

Hemorrhoids

70.

Which nursing intervention can best promote normal bowel elimination?

a)

Restricting fluids to prevent incontinence

b)

Encouraging privacy and regular toileting

c)

Giving opioid medications

d)

Discouraging ambulation after meals

71.

Body's process of trying to balance heat production and loss

*controlled by hypothalamus

(a)  

72.

Our surface temperature remains stable, but our core temperature is always changing.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Normal body temperature range is 97-99 degrees F.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The temporal lobe responds when the core temp goes too high or low.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Ideal core temperature is 98.6 degrees.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which of the following affect body temperature?

a)

Fever-immune response

b)

Basal Metabolic Rate

c)

Muscle activity

d)

Release of epinephrine, norepinephrine

e)

Hunger

77.

Temperature transfer that involves laying on a cold surface (ex. operating room table)

a)
Evaporation
b)
Convection
c)
Conduction
d)
Radiation
78.

Temperature transfer that involves fluid motion of air or water (ex. fan, aquatics)

a)
Conduction
b)
Radiation
c)
Convection
d)
Insulation
79.

Temperature transfer that involves no physical contact (ex. the sun)

a)
Radiation
b)
Insulation
c)
Convection
d)
Conduction
80.

Temperature transfer that involves converting water into a vapor.

a)
Sublimation
b)
Evaporation
c)
Condensation
d)
Precipitation
81.

When the body becomes cold, it responds by...

a)

Shivering

b)

Sweating

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Vasoconstriction

82.

Your patient is admitted with a traumatic brain injury. One of the healthcare providers concerns is the patients thermoregulation. Why is the healthcare provider concerned about the patient's ability to thermoregulate?

a)
The patient is at risk of hypothermia due to excessive sweating.
b)
The patient's thermoregulation is unaffected by brain injuries.
c)
The patient's ability to thermoregulate may be compromised due to potential hypothalamic damage.
d)
The patient has a fever that will help with thermoregulation.
83.

Factors that can affect thermoregulation include:

a)

Age

b)

Nutrition

c)

Medications

d)

Chronic Diseases

e)

Infection

84.

Without fever

a)

Febrile-Pyrexia

b)

Afebrile

c)

T-Max

d)

Hypothermia

85.

Highest temperature recorded

a)

Afebrile

b)

Hottest

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

T-Max

86.

Your patient has a temp of 94.9 degrees. They are considered hypothermic.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

<95 degrees F

a)

T-max

b)

Febrile-Pyrexia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Hyperthermia

88.

>101.3 degrees F

a)

Febrile-Pyrexia

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Afebrile

89.

>104.0 degrees F

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Afebrile

d)

T-Max

90.

During your shift, you get vitals from a patient 3 times. The temperatures each time were:

103.4

103.9

102.4

What is the patient's T-max?

(a)  

91.

What is the most accurate way to take temperature?

a)
Rectal thermometer
b)
Infrared thermometer
c)
Oral thermometer
d)
Skin thermometer
92.

Which age group is most at risk for impair thermoregulation?

a)
Infants and elderly individuals
b)
Middle-aged individuals
c)
Young adults
d)
Teenagers
93.

What is an important nursing consideration in the thermoregulation of older adults?

a)

May not have fever with illness

b)

Can handle temps up to 105.8 degrees without difficulty

c)

Increase of subcutaneous fat

d)

Increased thermoregulation controls

94.

A fever is a temperature of >101.3 degrees F.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Fever is a very serious symptom that should be treated immediately no matter the temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Fever causes include:

a)

Immune response

b)

Stress

c)

Inflammation

d)

Autoimmune disease

e)

Food allergy

97.

Vasoconstriction occurs during fever.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Your patients fever alternates at regular intervals between periods of fever and periods of normal. They are most likely experiencing what type of fever?

a)

constant fever

b)

relapsing fever

c)
intermittent fever
d)

remittent fever

99.

Your patient is having flu-like symptoms. They have a fever that has a wide fluctuation in temperature over a 24 hour period. What type of fever is your patient most likely experiencing?

a)

Remittent

b)

Intermittent

c)

Relapsing

d)

Constant

100.

Your patient is febrile for a few days, afebrile for a few days, then febrile for a few days. Which type of fever are they most likely experiencing?

a)

Relapsing

b)

Constant

c)

Remittent

d)

Intermittent

101.

Your patient's fever fluctuates minimally, but is always above normal. Which type of fever are they experiencing?

a)

Constant

b)

Relapsing

c)

Remittent

d)

Fever spike

102.

Your patient's fever fluctuates from normal to fever rapidly and returns to normal after a few hours

*risk for fever seizures

What kind of fever is your patient most likely experiencing?

a)

Intermittent

b)

Remittent

c)

Relapsing

d)

Fever Spike

103.

Malaise is described as:

a)
a state of extreme happiness
b)
a specific illness or disease
c)
a physical injury or wound
d)
a general feeling of discomfort or unease
104.

Your patient has a fever. What are some signs and symptoms of a fever that may be present in your patient?

a)

Flushed/warm skin

b)

Vomiting/diarrhea

c)

Tachycardia/tachypnea

d)

Hypotension

e)

Body aches/fatigue

105.

When completing a complete blood count, what are we looking for that would cause a fever?

a)
Low red blood cell count (RBC) indicating anemia.
b)
Normal platelet count indicating no bleeding issues.
c)
Decreased hemoglobin levels indicating hydration.
d)
Elevated white blood cell count (WBC) indicating infection or inflammation.
106.

Which of the following would help us find the cause of a fever?

a)

Complete blood count

b)

Urinalysis

c)

Chest x-ray

d)

Stool sample

107.

Which fever pharmacological treatment is described:

-dose= 325mg-1g

-can be given as pill, liquid, IV, and suppository

-processed by liver

a)

acetaminophen (Tylenol)

b)
naproxen
c)

aspirin (NSAID)

d)

ibuprofen (NSAID)

108.

Which fever pharmacological treatment is described:

-dose= 325-650 mg

-increased risk for bleeding

-processed by kidney

a)

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

b)

Ibuprofen (NSAID)

c)
Naproxen
d)

Aspirin (NSAID)

109.

Which fever pharmacological treatment is described below:

-usual dose= 200-800mg

-motrin/aleve

-increase risk for bleeding

-processed by kidney

a)

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

b)
Naproxen
c)

Ibuprofen (NSAID)

d)

Aspirin (NSAID)

110.

What is the correct pathophysiology of hyperthermia?

a)

cellular dysfunction occurs, heart becomes overwhelmed and cannot meet the demand, cardiac output diminishes

b)

releases intracellular fluid into circulation, increase blood flow, heart works harder to pump the additional fluid, heart becomes overwhelmed and cannot meet the demand, cardiac output diminishes

c)

cellular dysfunction occurs, releases intracellular fluid into circulation, increase blood flow, heart works harder to pump the additional fluid, heart becomes overwhelmed and cannot meet the demand, cardiac output diminishes

d)

increase blood flow, heart works harder to pump the additional fluid, heart becomes overwhelmed and cannot meet the demand, cardiac output diminishes

111.

If the ABC's are unaffected, the first thing you should do with a hyperthermic patient is...

a)

COOL THEM DOWN!

b)

HEAT THEM UP!

c)

Remove clothing, and allow for body to naturally cool itself down

d)

Remove clothing, and allow for body to naturally heat itself up

112.

What are common in hyperthermic patients to get then cooled down ASAP?

a)

Cooling blankets

b)

Cool IV fluids

c)

Cold Lavages

d)

Heating pad

113.

You need a doctor's order for the use of cooling blankets and cold lavages.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Which vital signs match a hyperthermic patient?

a)

Respirations: 7

HR: 44

BP: 90/50

b)

Respirations: 24

HR: 187

BP: 90/50

c)

Respirations: 24

HR: 187

BP: 170/100

d)

Respirations: 7

HR: 44

BP: 170/100

115.

Loss of body fluid volume due to the loss of body fluid and salt

-Body is unable to compensate quickly enough

-Weakness, mental status change, possible loss of consciousness

(a)  

116.

Blood pressure skyrockets when you become heat exhausted.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

Caused by high environmental temperatures and high humidity, dysfunction in thermoregulation, loss of ability to cool through sweat

-paleness, dizziness, vomiting, confusion, stupor, hypotension

(a)  

118.

Heat stroke can lead to vascular collapse, which is...

a)
a minor increase in heart rate and temperature.
b)

circulatory system fails to deliver enough blood to the body's organs

c)
a temporary loss of consciousness without serious effects.
d)
a severe drop in blood pressure and blood flow.
119.

During heat stoke, permanent damage will be done to the body's organs after thirty minutes.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

What are the three mechanisms of hypothermia?

a)

Excessive heat loss

b)

Inadequate heat production to counteract heat loss

c)

Impaired hypothalamic thermoregulation

d)

Impaired hyperthermic thermoregulation

121.

Mild hypothermia

a)

89.6--95 F

b)

82.4-89.6 F

c)

<82.4 F

122.

Moderate hypothermia

a)

89.6-95 F

b)

82.4-89.6

c)

<82.4

123.

Severe hypothermia

a)

<95 F

b)

<82.4 F

c)

82/4-89.6

124.

What are the first signs of hypothermia?

a)

Shivering

b)

Pale, dry skin

c)

Tachycardia, tachypnea

d)

Bradycardia, bradypnea

125.

What are signs of MODERATE hypothermia?

a)

Depressed mental status

b)

No shivering

c)

Bradycardia, bradypnea

d)

Pale/Cyanotic

126.

Severe hypothermia...

a)

Absence of pulse

b)

Apnea

c)

Coma

d)

Tachycardia

127.

What chronic disease puts someone at a thermoregulation risk?

a)
Hypertension
b)

Thyroid Disease

c)
Diabetes
d)
Osteoporosis
128.

What are hypothermia causes and risk factors?

a)

Endocrine disorders

b)

Alcohol/drugs

c)

Outdoor exposure

d)

Wearing proper clothing

129.

Newborns lose 4x the amount of heat than adults.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

What are some risks for hypothermia in older adults?

a)

Cognitive disorders

b)

Chronic conditions

c)

Decreased ability to maintain constant internal temp loss

d)

Loss of hair

131.

Injury of skin resulting from freezing~ no blood flow

(a)  

132.

Skin freezes when temperature drops below 32 degrees F.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

The body vasoconstricts during hypothermia to conserve core temp, usually at the expense of the extremities.

Why does the body do this?

a)
The body increases blood flow to extremities to warm them during hypothermia.
b)
The body prioritizes extremities over core temperature to maintain overall warmth.
c)
The body vasodilates to allow more blood flow to the skin during hypothermia.
d)

The body conserves core temp to protect the organs.

134.

Necrosis happens in severe cases of frost bite and is defined as

a)
the regeneration of damaged tissue after injury.
b)

the inflammation of body tissue due to infection. Results in green color

c)

the formation of new blood vessels in response to injury. Results in blue color

d)

the death of body tissue due to severe damage or lack of blood flow. Results in black color

135.

What is infected necrosis?

a)

Edema

b)

Gangrene

c)

Infection

d)

Inflammation