Free Printable Microbiology Ch. 14/15

1.

Which of the following definitions is incorrect?

a)

Acute - a short-lasting primary infection

b)

Primary infection - an initial illness

c)

Inapparent - infection characteristic of a carrier state

d)

Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness

e)

Chronic - a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months

2.

Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of

a)

Vector.

b)

Direct contact.

c)

Droplet transmission.

d)

Fomite.

e)

Vehicle transmission.

3.

Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?

a)

Cat-scratch disease

b)

Rabies

c)

All of these are zoonoses.

d)

Tapeworm

e)

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

4.

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in

a)

Fewer diseases.

b)

Increased susceptibility to disease.

c)

Body odor.

d)

No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

e)

Normal microbiota returning immediately.

5.

Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?

a)

Errors in aseptic technique

b)

Using syringes more than once

c)

Antibiotic resistance

d)

Normal microbiota on the operating room staff

e)

All of these

6.

Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?

a)

Systemic infection

b)

Bacteremia

c)

Local infection

d)

Septicemia

e)

Focal infection

7.

Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of

a)

Droplet transmission.

b)

Vehicle transmission.

c)

Vector.

d)

Fomite.

e)

Direct contact.

8.

A sexually transmitted disease is an example of

a)

Droplet transmission.

b)

Vehicle transmission.

c)

Fomite.

d)

Vector.

e)

Direct contact.

9.

A needlestick is an example of

a)

Droplet transmission.

b)

Vector.

c)

Direct contact.

d)

Vehicle transmission.

e)

Fomite.

10.

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?

a)

A healthy person

b)

All of these can be reservoirs of infection.

c)

A hospital

d)

A sick person

e)

A sick animal

11.

Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Typhoid fever

c)

AIDS

d)

Tetanus

e)

Malaria

12.

Which of the following is a fomite?

a)

A hypodermic needle

b)

Droplets from a sneeze

c)

Insects

d)

Water

e)

Pus

13.

Which of the following statements about biological transmission is false?

a)

The pathogen may require the vector as a host.

b)

The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.

c)

Houseflies are an important vector.

d)

The pathogen reproduces in the vector.

e)

The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces.

14.

A nosocomial infection is

a)

Acquired during the course of hospitalization.

b)

Always caused by medical personnel.

c)

Only a result of surgery.

d)

Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

e)

Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.

15.

Which one of the following statements is false?

a)

The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.

b)

USA300 accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.

c)

Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance.

d)

S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test.

e)

USA100 accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA.

16.

Which of the following definitions is incorrect?

a)

Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time

b)

Incidence - number of new cases of a disease

c)

Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population

d)

Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally

e)

Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time

17.

Which of these infections can cause septicemia?

a)

Focal infection

b)

Bacteremia

c)

Systemic infection

d)

Septicemia

e)

Local infection

18.

Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of

a)

Vector.

b)

Vehicle transmission.

c)

Droplet transmission.

d)

Fomite.

e)

Direct contact.

19.

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

a)

Lack of handwashing

b)

Lapse in aseptic techniques

c)

Lack of insect control

d)

Formation of biofilms

e)

Gram-negative cell walls

20.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

All of these are correctly matched.

b)

Syphilis - direct contact

c)

Influenza - droplet infection

d)

Malaria - vector

e)

Salmonellosis - vehicle transmission

21.

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

a)

Are specific for a particular disease.

b)

Always occur as part of a syndrome.

c)

Are changes observed by the physician.

d)

Are changes felt by the patient.

e)

None of these.

22.

Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission

a)

Requires direct contact.

b)

Involves fomites.

c)

Doesn't require an arthropod.

d)

Doesn't involve specific diseases.

e)

Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases.

23.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

b)

Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.

c)

A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.

d)

Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.

e)

Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.

24.

Which of the following statements about M protein is false?

a)

It is heat- and acid-resistant.

b)

It is a protein.

c)

It is found on fimbriae.

d)

It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.

e)

It is readily digested by phagocytes.

25.

Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness?

a)

Ligands

b)

Capsule

c)

Hyaluronidase

d)

Toxins

e)

Cell wall

26.

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

a)

Skin.

b)

All are used equally.

c)

Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.

d)

Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.

e)

Parenteral route.

27.

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin

a)

Can penetrate intact skin.

b)

Enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.

c)

Must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.

d)

Just infect the skin itself.

e)

Must be injected.

28.

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is false?

a)

It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.

b)

It causes vomiting.

c)

It is a superantigen.

d)

It causes diarrhea.

e)

It is an exotoxin.

29.

Botulism is caused by a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore it can easily be prevented by

a)

Preventing fecal contamination of food.

b)

Filtering food.

c)

Administering antibiotics to patients.

d)

Not eating canned food.

e)

Boiling food prior to consumption.

30.

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease?

a)

Capsules

b)

Allergic response of the host

c)

Toxins

d)

Metabolic products

e)

Cell walls

31.

Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by

a)

Conjugation.

b)

Infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae.

c)

Transformation.

d)

Phagocytosis.

e)

Transduction.

32.

A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry?

a)

Skin

b)

All of these

c)

None of these

d)

Mucous membranes

e)

Parenteral route

33.

Which of the following diseases is NOT usually contracted by the respiratory route?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

All of these are usually contracted by the respiratory route.

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Whooping cough

e)

Infectious hepatitis

34.

Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?

a)

Inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus

b)

Cell death

c)

Toxin production

d)

Increased cell growth

e)

Host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia

35.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a two-part exotoxin. The most likely pathologic effect of this toxin is

a)

Flaccid paralysis.

b)

The bacteria will be able to grow in phagocytes.

c)

Inhibition of protein synthesis.

d)

Tetani or lockjaw.

e)

A red rash.

36.

Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?

a)

Giant cells

b)

Inclusion bodies

c)

Antigenic changes

d)

Transformation

e)

Release of enzymes from lysosomes

37.

Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?

a)

Streptolysin O

b)

A-B toxin

c)

Streptolysin S

d)

Hemolysin

e)

Leukocidin

38.

Which of the following is NOT used by bacteria for attachment to a host?

a)

Fimbriae

b)

M protein

c)

Capsules

d)

A-B toxin

e)

Ligands

39.

In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes

a)

A decrease in blood pressure.

b)

The disease to subside.

c)

A fever.

d)

An increase in red blood cells.

e)

A gram-negative infection.

40.

Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause

a)

No damage, because they are sterile.

b)

Infection.

c)

Septic shock symptoms.

d)

Nerve damage.

e)

Giant cell formation.

41.

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally false?

a)

They are more potent than endotoxins.

b)

They are not destroyed by heat.

c)

They are composed of proteins.

d)

They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.

e)

They have specific methods of action.

42.

Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to

a)

All of these.

b)

None of these.

c)

Tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues.

d)

Waste products excreted by the parasite.

e)

Products released from damaged tissues.

43.

Septic shock due to gram-positive bacteria is caused by

a)

Membrane-disrupting toxins.

b)

Erythrogenic toxin.

c)

A-B toxins.

d)

Lipid A.

e)

Superantigens.

44.

Poliovirus is ingested and gains access to tissues by which portal of entry?

a)

Skin

b)

Parenteral

c)

Mucous membranes

d)

None of these

e)

All of these

45.

Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3 to 6 hours after eating. The most likely cause of this food intoxication is

a)

Cholera toxin.

b)

Aflatoxin.

c)

Staphylococcal enterotoxin.

d)

Ciguatera.

e)

A mycotoxin.

46.

Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients inflammation was due to

a)

Exotoxin.

b)

Viral infection.

c)

Cant tell.

d)

Endotoxin.

e)

Bacterial infection.

47.

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal

a)

Transferrin.

b)

Red blood cells.

c)

White blood cells.

d)

Antibodies.

e)

Receptors.

48.

In Figure 14.2, what is the endemic level of rotavirus infections?

a)

The month of January

b)

Approximately 10%

c)

0%

d)

Approximately 20%

e)

35%

49.

The administration of ampicillin before surgery

a)

Has no effect on risk of infection.

b)

Replaces tetracycline.

c)

Can't tell.

d)

Increases the risk of staphylococcal infection.

e)

Decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection.

50.

A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of

a)

Vehicle transmission.

b)

Droplet transmission.

c)

Fomite.

d)

Vector.

e)

Direct contact.

51.

Legionellosis transmitted by a grocery store mist machine is an example of

a)

Direct contact.

b)

Vector.

c)

Fomite.

d)

Vehicle transmission.

e)

Droplet transmission.

52.

Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?

a)

Local infection

b)

Viremia

c)

Focal infection

d)

Systemic infection

e)

Bacteremia

53.

Situation 14.1

During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous 3 years.

In Situation 14.1, the etiologic agent of the disease is

a)

Wind.

b)

Pneumonia.

c)

Coxiella burnetii.

d)

Sheep.

e)

Soil.

54.

The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of

a)

Other fungi.

b)

Parasitic bacteria.

c)

Symbiotic bacteria.

d)

Antagonistic bacteria.

e)

Commensal bacteria.

55.

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a

a)

Latent infection.

b)

None of these.

c)

Sporadic disease.

d)

Nosocomial infection.

e)

Communicable disease.

56.

A commensal bacterium

a)

May be an opportunistic pathogen.

b)

Does not receive any benefit from its host.

c)

Does not infect its host.

d)

Is beneficial to its host.

e)

Is beneficial to its host and Does not infect its host only.

57.

Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of

a)

Antagonism.

b)

Synergism.

c)

Competitive exclusion.

d)

Parasitism.

e)

Commensalism.

58.

Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is false?

a)

They are caused by normal microbiota.

b)

They are caused by drug-resistant bacteria.

c)

They are caused by opportunists.

d)

They occur in compromised patients.

e)

The patient was infected before hospitalization.

59.

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Botulism

c)

Measles

d)

Common cold

e)

Diphtheria

60.

Which one of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?

a)

Bacteria occupying host receptors

b)

Bacteriocin production

c)

Bacteria producing vitamin K

d)

Acid production by bacteria

e)

Bacteria causing disease

61.

The major significance of Koch's work was that

a)

Microorganisms cause disease.

b)

Microorganisms can be cultured.

c)

Microorganisms are the result of disease.

d)

Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.

e)

Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.

62.

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat

a)

Gram-positive bacterial infections.

b)

Protozoan infections.

c)

Viral infections.

d)

Helminth infestations.

e)

Gram-negative bacterial infections.

63.

The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier?

a)

Producing fimbriae

b)

Inducing endocytosis

c)

Inducing TNF

d)

All of these

e)

Producing toxins

64.

Which of the following CANNOT be used for adherence?

a)

Lipoproteins

b)

Capsules

c)

Glycoproteins

d)

Cell membrane mannose

e)

Fimbriae

65.

Which of the following organisms does NOT produce an exotoxin?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Clostridium botulinum

c)

Clostridium tetani

d)

Salmonella typhi

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

66.

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the virulence of a pathogen?

a)

Numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host

b)

Toxins

c)

Enzymes

d)

All of these contribute to a pathogen's virulence.

e)

Cell wall

67.

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to

a)

Fungal infections.

b)

Bacterial infections.

c)

Helminthic infections.

d)

Protozoan infections.

e)

Viral infections.

68.

Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step?

a)

Fever occurs.

b)

Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus.

c)

IL-1 is released.

d)

Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria.

e)

LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria.

69.

Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by

a)

Filtering out the cells.

b)

The Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.

c)

Counting the viable bacteria.

d)

Looking for turbidity.

e)

Culturing bacteria.

70.

Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that

a)

Bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth.

b)

Bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth.

c)

Streptococci get bacterial infections.

d)

Streptococci cause periodontal disease.

e)

Streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.

71.

Which organism most easily causes an infection?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

Can't tell

72.

Which is a method of avoiding phagocytosis?

a)

Inducing TNF

b)

Producing toxins

c)

Inducing endocytosis

d)

Producing fimbriae

e)

Producing iron-binding proteins

73.

The ID₅₀ is a

a)

Measure of pathogenicity.

b)

Dose that will kill some of the test population.

c)

Dose that will kill 50% of the test population.

d)

Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population.

e)

Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.

74.

Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because

a)

Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms.

b)

Some microorganisms can't be observed.

c)

Some microorganisms can't be cultured in laboratory media.

d)

Some microorganisms don't cause the same disease in laboratory animals.

e)

Some microorganisms cause different symptoms under different conditions.

75.

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota

a)

Cause diseases.

b)

Are acquired by direct contact.

c)

Are found in a certain location on the host.

d)

Are present for a relatively short time.

e)

Never cause disease.

76.

The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is

a)

Vehicle transmission.

b)

Droplet transmission.

c)

Direct contact.

d)

Vector.

e)

Fomite.

77.

Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

78.

Situation 14.1

During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥ 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive forC. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous 3 years.

Situation 14.1 is an example of

a)

Human reservoirs.

b)

A vector.

c)

A focal infection.

d)

A nonliving reservoir.

e)

A zoonosis.

79.

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called

a)

Morbidity and mortality.

b)

Communicable disease.

c)

Epidemiology.

d)

Ecology.

e)

Public health.

80.

Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Microbes trying to cause disease.

b)

Travel.

c)

Digging up soil.

d)

Climatic changes.

e)

Antibiotic resistance.

81.

Situation 14.1

During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous 3 years.

In Situation 14.1, the method of transmission of this disease was

a)

Vehicle.

b)

Indirect contact.

c)

Droplet.

d)

Vector-borne.

e)

Direct contact.

82.

A cell wall can increase a bacterium's virulence because cell wall lipid A

a)

Is toxic.

b)

Resists phagocytosis.

c)

All bacteria have a cell wall and all are not pathogenic; therefore, cell walls do not contribute to virulence.

d)

Helps the bacterium attach.

e)

Destroys host tissues.

83.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

Kinase destroys fibrin clots.

b)

Coagulase destroys blood clots.

c)

Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.

d)

Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.

e)

Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.

84.

Which of the following organisms causes the most severe disease?

a)

b)

c)

d)

Can't tell

e)

85.

Endotoxins are

a)

Associated with gram-positive bacteria.

b)

A-B toxins.

c)

Specific in their method of action.

d)

Excreted from the cell.

e)

Part of the gram-negative cell wall.

86.

Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages

a)

Carry plasmids.

b)

Produce toxins.

c)

Give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.

d)

Kill human cells.

e)

Kill the bacteria causing release of endotoxins.

87.

Which of the following is NOT considered entry via the parenteral route?

a)

Hair follicle

b)

Injection

c)

Bite

d)

Surgery

e)

Skin cut

88.

Which of the following is NOT a method of avoiding host antibodies?

a)

Antigenic change

b)

IgA protease

c)

Inducing endocytosis

d)

Membrane-disrupting toxins

e)

Invasins

89.

The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates

a)

A pandemic.

b)

An epidemic level.

c)

A sporadic infection.

d)

A communicable disease.

e)

An endemic level.

90.

Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed,

a)

Polypeptide A would enter the cells.

b)

Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.

c)

Polypeptide A would bind to target cells.

d)

Vibrio would bind to target cells.

e)

Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.

Microbiology Ch. 14/15

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

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