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Microbiology test 5

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The heart chamber that pumps blood into the systemic circuit is the chamber labeled

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.

The heart chamber that pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit is the chamber labeled

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

3.

The heart chambers that receive blood returning to the heart are labeled

a)

A and B

b)

B and. C

c)

C and A

d)

D and B

4.

The figure below shows blood vessels. If lymphatic capillaries were to be added to this figure, they would be most closely associated with

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.

Which of the following statements is a true comparison between the cardiovascular and lymphatic

systems?

a)

  1. The lymphatic system contains a pump that generates high pressures.

b)

  1. The lymphatic system is used to transport nutrients and oxygen to body cells.

c)

  1. The cardiovascular system carries lymph through lymph nodes.

d)

  1. The cardiovascular system is composed of a pulmonary circuit and a systemic circuit.

6.

The circuit shown

a)

  1. carries oxygenated blood to body cells.

b)

  1. removes waste from body cells.

c)

  1. replenishes oxygen in blood.

d)

  1. replenishes carbon dioxide in blood.

7.

Pulmonary arteries carry

a)

  1. oxygenated blood toward the heart.

b)

  1. deoxygenated blood toward the heart.

c)

  1. oxygenated blood toward the lungs.

d)

  1. deoxygenated blood toward the lungs.

8.

Margo, a nursing-home resident, experiences a scratch on her leg that becomes infected by Staphyloccocus. During a shower a nursing assistant notices a red streak extending from the skin infection and alerts a nurse. What term describes this red streak?

a)

lymphadenopathy

b)

lymphadenitis

c)

lymphangitis

d)

endocarditis

9.

The cells infected by cytomegalovirus (CMV) include

a)

fibroblasts

b)

osteocytes

c)

lymphocytes

d)

neurons

10.

What causes lymphadenitis in a patient with an Epstein-Barr virus infection?

a)

  1. proliferation of B and T cells

b)

  1. removal of abnormal blood cells from circulation

c)

  1. infection of epithelial cells within lymph nodes

d)

  1. production of heterophile antibodies

11.

Why does dissemination of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) often lead to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly?

a)

  1. EBV produces abnormal blood cells that are removed by the liver and spleen.

b)

  1. Latent EBV within the liver and spleen causes enlargement of these organs.

c)

  1. The cells infected by EBV are only found in the liver and spleen.

d)

  1. EBV-infected B cells travel throughout the body and then reside within the liver and

    spleen.

12.

The most common treatment for systemic viral diseases is

a)

  1. the treatment of symptoms.

b)

  1. antiviral medications.

c)

immunotherapy.

d)

antibiotics.

13.

Which of the following procedures would most directly limit transmission of arboviruses such as

dengue viruses?

a)

  1. eliminate mosquitoes

b)

  1. prevent contact with infected saliva

c)

  1. prevent contact with infected fecal matter

d)

  1. eliminate rodents

14.

What treatment is typically used for otherwise healthy individuals who contract infectious mononucleosis?

a)

  1. hospitalization

b)

  1. antiviral therapy

c)

activity restriction

d)

passive immunization

15.

Two major systemic bacterial diseases associated with septicemia are

a)

  1. vibriosis and Lyme disease.

b)

  1. typhoid fever and salmonellosis.

c)

tularemia and leptospirosis.

d)

brucellosis and epidemic typhus.

16.

The spirochete bacterial disease that leads to complications including arthritis and heart rhythm abnormalities and is transmitted by deer ticks is known as

a)

  1. Lyme disease.

b)

  1. brucellosis.

c)

tularemia.

d)

bubonic plague.

17.

As a teenager, Angelica developed a systemic bacterial infection. The bacteria, found on some lettuce in a restaurant salad, killed several other people. In Angelica, the bacteria invaded her tissue macrophages, traveled throughout her bloodstream, and infected her gallbladder in addition to infecting her liver, spleen, and kidney. She survived but remained a chronic carrier of

a)

  1. Brucella abortis.

b)

  1. Yersinia pestis.

c)

  1. Rickettsia prowazekii.

d)

  1. Salmonella enterica servovar Typhi.

18.

Borrelia burgdorferi produces an enzyme that cleaves proteoglycans. This enzyme mainly affects ________ tissue.

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

19.

When Yersinia pestis remains untreated in a human body, it can enter the bloodstream and ultimately invade the

a)

liver

b)

kidneys

c)

spleen

d)

lungs

20.

How do rickettsioses, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, cause systemic symptoms?

a)

  1. Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular bacteria that infect endothelial cells throughout

    the body.

b)

  1. Rickettsia species are phagocytized by macrophages and travel throughout the blood

    within macrophages.

c)

  1. Rickettsia species infect lymphocytes and use the lymphatic system to move throughout

    the body.

d)

  1. Rickettsia species infect fibroblasts within connective tissues and use the

    reticuloendothelial system to move throughout the body.

21.

The antibiotic most commonly used to treat the major systemic bacterial infections is

a)

penicillin

b)

fluoroquinolones

c)

ceftriaxone

d)

tetracycline

22.

A human vaccine is available to prevent

a)

  1. bubonic plague.

b)

  1. salmonellosis.

c)

typhoid fever.

d)

Lyme disease.

23.

Which of the structures indicated on this figure of the heart wall is most frequently affected during a bacterial cardiac infection?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

Bacterial endocarditis affects the

a)

  1. thinner lining of the heart.

b)

  1. muscle of the heart.

c)

  1. sac surrounding the heart.

d)

  1. lining of blood vessels exiting the heart.

25.

Acute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by

a)

  1. Streptococcus mutans.

b)

  1. Staphylococcus aureus.

c)

Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

d)

Porphyromonas gingivalis.

26.

Subacute

a)

  1. Streptococcus mutans.

b)

  1. Staphylococcus aureus.

c)

Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

d)

Porphyromonas gingivalis.

27.

Atherosclerosis is associated with infection of

a)

  1. endothelial cells.

b)

  1. mast cells.

c)

macrophages.

d)

lymphocytes.

28.

Which periodontal pathogen has been found within atherosclerotic plaques?

a)

  1. Streptococcus mutans

b)

  1. Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

d)

Porphyromonas gingivalis

29.

Which of the following diseases is caused by a helminth?

a)

toxoplasmosis

b)

babesiosis

c)

leishmaniasis

d)

schistosomiasis

30.

Which of the following pairs of diseases are transmitted by mosquitoes?

a)

  1. malaria and toxoplasmosis

b)

  1. babesiosis and Chagas’ disease

c)

leishmaniasis and schistosomiasis

d)

lymphatic filariasis and malaria

31.

This map shows areas where malaria is endemic. What organism is endemic to the same regions?

a)

  1. Anopheles mosquitoes

b)

  1. Ixodes scapularis ticks

c)

reduviid bugs

d)

sand flies

32.

What role does stomach acidity play in a toxoplasmosis infection?

a)

  1. It converts bradyzoites into cyst forms for release from the body.

b)

  1. It causes the release of spores within the definitive host.

c)

  1. It allows the release of spores within the intermediate host.

d)

  1. It allows gametes to form from spores within the intermediate host.

33.

The rapidly dividing protozoan cells that circulate throughout the body during a toxoplasmosis infection are called

a)

promastigotes.

b)

tachyzoites.

c)

bradyzoites.

d)

asmastigotes.

34.

What causes symptoms of malaria to occur every 48–72 hours?

a)

  1. The life span of sporozoites is approximately 48–72 hours.

b)

  1. The liver releases merozoites every 48–72 hours.

c)

  1. Sporozoites are converted into merozoites during a 48–72-hour cycle.

d)

  1. Release of merozoites and red cell debris is synchronized.

35.

Sand flies carry a motile form of a

a)

promastigote

b)

merozoite

c)

bradyzoite

d)

asmastigote

36.

The protozoan infection that may be transmitted from mother to fetus and cause fetal infection leading to mental retardation, neurological abnormalities, and microcephaly is

a)

visceral leishmaniasis.

b)

toxoplasmosis.

c)

schistosomiasis.

d)

Chagas’ disease.

37.

The swelling seen in this individual’s leg is indicative of

a)

  1. cutaneous leishmaniasis.

b)

  1. lymphatic filariasis.

c)

babesiosis.

d)

Chagas’ disease.

38.

To prevent infection of a fetus would require successful treatment of a mother infected with

a)

toxoplasmosis.

b)

babesiosis.

c)

schistosomiasis.

d)

leishmaniasis.

39.

Individuals living in the northeastern United States should take precautions to prevent tick bites to

avoid the emerging protozoan disease that grows inside red blood cells. This disease is known as

a)

Lyme disease.

b)

babesiosis.

c)

Chagas’ disease.

d)

malaria.

40.

During her pregnancy, Marcia’s obstetrician recommended she have her husband clean the cat litter box. Avoiding contact with contaminated cat feces during a pregnancy is important in preventing

a)

toxoplasmosis.

b)

babesiosis.

c)

schistosomiasis.

d)

leishmaniasis.

41.

Which is true of B. burgdorferi and Lyme disease?

a)

  1. It is commonly transmitted via the bite of the deer tick, but may also be transmitted by

    rabbits, rodents, and mosquitoes.

b)

  1. B. burgdorferi is a spirochete bacterium with an unusual genome.

c)

  1. Lyme disease can be contracted only in the United States and is named for the community

    of Lyme, Connecticut.

d)

  1. Most people naturally clear Lyme infection without treatment; fewer than 10% naturally

    progress to stage 2 infection.

42.

Which part of the human digestive tract cannot be colonized by microorganisms?

a)

  1. mouth

b)

  1. All parts of the digestive tract can be colonized.

c)

  1. liver

d)

  1. small intestine

43.

When does breakdown of food begin?

a)

  1. in the esophagus

b)

  1. when saliva is secreted by the salivary glands

c)

  1. in the gastric acids of the stomach

d)

  1. in the large intestine

44.

What is the job of the esophagus?

a)

  1. to propel food toward the stomach

b)

  1. to separate the contents of the abdominal cavity from the chest

c)

  1. to digest food

d)

  1. to break down toxins

45.

What is chyme?

a)

  1. the wavelike motion of intestinal muscles

b)

  1. semisolid waste

c)

  1. food broken down by muscle contraction and gastric juices

d)

  1. the interior stomach lining

46.

Many enteric pathogens are transmitted through

a)

  1. sexual contact.

b)

  1. the parenteral route.

c)

airborne transmission.

d)

expulsion of feces.

47.

During digestion, bicarbonate is secreted by ________ cells.

a)

parietal

b)

chief

c)

mucus neck

d)

M

48.

Which of the following is NOT a natural defense of the oral cavity?

a)

  1. acidic conditions

b)

  1. lysozyme

c)

IgA

d)

digestive mucus

49.

What is the purpose of drinking fluoride-treated water?

a)

  1. hardens tooth enamel

b)

  1. softens tooth enamel

c)

fights plaque

d)

kills organisms that cause cavities

50.

Which is NOT a common cause of periodontal disease?

a)

Aggregatibacter

b)

Porphyromonas

c)

Bacteroides

d)

Lactobacillus

51.

Individuals with ________ find eating and swallowing to be painful.

a)

  1. gingivitis

b)

  1. trench mouth

c)

dental caries

d)

plaque

52.

What is shown in this figure?

a)

  1. a Candida albicans infection

b)

  1. dental caries

c)

strep throat

d)

a Streptococcus mutans infection

53.

When does dental caries become painful?

a)

  1. when the biofilm forms on the tooth

b)

  1. when the enamel breaks down

c)

when the decay penetrates the nerve

d)

Dental caries is never painful

54.

The tropism of Salmonella infections includes

a)

  1. the intestinal lumen.

b)

  1. the ileum.

c)

Paneth cells.

d)

M cells.

55.

Which type of diarrhea does NOT involve water leaving intestinal cells?

a)

osmotic

b)

secretory

c)

motility-related

d)

inflammatory

56.

Shannon comes down with a Clostridium difficile infection that results in severe colitis. Which of the following conditions is she experiencing?

a)

  1. inflammation of the small intestine

b)

  1. inflammation of the large intestine

c)

inflammation of the stomach lining

d)

inflammation of the Paneth cells

57.

Why would a nondeadly intestinal pathogen most likely want to cause diarrhea?

a)

  1. to leave before the host is irreparably harmed

b)

  1. to leave before the host immune system becomes activated and begins attacking the

    pathogen

c)

  1. to escape to a different organ system

d)

  1. to flush out the competition

58.

A patient presents at the clinic exhibiting signs of jaundice. How can you confirm that the individual has jaundice?

a)

  1. urinalysis

b)

  1. spinal tap

c)

eye exam

d)

MRI

59.

Tom has been experiencing hepatitis-like symptoms for seven months. When he finally gets around to going to the doctor, his blood tests positive for HBsAg and IgG antibody to HBsAg. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for Tom?

a)

  1. acute hepatitis B

b)

  1. chronic hepatitis B

c)

acute hepatitis D

d)

chronic hepatitis D

60.

Even with healthy liver function, the majority of individuals infected with ________ develop a chronic infection.

a)

  1. rotavirus

b)

  1. hepatitis A

c)

hepatitis B

d)

hepatitis C

61.

Cynthia travels to Honduras and eats raw oysters from a small restaurant out in the middle of nowhere. After feeling sick for a while, she goes to the clinic when jaundice appears. Cynthia is very concerned that she is going to die. What does the health care worker tell her?

a)

  1. She should be fine, as the virus causing her condition is self-limited and will be cleared by her immune system.

b)

  1. She should be fine since she came in quickly and will respond well to antiviral drugs.

c)

  1. She will need to be hospitalized, but with the right treatment, she will eventually be fine.

d)

  1. She has a fatal condition.

62.

Adult infection with ________ can sometimes lead to meningitis.

a)

  1. rotavirus

b)

  1. mumps virus

c)

hepatitis A

d)

hepatitis D

63.

Viruses that cause vomiting will often produce enterotoxins that result in

a)

  1. overstimulation of the vagus nerve.

b)

  1. understimulation of the vagus nerve.

c)

  1. hypoperistalsis.

d)

  1. isoperistalsis.

64.

Oophoritis can result in ________ infected with mumps.

a)

  1. prepubescent males

b)

  1. postpubescent males

c)

prepubescent females

d)

postpubescent females

65.

Orchitis can result in ________ infected with mumps.

a)

  1. prepubescent males

b)

  1. postpubescent males

c)

prepubescent females

d)

postpubescent females

66.

Which of the following organisms is noninvasive, yet causes bloody diarrhea?

a)

Salmonella

b)

Shigella

c)

Campylobacter

d)

enterohemorrhagic E. coli

67.

What would be the expected result if the acid-resistance genes of EHEC strains were deleted?

a)

It would be better adapted to survive in the stomach.

b)

  1. It would no longer be able to colonize the respiratory tract.

c)

  1. It would have a higher oral infectious dose.

d)

  1. It would have a lower oral infectious dose.

68.

Karen is suffering from a gastrointestinal illness caused by a Gram-negative bacterium without flagella. Which of the following conditions could Karen have?

a)

  1. salmonellosis

b)

  1. shigellosis

c)

hemolytic uremia syndrome

d)

peptic ulcers

69.

The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is

a)

E. coli.

b)

Shigella.

c)

Campylobacter.

d)

Salmonella.

70.

Peritonitis and cholecystitis can result when ________ infects immunocompromised individuals.

a)

  1. Campylobacter jejuni

b)

  1. Salmonella enterica

c)

E. coli

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

71.

Jim and his family were on vacation in sunny Florida. One evening after spending the day at the beach, Jim noticed a painful wound that he was not aware he had. After 24 hours without treatment, Jim was pronounced dead. What organism infected Jim?

a)

  1. Listeria monocytogenes

b)

  1. Clostridium difficile

c)

Vibrio cholerae

d)

Vibrio vulnificus

72.

What would be the expected result on the body if the pathogenicity island of Clostridium difficile were

removed?

a)

  1. an increase in production of TNF-a

b)

  1. a decrease in production of TNF-a

c)

  1. an increased ability to detect the toxin in a fecal sample

d)

  1. an increased ability to identify the organism by PCR

73.

Within three hours of attending the church carnival, Maya and her family are all vomiting

uncontrollably. What organism have they likely ingested?

a)

no organism—most likely a toxin from Staphylococcus aureus

b)

  1. Listeria monocytogenes

c)

  1. Salmonella typhimurium

d)

  1. Campylobacter jejuni

74.

Yersinia enterocolitica infection should be treated with

a)

surgery.

b)

proton pump inhibitors.

c)

antibiotics.

d)

hydration.

75.

Which of the following organisms might someday be prevented from causing infections by a vaccine?

a)

E. coli

b)

Shigella

c)

Salmonella

d)

Listeria

76.

Infection with ________ could mimic symptoms of hepatitis.

a)

  1. Entamoeba histolytica

b)

  1. Cryptosporidium hominis

c)

Cyclospora cayetanensis

d)

Giardia intestinalis

77.

Which of the following organisms is NOT transmitted by direct fecal-oral contact?

a)

Entamoeba

b)

Giardia

c)

Cyclospora

d)

Cryptosporidium

78.

Tapeworms are transmitted by the ________ route.

a)

fecal-environment-skin

b)

fecal-oral

c)

fecal-oral-environment-skin

d)

fecal-intermediate host-oral

79.

If humans began engaging in regular cannibalism, which of the following might become more

prevalent?

a)

Trichinella

b)

Stongyloides

c)

Necator

d)

Ascarsis

80.

What type of organism is shown in the figure?

a)

tapeworm

b)

pinworm

c)

whipworm

d)

hookworm

81.

What is the problem with antihelminth drugs?

a)

  1. They are not able to completely eliminate the worm from the body.

b)

  1. They are not able to kill the worm.

c)

  1. They are not able to starve the worm.

d)

  1. There is no problem with antihelminth drugs.

82.

Which bacterium, possessing virulence factors that enable it to cross the placental barrier, is the likely

etiologic agent of Linda’s infection (and her baby’s)?

a)

  1. Listeria monocytogenes

b)

  1. Clostridium perfringens

c)

  1. Staphylococcus aureus

d)

  1. Corynebacterium diptheriae

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