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Chapter 16 Nursing Pharmacology Questions

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?

a)

Complete blood count and platelet count

b)

Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

c)

Liver function tests and creatinine

d)

Electrolytes and blood glucose

2.

A patient taking aspirin 81 mg daily asks when to stop the medication before scheduled surgery. What is the nurse's best response?

a)

Stop taking it 3 days before surgery

b)

Stop taking it 1 week before surgery

c)

You can continue taking it until the day of surgery

d)

Stop taking it 2 weeks before surgery

3.

Which statement by a patient taking ibuprofen indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset

b)

I monitor for signs of bleeding while taking this medication

c)

I can take this medication throughout my pregnancy for pain relief

d)

I will have my kidney function checked regularly

4.

A patient with gout is prescribed colchicine. Which assessment finding would be most concerning to the nurse?

a)

Mild nausea after taking the medication

b)

Decreased uric acid levels

c)

Severe muscle pain and weakness

d)

Increased fluid intake

5.

Which medication requires once-weekly subcutaneous injection for rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Etanercept

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Celecoxib

6.

A patient asks about the maximum daily dose of acetaminophen. What is the current recommended maximum for adults?

a)

4,000 mg per day

b)

3,500 mg per day

c)

3,000 mg per day

d)

2,500 mg per day

7.

Which patient would be at highest risk for acetaminophen toxicity?

a)

A) A 25-year-old with occasional headaches

b)

B) A 45-year-old who drinks 2 glasses of wine nightly

c)

C) A 60-year-old with arthritis taking multiple OTC medications

d)

D) A 30-year-old with a fever

8.

A patient taking celecoxib (Celebrex) should be monitored for which serious adverse effect?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Cardiovascular events

d)

Bone marrow suppression

9.

Which conditions are treated with DMARDs?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Inflammatory bowel disease

d)

Gout

e)

Psoriatic arthritis

10.

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease is experiencing a flare-up. Which medication classes would the nurse expect to be prescribed? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

DMARDs

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Immunosuppressants

d)

NSAIDs

e)

Antibiotics

11.

Which statement about COX-2 selective inhibitors is correct?

a)

They have no risk of GI bleeding

b)

They increase the risk of cardiovascular events

c)

They are safer for long-term use than traditional NSAIDs

d)

They do not affect kidney function

12.

A patient taking etanercept develops a respiratory infection. What is the nurse's priority action?

a)

Encourage increased fluid intake

b)

Administer the next scheduled dose as ordered

c)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

d)

Obtain a sputum culture

13.

Which laboratory value would indicate salicylate toxicity?

a)

Elevated liver enzymes

b)

Decreased platelet count

c)

Elevated BUN and creatinine

d)

Altered mental status with respiratory alkalosis initially, then acidosis

14.

A patient with gout asks about dietary modifications. Which food should the nurse recommend avoiding?

a)

Dairy products

b)

Citrus fruits

c)

Organ meats and shellfish

d)

Whole grains

15.

Which assessments are priority for a patient taking NSAIDs long-term?

a)

Blood pressure monitoring

b)

BUN and creatinine levels

c)

Signs of GI bleeding

d)

Liver function tests

e)

Complete blood count

16.

A patient is prescribed hydroxychloroquine for rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment is most important?

a)

Cardiac function

b)

Liver function

c)

Kidney function

d)

Respiratory function

17.

Which medication would be contraindicated in a patient with a history of myocardial infarction?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Low-dose aspirin

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Methotrexate

18.

A patient taking allopurinol for gout prevention should be monitored for which adverse effect?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Rhabdomyolysis

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Hyperglycemia

19.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis asks about the difference between NSAIDs and DMARDs. What is the nurse's best explanation?

a)

NSAIDs prevent joint damage while DMARDs only treat symptoms

b)

DMARDs target the underlying cause of inflammation while NSAIDs treat symptoms

c)

NSAIDs are safer for long-term use than DMARDs

d)

DMARDs work faster than NSAIDs for pain relief

20.

A patient is prescribed baclofen for muscle spasticity following a spinal cord injury. What is the most important patient education the nurse should provide?

a)

Take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset

b)

Avoid alcohol while taking this medication

c)

Monitor your blood pressure regularly

d)

Increase your fluid intake to prevent kidney stones

21.

Which assessment finding would be most concerning in a patient taking dantrolene?

a)

Mild drowsiness

b)

Decreased appetite

c)

Yellowing of the sclera

d)

Muscle weakness

22.

A patient asks about the difference between muscle spasm and spasticity. What is the nurse's best explanation?

a)

Spasm is chronic while spasticity is acute

b)

Spasm results from injury while spasticity results from CNS damage

c)

Spasm affects voluntary muscles while spasticity affects involuntary muscles

d)

There is no difference between the two terms

23.

A patient taking cyclobenzaprine reports feeling confused and having a dry mouth. The nurse recognizes these as:

a)

Signs of drug toxicity requiring immediate discontinuation

b)

Expected anticholinergic effects of the medication

c)

Symptoms of an allergic reaction

d)

Signs of drug interaction with other medications

24.

Which medication is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Baclofen

b)

Cyclobenzaprine

c)

Dantrolene

d)

Tizanidine

25.

A patient prescribed methocarbamol asks why it's given as an injection. What is the nurse's best response?

a)

The oral form is not as effective as the injection

b)

The injection works faster for acute muscle spasms

c)

Your specific medication formulation is designed for injection

d)

The injection has fewer side effects than the oral form

26.

Which adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in patients taking centrally acting muscle relaxants?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Weakness

c)

Confusion

d)

Hepatotoxicity

e)

Anticholinergic effects

27.

A patient with multiple sclerosis is prescribed dantrolene. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?

a)

Complete blood count

b)

Liver function tests

c)

Kidney function tests

d)

Electrolyte levels

28.

Which patient would be at highest risk for complications from centrally acting muscle relaxants?

a)

A) A 25-year-old with a sports injury

b)

B) A 45-year-old taking multiple CNS depressants

c)

C) A 55-year-old with diabetes

d)

D) A 65-year-old with hypertension

29.

A patient taking carisoprodol is planning to drive to work. What should the nurse advise?

a)

Driving is safe as long as you take the medication with food

b)

You can drive after the first week of taking the medication

c)

Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you

d)

Driving is only unsafe if you drink alcohol

30.

Which conditions are treated with dantrolene?

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Muscle spasticity

c)

Spinal cord injury

d)

Myasthenia gravis

e)

Multiple sclerosis

31.

The mechanism of action for centrally acting muscle relaxants involves:

a)

Blocking sodium channels in muscle fibers

b)

Increasing GABA neurotransmitter activity

c)

Inhibiting calcium release in muscle cells

d)

Blocking acetylcholine receptors

32.

A pregnant patient asks about taking muscle relaxants for back pain. What is the nurse's best response?

a)

Centrally acting muscle relaxants are safe during pregnancy

b)

Only dantrolene is safe during pregnancy

c)

Muscle relaxants are generally not recommended during pregnancy

d)

You can take half the normal dose during pregnancy

33.

Which assessment is most important before administering a muscle relaxant?

a)

Blood pressure and heart rate

b)

Pain level, mobility, and spasticity

c)

Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation

d)

Temperature and neurological status

34.

A patient taking tizanidine reports experiencing nausea and fatigue. The nurse should:

a)

Advise the patient to stop taking the medication immediately

b)

Recognize these as common side effects and provide comfort measures

c)

Increase the medication dose to improve effectiveness

d)

Switch to a different muscle relaxant

35.

Which patient education points are important for muscle relaxant therapy?

a)

Avoid alcohol consumption

b)

Be cautious when driving or operating machinery

c)

Take with food to reduce GI upset

d)

 Monitor for signs of liver problems

e)

Increase physical activity immediately

36.

A patient with myasthenia gravis is prescribed dantrolene. What additional concern should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Increased muscle strength

b)

Interference with estrogen effectiveness

c)

Improved neuromuscular transmission

d)

Enhanced acetylcholine production

37.

Which route of administration is NOT mentioned for dantrolene?

a)

Oral (PO)

b)

Intramuscular (IM)

c)

Intravenous (IV)

d)

Subcutaneous (SC)

38.

A patient taking baclofen for spinal cord injury-related spasticity asks about long-term effects. The nurse should explain that:

a)

Long-term use can lead to physical dependence

b)

The medication loses effectiveness over time

c)

Regular monitoring of liver function is required

d)

The medication should be assessed for continued need and effectiveness

39.

A patient is receiving succinylcholine for rapid sequence intubation. Which assessment finding would be MOST concerning to the nurse?

a)

Muscle fasciculations

b)

Serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L

c)

Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

d)

Heart rate of 88 bpm

40.

The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient receiving rocuronium via continuous infusion. Which assessment tool should the nurse use to monitor the degree of paralysis?

a)

Glasgow Coma Scale

b)

Train of Four (TOF)

c)

Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale

d)

Braden Scale

41.

A patient received pancuronium 2 hours ago and is now showing signs of returning muscle function. In which order would the nurse expect motor function to return?

a)

Head to toe

b)

Toe to head

c)

Arms to legs

d)

Core to extremities

42.

Which are essential safety requirements when administering neuromuscular blocking agents?

a)

Secure airway must be established

b)

Continuous cardiac monitoring

c)

Patient must be conscious during administration

d)

Reversal agents should be available

e)

Sedation must be provided concurrently

43.

A patient is scheduled for a brief surgical procedure requiring muscle relaxation. Which neuromuscular blocking agent would be MOST appropriate?

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Rocuronium

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Cisatracurium

44.

The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving cisatracurium. Which laboratory value requires immediate attention?

a)

Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL

b)

Hemoglobin 11 g/dL

c)

Liver enzymes elevated 3x normal

d)

White blood cell count 8,000/μL

45.

A patient asks the nurse why they need sedation along with the "paralysis medication." What is the nurse's BEST response?

a)

The paralysis medication will make you unconscious

b)

Paralysis medications don't provide pain relief or sedation

c)

Sedation is optional with these medications

d)

The paralysis medication works better with sedation

46.

Which adverse effects are associated with succinylcholine administration?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Bronchospasm

e)

Cardiac arrhythmias

47.

A patient received succinylcholine 5 minutes ago. When should the nurse expect the effects to begin wearing off?

a)

2-5 minutes

b)

10-15 minutes

c)

30-45 minutes

d)

1-2 hours

48.

The nurse is preparing to administer rocuronium to a patient. Which action is MOST important before administration?

a)

Ensure that the airway is secure and that appropriate sedation is provided.

b)

Check the patient's blood glucose level.

c)

Assess the patient's pain score.

d)

Obtain a urine sample for analysis.

49.

A patient is receiving continuous pancuronium infusion. The Train of Four (TOF) assessment shows 1 out of 4 twitches. What is the nurse's BEST action?

a)

Increase the infusion rate

b)

Continue current infusion rate

c)

Decrease the infusion rate

d)

Stop the infusion immediately

50.

Which statement about depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents is CORRECT?

a)

They block muscle contractions by antagonizing acetylcholine

b)

They block muscle relaxation by acting as acetylcholine agonists

c)

They have a longer duration of action than non-depolarizing agents

d)

They provide sedation and pain relief

51.

A patient develops bronchospasm after receiving a neuromuscular blocking agent. Which medication would the nurse expect to administer?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Albuterol

d)

Methylprednisolone

52.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received succinylcholine and is now experiencing malignant hyperthermia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

a)

Decreased body temperature

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Muscle rigidity

d)

Decreased end-tidal CO2

53.

A patient receiving rocuronium shows no muscle twitches on TOF assessment. What does this indicate?

a)

The patient is under-paralyzed

b)

The patient is adequately paralyzed

c)

The patient is over-paralyzed

d)

The equipment is malfunctioning

54.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which assessments are priority when caring for a patient receiving

neuromuscular blocking agents?


a)

Vital signs

b)

Level of consciousness

c)

Degree of paralysis

d)

Pain assessment

e)

Liver function tests

55.

A patient is receiving cisatracurium for mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices the patient's eyes are open and tracking movement. What should the nurse do?

a)

Increase the cisatracurium dose

b)

Assess the patient's level of sedation

c)

Document this as an expected finding

d)

Notify the physician immediately

56.

Which mechanism of action differentiates non-depolarizing from depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents?

a)

Non-depolarizing agents block acetylcholine receptors; depolarizing agents activate them

b)

Non-depolarizing agents activate acetylcholine receptors; depolarizing agents block them

c)

Non-depolarizing agents work faster than depolarizing agents

d)

Non-depolarizing agents provide sedation; depolarizing agents do not

57.

A patient received pancuronium 30 minutes ago and now requires reversal of the neuromuscular blockade. Which type of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered?

a)

Benzodiazepine antagonist

b)

Opioid antagonist

c)

Anticholinesterase agent

d)

Beta-blocker

58.

A patient is scheduled for a minor surgical procedure and will receive propofol for sedation. Which assessment is the HIGHEST priority for the nurse before administration?

a)

Blood glucose level

b)

Respiratory status and airway patency

c)

Bowel sounds

d)

Temperature

59.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received midazolam 30 minutes ago. Which finding would be MOST concerning?

a)

Patient reports feeling drowsy

b)

Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute

c)

Patient appears disoriented

d)

Patient reports mild nausea

60.

A patient is receiving lidocaine for a local procedure. The nurse notices the patient is experiencing dizziness, confusion, and an irregular heart rhythm. What is the nurse's BEST action?

a)

Continue monitoring as these are expected side effects

b)

Stop the procedure immediately and notify the provider

c)

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

d)

Increase the IV fluid rate

61.

Which medication would the nurse expect to be used for procedural sedation in the emergency department?

a)

Morphine

b)

Midazolam

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Lorazepam

62.

A patient asks the nurse about the difference between general and local anesthetics. Which response by the nurse is MOST accurate?

a)

General anesthetics only provide pain relief, while local anesthetics cause unconsciousness

b)

General anesthetics cause unconsciousness and amnesia, while local anesthetics only block sensation in a specific area

c)

There is no significant difference between the two types

d)

Local anesthetics are always safer than general anesthetics

63.

The nurse is monitoring a patient who received ketamine. Which adverse effect should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Disorientation

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hyperglycemia

64.

A patient is scheduled for an epidural with bupivacaine. What is the MOST important patient education the nurse should provide?

a)

You may experience temporary hair loss

b)

Be careful of your skin and surroundings due to altered sensation

c)

You will need to remain flat for 24 hours

d)

Avoid all physical activity for one week

65.

A patient receiving propofol develops bradycardia and hypotension. What is the nurse's FIRST action?

a)

Increase the propofol infusion rate

b)

Administer atropine

c)

Stop the propofol infusion

d)

Place the patient in Trendelenburg position

66.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received lidocaine for a dental procedure. Which assessment finding indicates systemic absorption?

a)

Localized numbness at the injection site

b)

Mild burning sensation at the site

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Temporary loss of taste

67.

Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of discharge instructions after receiving midazolam?

a)

I can drive home as soon as I feel alert

b)

I should avoid alcohol for 24 hours

c)

I can return to work immediately

d)

I should take my regular medications with extra water

68.

Which adverse effects are associated with non-barbiturate general anesthetics?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Hypertension

c)

Lethargy

d)

Incontinence

e)

GI distress

69.

A patient is receiving ropivacaine for a regional nerve block. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?

a)

Allergic reaction only

b)

Systemic toxicity if absorbed into circulation

c)

Permanent nerve damage

d)

Kidney dysfunction

70.

The nurse is preparing emergency equipment for a patient receiving ketamine. Which equipment is MOST essential?

a)

Defibrillator

b)

Airway management supplies

c)

Hemodialysis machine

d)

Chest tube insertion kit

71.

A patient asks why they need to avoid other CNS depressants when receiving propofol. What is the nurse's BEST response?

a)

It will make the propofol less effective

b)

The combination can cause dangerous CNS depression

c)

 "It will cause you to wake up too quickly"

d)

"CNS depressants counteract the effects of propofol"

72.

A patient receiving a local anesthetic experiences headache and localized burning. The nurse should:

a)

Immediately stop the procedure and call the provider

b)

Recognize these as expected adverse effects and continue monitoring

c)

Administer pain medication

d)

Apply ice to the injection site

73.

Which patient would be at HIGHEST risk for complications from general anesthesia?

a)

A 25-year-old healthy male

b)

A 45-year-old with well-controlled diabetes

c)

A 70-year-old with sleep apnea and heart disease

d)

A 30-year-old pregnant woman

74.

The nurse is educating a patient about balanced anesthesia. Which statement is MOST accurate?

a)

You will receive only one medication for anesthesia

b)

Multiple medications work together to provide optimal anesthesia

c)

Balanced anesthesia is only used for emergency surgeries

d)

This type of anesthesia has no side effects

75.

A patient receiving morphine for post-operative pain has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What is the nurse's priority action?

a)

Encourage deep breathing exercises

b)

Hold the next dose of morphine

c)

Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

d)

Notify the physician immediately

76.

Which adverse effect is most common in patients taking opioid medications?

a)

Respiratory depression

b)

Constipation

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Euphoria

77.

A patient asks about the difference between immediate-release and extended-release opioid formulations. What is the nurse's best explanation?

a)

A) "Extended-release medications are stronger than immediate-release"

b)

B) "Extended-release medications provide longer-lasting pain relief"

c)

"Immediate-release medications have fewer side effects"

d)

 "There is no significant difference between the two"

78.

Which routes of administration are appropriate for morphine?

a)

Oral (PO)

b)

Intravenous (IV)

c)

Subcutaneous (SubQ)

d)

Intramuscular (IM)

e)

Rectal

79.

A patient is prescribed naloxone (Narcan) for home use. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?

a)

I can use this to treat my chronic pain

b)

This medication will help me sleep better

c)

I should use this if someone has an opioid overdose

d)

This medication prevents opioid addiction

80.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received naloxone for opioid overdose. What is the most important follow-up assessment?

a)

Blood pressure monitoring

b)

Continuous respiratory monitoring

c)

Neurological assessment

d)

Cardiac rhythm monitoring

81.

A patient taking tramadol asks why the dose is lower than other opioids. What is the nurse's best response?

a)

Tramadol is a newer medication with fewer side effects

b)

Tramadol has a different potency compared to other opioids

c)

Tramadol is only used for mild pain

d)

Tramadol works differently than other pain medications

82.

Which assessment findings would indicate opioid-induced adverse effects?

a)

Constipation

b)

Respiratory rate of 8/min

c)

Sedation

d)

Urinary retention

e)

Hypertension

83.

A patient is prescribed sumatriptan for migraine headaches. Which assessment is most important before administration?

a)

Pain level assessment

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Neurological assessment

d)

Respiratory rate

84.

The mechanism of action for triptans in treating migraines involves:

a)

Blocking pain receptors in the brain

b)

Reducing inflammation in blood vessels

c)

Binding to serotonin receptors and causing vasoconstriction

d)

Increasing endorphin production

85.

A patient taking methadone asks about stopping the medication. What is the nurse's most important response?

a)

You can stop taking it anytime you want

b)

Methadone should be discontinued gradually under medical supervision

c)

You should switch to a different opioid first

d)

Methadone is safe to stop immediately

86.

A patient received naloxone 0.4 mg IV for opioid overdose. After 30 minutes, the patient becomes drowsy again. What should the nurse do?

a)

Increase the oxygen flow rate

b)

Prepare to administer another dose of naloxone

c)

Administer a stimulant medication

d)

Continue monitoring without intervention

87.

Which opioid is primarily used to help treat opioid withdrawal symptoms?

a)

Morphine

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Methadone

d)

Codeine

88.

A patient taking hydrocodone with acetaminophen (Vicodin) asks about the combination. The nurse's best explanation is:

a)

 "The combination reduces the risk of addiction"

b)

 "Acetaminophen enhances the pain-relieving effects"

c)

 "The combination reduces side effects"

d)

"Acetaminophen prevents liver damage"

89.

Which precautions should the nurse implement for a patient taking sumatriptan?

a)

Fall precautions due to dizziness

b)

Blood pressure monitoring

c)

Cardiac monitoring

d)

Respiratory monitoring

e)

Assessment for serotonin interactions

90.

A patient asks about the difference between opioid agonists and antagonists. What is the nurse's best explanation?

a)

Agonists are stronger than antagonists

b)

Agonists activate opioid receptors while antagonists block them

c)

Antagonists are used for chronic pain while agonists are for acute pain

d)

There is no significant difference between the two

91.

The nurse is teaching a patient about fentanyl patches. Which statement requires further teaching?

a)

I should apply the patch to clean, dry skin

b)

I can cut the patch in half if I need a smaller dose

c)

I should rotate the application sites

d)

I should dispose of used patches safely

92.

Which opioid receptor is primarily responsible for analgesia and respiratory depression?

a)

Kappa receptors

b)

Mu receptors

c)

Delta receptors

d)

Sigma receptors

93.

A patient with chronic pain asks about the risk of opioid dependence. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?

a)

Dependence only occurs with illegal drug use

b)

Taking opioids as prescribed eliminates the risk of dependence

c)

Physical dependence can occur even when taking medication as prescribed

d)

Dependence is not a concern with prescription opioids

94.

Which symptoms are associated with migraine headaches? (Select all that

apply)


a)

 Severe head pain

b)

GI disturbances

c)

 Mood alterations

d)

Photophobia

e)

Muscle weakness

95.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which routes of administration are appropriate for local anesthetics?

a)

Topical

b)

Intramuscular injection

c)

 Intravenous

d)

Eye drops

e)

Oral tablets

96.

 The nurse is caring for a patient who received lidocaine for a dental procedure. Which assessment finding indicates systemic absorption?


a)

Localized numbness at the injection site

b)

Mild burning sensation at the site

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias

d)

Temporary loss of taste

97.

A patient receiving propofol develops bradycardia and hypotension. What is the nurse's FIRST action?


a)

 Increase the propofol infusion rate

b)

Administer atropine

c)

Stop the propofol infusion

d)

Place the patient in Trendelenburg position

98.

Which are appropriate uses for local anesthetics? (Select all that apply)


a)

Topical application for minor skin procedures

b)

Infiltration for suturing wounds

c)

 Nerve blocks for regional anesthesia

d)

Inducing general anesthesia

e)

 Epidural anesthesia for labor and delivery

99.

The nurse is preparing to administer a non-barbiturate general anesthetic.

Which safety measures should be implemented? (Select all that apply)


a)

Have emergency airway equipment available

b)

Continuously monitor vital signs

c)

 Ensure patient has eaten within 2 hours

d)

Avoid concurrent CNS depressants

e)

Monitor for signs of malignant hyperthermia

100.

For which clinical scenarios would neuromuscular blocking agents be

indicated? (Select all that apply)


a)

Mechanical ventilation in critically ill patients

b)

 Rapid sequence intubation

c)

Pain management for chronic conditions

d)

Surgical procedures requiring muscle relaxation

e)

Sedation for diagnostic procedures

101.

Which conditions would warrant the use of centrally acting muscle

relaxants? (Select all that apply)

a)

Muscle spasticity

b)

Spinal cord injuries

c)

 Short-term musculoskeletal conditions

d)

Malignant hyperthermia

e)

Chronic pain syndrome

102.

Which medications are not contraindicated during pregnancy?


a)

Acetaminophen

b)

 Ibuprofen

c)

Etanercept

d)

 Colchicine

e)

Aspirin (high dose)

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