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Urinary System - Nephron Function and GFR

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) reabsorb?

a)

sodium, chlorine, glucose, amino acids, water (~65-70%)

b)

urea, creatinine, and uric acid only

c)

bile salts and vitamin B12

d)

only potassium and phosphate

2.

What does the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) secrete?

a)

hydrogen, Ammonium toxins, drugs

b)

glucose, amino acids, water

c)

bile, urea, creatinine

d)

insulin, glucagon, somatostatin

3.

Which limb of the Loop of Henle reabsorbs water?

a)

Descending limb

b)

Ascending limb

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

4.

Which limb of the Loop of Henle reabsorbs sodium and chlorine (not water)?

a)

Ascending limb

b)

Descending limb

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

5.

What does the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) reabsorb?

a)

sodium (via aldosterone), calcium (via PTH)

b)

glucose and amino acids

c)

bicarbonate and hydrogen ions

d)

urea and creatinine

6.

What does the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) secrete?

a)

potassium, hydrogen

b)

sodium, chloride

c)

glucose, amino acids

d)

bicarbonate, calcium

7.

What does the Collecting Duct reabsorb?

a)

Water (via ADH), sodium (via aldosterone)

b)

Glucose and amino acids

c)

Bicarbonate and potassium

d)

Urea and creatinine

8.

What does the Collecting Duct secrete?

a)

potassium, hydrogen

b)

sodium, chloride

c)

glucose, amino acids

d)

calcium, phosphate

9.

Which pressure pushes fluid out of the glomerulus as the main force?

a)

Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure (GHP)

b)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure (BCOP)

c)

Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure (CHP)

d)

Interstitial Fluid Pressure (IFP)

10.

Which pressure opposes Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure (GHP)?

a)

Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure (CHP)

b)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure (BCOP)

c)

Atmospheric Pressure

d)

Pulmonary Hydrostatic Pressure

11.

Which pressure pulls fluid back into capillaries in the glomerulus?

a)

Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure (BCOP)

b)

Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure (GHP)

c)

Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure (CHP)

d)

Interstitial Fluid Pressure (IFP)

12.

What happens to reabsorption when Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) increases?

a)

Less time for reabsorption → more water, nutrients, and ions lost

b)

More time for reabsorption → less water, nutrients, and ions lost

c)

No change in reabsorption

d)

Reabsorption stops completely

13.

What happens to reabsorption when Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) decreases?

a)

More time for reabsorption → waste may be retained

b)

Less time for reabsorption → more waste excreted

c)

No change in reabsorption

d)

Reabsorption stops completely

14.

What is the effect of the myogenic mechanism on glomerular filtration rate when blood pressure increases?

a)

Constriction of afferent arteriole leads to decreased glomerular filtration rate

b)

Dilation of afferent arteriole leads to increased glomerular filtration rate

c)

Constriction of efferent arteriole leads to increased glomerular filtration rate

d)

Dilation of efferent arteriole leads to decreased glomerular filtration rate

15.

What is the primary function of diuretics?

a)

Increase urine output by blocking sodium/water reabsorption

b)

Decrease heart rate by blocking beta receptors

c)

Increase blood glucose by stimulating insulin release

d)

Suppress immune response by inhibiting T-cells

16.

Which of the following is NOT found in the filtrate in nephron tubules?

a)

Water

b)

Salts

c)

Glucose

d)

Proteins

17.

What are the main components found in blood?

a)

Proteins, cells, nutrients, wastes

b)

Bones, muscles, nerves, skin

c)

Air, water, minerals, vitamins

d)

Enzymes, hormones, cartilage, fat

18.

What are the main components found in ureter/bladder (urine)?

a)

Water, urea, creatinine, electrolytes

b)

Glucose, proteins, red blood cells, platelets

c)

Bile salts, fatty acids, enzymes, vitamins

d)

Hemoglobin, white blood cells, hormones, starch

19.

Which hormone retains sodium and increases blood pressure and volume?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Glucagon

20.

What does Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) retain?

a)

Water

b)

Glucose

c)

Sodium

d)

Amino acids

21.

Which hormone adds aquaporins to collecting duct cells and increases collecting duct permeability to water?

a)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

22.

What is the function of renin in the kidney?

a)

Starts Renin Angiotensin-Aldosterone System pathway, releases aldosterone and ADH, retains sodium and water, increases BP

b)

Breaks down proteins in the nephron

c)

Directly filters blood in the glomerulus

d)

Produces erythropoietin for red blood cell formation

23.

Acidosis is caused by:

a)

Too much hydrogen

b)

Too much hydrogen carbonate

c)

Too little hydrogen

d)

Too little hydrogen carbonate

24.

Alkalosis is caused by too much ________.

a)

hydrogen carbonate

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

lactic acid

d)

ammonia

25.

Buffers help resist changes in ________.

a)

pH

b)

temperature

c)

pressure

d)

volume

26.

What percentage of body fluid is intracellular fluid (ICF)?

a)

65%

b)

80%

c)

35%

d)

50%

27.

What percentage of body fluid is extracellular fluid (ECF)?

a)

35%

b)

20%

c)

50%

d)

60%

28.

What is the cause of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells (no insulin)

c)

Excessive urination

d)

ADH deficiency

29.

What is the cause of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Insulin resistance (cells don’t respond to insulin)

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

c)

ADH deficiency

d)

Increased blood osmolarity

30.

List two symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus.

a)

Polyuria (excess urine), polydipsia (thirst)

b)

Blurred vision and hearing loss

c)

Joint pain and skin rash

d)

Frequent headaches and nosebleeds

31.

What is the cause of Diabetes Insipidus?

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

ADH deficiency or insensitivity

c)

Kidney infection

d)

Increased blood osmolarity

32.

Symptoms of Diabetes Insipidus include excessive urination, dehydration, and very dilute urine, but blood glucose is _______.

a)

normal

b)

high

c)

low

d)

fluctuating

33.

What triggers the micturition reflex?

a)

Increased blood osmolarity

b)

Stretch of bladder walls

c)

Decreased blood volume

d)

Insulin resistance

34.

Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection that can cause which of the following symptoms?

a)

Fever and back pain

b)

Excessive urination

c)

High blood glucose

d)

Increased blood osmolarity

35.

Azotemia is defined as elevated _______ wastes in blood.

a)

nitrogenous

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

protein

36.

Thirst is triggered by increased blood osmolarity or decreased blood volume/BP.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Short-term inhibition of thirst is caused by _______ of mouth/throat.

a)

moistening

b)

drying

c)

warming

d)

cooling

38.

What are the symptoms of high sodium (hypernatremia)?

a)

Thirst, confusion, neuromuscular irritability

b)

Bradycardia, weight loss, hair growth

c)

Night sweats, joint pain, rash

d)

Low blood pressure, dry cough, blurred vision

39.

What hormone regulates sodium by retaining Na+?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Glucagon

40.

What are the symptoms of low sodium (hyponatremia)?

a)

Weakness, headache, nausea, confusion

b)

Increased thirst, dry mouth, rapid heartbeat

c)

Fever, chills, cough, sore throat

d)

Joint pain, rash, blurred vision

41.

What are the symptoms of high calcium (hypercalcemia)?

a)

Muscle weakness, kidney stones, arrhythmia

b)

Frequent nosebleeds, joint swelling, blurred vision

c)

Dry cough, itchy skin, hair loss

d)

Night sweats, frequent sneezing, sore throat

42.

What are the symptoms of low calcium (hypocalcemia)?

a)

Muscle spasms, tetany, convulsions

b)

Increased appetite and weight gain

c)

Excessive thirst and urination

d)

High blood pressure

43.

Which hormone increases calcium levels in the blood?

a)

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

b)

Insulin

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Aldosterone

44.

What are the symptoms of high potassium (hyperkalemia)?

a)

Arrhythmia, muscle weakness

b)

Bradycardia, dry skin

c)

Polyuria, weight gain

d)

Jaundice, blurred vision

45.

What are the symptoms of low potassium (hypokalemia)?

a)

Muscle cramps, fatigue, heart irregularities

b)

Increased appetite, weight gain, excessive sweating

c)

Blurred vision, frequent urination, dry mouth

d)

Joint pain, skin rash, hair loss

46.

Which hormone regulates potassium by secreting K+?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Vasopressin

47.

Which type of immunity is the 1st and 2nd line of defense?

a)

Innate Immunity (nonspecific)

b)

Adaptive Immunity (specific)

c)

Passive Immunity

d)

Artificial Immunity

48.

Which type of immunity involves B cells producing antibodies?

a)

Adaptive Immunity (specific)

b)

Innate Immunity (nonspecific)

c)

Passive Immunity

d)

Cell-mediated Immunity

49.

What is the main function of the respiratory system?

a)

Gas exchange – O2 in, CO2 out

b)

Digestion of food

c)

Production of hormones

d)

Regulation of body temperature

50.

Which zone of the respiratory system includes the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles?

a)

Conducting Zone

b)

Respiratory Zone

c)

Exchange Zone

d)

Alveolar Zone

51.

What is the main function of the conducting zone in the respiratory system?

a)

Filter, warm, and humidify air; conduct air to lungs

b)

Exchange gases between air and blood

c)

Produce sound for speech

d)

Absorb nutrients from inhaled air

52.

Which zone of the respiratory system is responsible for the site of gas exchange?

a)

Respiratory Zone

b)

Conducting Zone

c)

Transitional Zone

d)

Dead Space

53.

The respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli are included in which zone of the respiratory system?

a)

Respiratory Zone

b)

Conducting Zone

c)

Transitional Zone

d)

Dead Space Zone

54.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nose?

a)

Filter air

b)

Warm and humidify air

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Smell detection

55.

Name the bones that make up the hard palate.

a)

Maxilla & palatine bones

b)

Zygomatic & temporal bones

c)

Frontal & occipital bones

d)

Mandible & vomer bones

56.

What is the function of the cilia in the nose?

a)

Move mucus and trapped debris upward to pharynx for swallowing

b)

Produce sound for speech

c)

Detect odors directly

d)

Secrete digestive enzymes

57.

Which part of the respiratory tract includes the nose, nasal cavity, and pharynx?

a)

Upper Respiratory Tract

b)

Lower Respiratory Tract

c)

Alveoli

d)

Bronchioles

58.

Which part of the respiratory tract includes the larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs?

a)

Lower Respiratory Tract

b)

Upper Respiratory Tract

c)

Digestive Tract

d)

Circulatory System

59.

What is the function of the pharynx?

a)

Passageway for air and food

b)

Production of digestive enzymes

c)

Absorption of nutrients

d)

Storage of bile

60.

Which section of the pharynx is for air only?

a)

Nasopharynx

b)

Oropharynx

c)

Laryngopharynx

d)

Trachea

61.

Which sections of the pharynx are for both air and food?

a)

Nasopharynx

b)

Oropharynx & Laryngopharynx

c)

Trachea

d)

Bronchi

62.

What is the function of the larynx (voice box)?

a)

Produces sound, routes air/food, protects airway

b)

Regulates blood pressure, filters toxins, stores bile

c)

Absorbs nutrients, produces insulin, stores vitamins

d)

Pumps blood, oxygenates tissues, removes carbon dioxide

63.

Where is the epiglottis located?

a)

Above the larynx

b)

Below the diaphragm

c)

Inside the stomach

d)

In the nasal cavity

64.

What is the function of the epiglottis?

a)

Covers glottis during swallowing to prevent aspiration

b)

Produces sound during speech

c)

Absorbs nutrients from food

d)

Regulates blood flow to the brain

65.

What is the function of the trachea (windpipe)?

a)

Conducts air to bronchi

b)

Pumps blood to the lungs

c)

Absorbs nutrients from food

d)

Produces digestive enzymes

66.

Where is the trachea located in relation to the esophagus?

a)

Anterior to esophagus

b)

Posterior to esophagus

c)

Lateral to esophagus

d)

Inferior to esophagus

67.

What is the function of the trachealis muscle?

a)

Allows for tracheal diameter to change during coughing/swallowing

b)

Produces mucus to trap dust particles

c)

Contracts to move vocal cords

d)

Secretes surfactant to reduce surface tension

68.

What is the function of the tracheal fork (carina)?

a)

Divides trachea into right and left bronchi; sensitive to irritants

b)

Produces mucus to trap dust particles

c)

Contracts to aid in swallowing

d)

Filters air entering the lungs

69.

Why is a tracheotomy performed?

a)

Emergency airway when upper airway is blocked

b)

To treat a broken leg

c)

To improve vision

d)

To reduce high blood pressure

70.

What is intubation?

a)

Inserting tube through mouth/nose into trachea to keep airway open

b)

Removing a tube from the trachea

c)

Giving medication through an IV

d)

Measuring blood pressure

71.

Where are the lungs located?

a)

Thoracic cavity

b)

Abdominal cavity

c)

Pelvic cavity

d)

Cranial cavity

72.

What is the hilus of the lung?

a)

Medial area where bronchi, blood vessels, and nerves enter lung

b)

Outer surface of the lung exposed to the pleura

c)

Lower tip of the lung resting on the diaphragm

d)

Uppermost part of the lung near the clavicle

73.

How many lobes does the right lung have?

a)

3 lobes

b)

2 lobes

c)

4 lobes

d)

1 lobe

74.

How many lobes does the left lung have?

a)

2 lobes + cardiac notch

b)

3 lobes

c)

1 lobe

d)

4 lobes

75.

Which lung is larger?

a)

Right lung

b)

Left lung

c)

Middle lung

d)

Upper lung

76.

Which lung is smaller?

a)

Left lung

b)

Right lung

c)

Both lungs are equal

d)

None of the above

77.

What is the function of the bronchial tree?

a)

Distributes air to lungs

b)

Produces digestive enzymes

c)

Pumps blood to the body

d)

Filters waste from the blood

78.

Aspirated objects are more likely to enter which bronchus?

a)

Right bronchus

b)

Left bronchus

c)

Middle bronchus

d)

Superior bronchus

79.

What is the main function of alveoli?

a)

Produce surfactant

b)

Site of gas exchange

c)

Control breathing rate

d)

Store oxygen

80.

What does surfactant do in the alveoli?

a)

Increases blood flow speed

b)

Reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse

c)

Increases oxygen storage

d)

Stimulates diaphragm contraction

81.

Newborns may lack surfactant, which can lead to ________.

a)

respiratory distress

b)

jaundice

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

congenital heart defect

82.

The blood flow speed in alveoli is ________ enough to allow full gas exchange.

a)

slow

b)

fast

c)

irregular

d)

turbulent

83.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the pleura?

a)

Reduce friction

b)

Create pressure gradient for lung inflation

c)

Compartmentalize lungs

d)

Increase oxygen binding to hemoglobin

84.

The main muscle of inspiration is the ________.

a)

diaphragm

b)

biceps

c)

trapezius

d)

rectus abdominis

85.

Which of the following are accessory muscles of breathing?

a)

SCM, scalenes, external intercostals, abdominals, internal intercostals

b)

Diaphragm only

c)

Heart and liver

d)

Triceps and biceps

86.

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

a)

Rapid breathing

b)

Holding breath while straining (e.g., during lifting or defecation)

c)

Deep inhalation

d)

Forced expiration

87.

Neural control of breathing is managed by the ________ and ________.

a)

medulla and pons

b)

cerebellum and hypothalamus

c)

thalamus and hippocampus

d)

frontal lobe and occipital lobe

88.

Voluntary control of breathing is managed by the ________ cortex.

a)

motor

b)

visual

c)

auditory

d)

somatosensory

89.

Hyperventilation leads to ________ alkalosis due to decreased ________.

a)

respiratory, CO₂

b)

metabolic, HCO₃⁻

c)

respiratory, O₂

d)

metabolic, CO₂

90.

During inspiration, ______ volume leads to ______ pressure, causing air to move in.

a)

increased; decreased

b)

decreased; increased

c)

decreased; decreased

d)

increased; increased

91.

During expiration, ______ volume leads to ______ pressure, causing air to move out.

a)

decreased; increased

b)

increased; decreased

c)

increased; increased

d)

decreased; decreased

92.

Which of the following best describes inspiration?

a)

Passive (diaphragm relaxes)

b)

Active (diaphragm contracts)

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

93.

Which of the following best describes expiration?

a)

Passive (diaphragm relaxes), unless forced

b)

Active (diaphragm contracts)

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

94.

In pneumothorax, air enters the ______ space, causing the lung to collapse.

a)

pleural

b)

pericardial

c)

abdominal

d)

peritoneal

95.

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of pneumothorax?

a)

Shortness of breath

b)

Chest pain

c)

Increased breath sounds

d)

Decreased breath sounds

96.

Alveolar air has less ______ and more ______ than atmospheric air.

a)

O2; CO2

b)

CO2; O2

c)

N2; O2

d)

O2; N2

97.

Which gas diffuses easier across the respiratory membrane?

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

Both diffuse equally

d)

Neither

98.

Inhalation occurs when intrapulmonary pressure is ______ than atmospheric pressure.

a)

less

b)

greater

c)

equal to

d)

much higher

99.

Exhalation occurs when intrapulmonary pressure is ______ than atmospheric pressure.

a)

greater

b)

less

c)

equal

d)

lower

100.

What happens to oxygen unloading when ambient PO2 is lower?

a)

More unloading occurs when ambient PO2 is lower.

b)

Less unloading occurs when ambient PO2 is lower.

c)

Oxygen unloading is unaffected by ambient PO2.

d)

Oxygen loading increases when ambient PO2 is lower.