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Female Reproductive System Study Guide

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are considered external genitalia in the female reproductive system?

a)

Labia majora/minora, clitoris, vestibule

b)

Vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries

c)

Hormonal cycling, ovulation, menstruation

d)

Estrogen, progesterone, LH, FSH, androgens

2.

Which structures are classified as internal structures of the female reproductive system?

a)

Labia majora/minora, clitoris, vestibule

b)

Vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries

c)

Hormonal cycling, ovulation, menstruation

d)

Estrogen, progesterone, LH, FSH, androgens

3.

What is the function of the female reproductive system as listed in the study guide?

a)

Hormonal cycling, ovulation, menstruation

b)

Digestion and absorption of nutrients

c)

Pumping blood throughout the body

d)

Filtering waste from the blood

4.

What is the mnemonic for remembering the main female reproductive hormones?

a)

Every Pretty Lady Feels Amazing

b)

Every Good Boy Deserves Fruit

c)

Silly Monkeys Jump High

d)

Please Let Elephants Fly

5.

Fill in the blank: The hormone represented by 'E' in the mnemonic 'Every Pretty Lady Feels Amazing' is _____

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

6.

Fill in the blank: The hormone represented by 'P' in the mnemonic 'Every Pretty Lady Feels Amazing' is _____

a)

Progesterone

b)

Prolactin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Testosterone

7.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an intervention for dysmenorrhea?

a)

Heat therapy

b)

NSAIDs before pain starts

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Hormonal contraceptives

e)

Exercise

8.

Dysmenorrhea is best described as:

a)

Cramping pain with menstruation

b)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

c)

Absence of menstruation

d)

Irregular menstrual cycles

9.

What does the mnemonic 'NESTS' stand for in the context of amenorrhea?

a)

NSAIDs, Exercise, Support, Temperature (heat), Sex hormones (contraceptives)

b)

Nutrition, Exercise, Sleep, Therapy, Support

c)

NSAIDs, Estrogen, Sugar, Temperature, Support

d)

Nutrition, Estrogen, Support, Therapy, Sex hormones

10.

Which of the following is the first thing to rule out in a patient presenting with amenorrhea?

a)

Osteopenia

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Nutrition deficiency

d)

Trauma

11.

Fill in the blank: Amenorrhea is defined as having ___ period.

a)

no

b)

irregular

c)

short

d)

heavy

12.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the PLISSIT model for sexual history?

a)

A) Permission

b)

B) Limited Information

c)

C) Specific Suggestions

d)

D) Intensive Therapy

e)

E) Sexual Orientation

13.

When taking a health and sexual history, which of the following should be included?

a)

Menstrual and pregnancy history

b)

Discomfort, discharge, STIs

c)

Chronic illness, meds, disabilities

d)

All of the above

14.

When considering LGBTQ+ & cultural considerations, it is important to avoid assumptions and ask about gender, pronouns, and sexual practices.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

List two considerations to keep in mind for LGBTQ+ & cultural considerations.

a)

Genital mutilation, Disability, Trauma, Elderly needs (any two)

b)

Dietary preferences, Eye color, Height, Shoe size

c)

Favorite music, Hobbies, Pet ownership, Travel history

d)

Preferred sports, Favorite movies, Car ownership, Birth month

16.

At what age should pelvic and breast exams start, or when should they be initiated?

a)

At age 21 or when sexually active

b)

At age 16 regardless of sexual activity

c)

At age 30 or after first childbirth

d)

At age 18 only if symptoms appear

17.

Which of the following should a patient do to prepare for a pelvic and breast exam?

a)

Eat a light meal

b)

Empty bladder

c)

Fast for 12 hours

d)

Drink water

18.

Which procedures are included in a pelvic and breast exam? Select all that apply.

a)

Speculum & pap smear

b)

Bimanual & rectal palpation

c)

Blood test

d)

Ultrasound

19.

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic method listed for pelvic and breast exams?

a)

Pap smear

b)

Biopsy

c)

Colposcopy

d)

MRI

20.

Fill in the blank: Imaging methods for diagnostics include ________, X-ray, and cystography.

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Endoscopy

d)

Colonoscopy

21.

Combined Oral Contraceptives (COCs) inhibit ________.

a)

ovulation

b)

fertilization

c)

implantation

d)

menstruation

22.

Which of the following is a benefit (pro) of Combined Oral Contraceptives (COCs)?

a)

Increases DVT risk

b)

Regulates cycles and clears acne

c)

Causes hypertension

d)

Causes migraines with aura

23.

Which of the following is a contraindication for Combined Oral Contraceptives (COCs)?

a)

Age under 21

b)

Smoking over age 35

c)

Breastfeeding

d)

Acne

24.

Progestin-Only Pills (Mini Pills) are recommended for which group?

a)

Women with estrogen intolerance

b)

Women with regular cycles

c)

Women over 50

d)

Women with migraines

25.

Progestin-Only Pills (Mini Pills) must be taken at the same time daily.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following is an injectable contraceptive that requires monitoring of bone density?

a)

Nexplanon

b)

Depo-Provera

c)

Patch

d)

Ring

27.

Which contraceptive method is effective for 3 years?

a)

Depo-Provera

b)

Patch

c)

Nexplanon

d)

Ring

28.

How often should the Patch or Ring contraceptive be used?

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly or monthly

c)

Every 3 years

d)

Every 12 weeks

29.

Name two types of IUDs mentioned in the worksheet.

a)

Hormonal and copper IUDs

b)

Barrier and sponge IUDs

c)

Foam and jelly IUDs

d)

Patch and ring IUDs

30.

Which of the following is NOT a barrier method?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Condom

c)

Spermicide

d)

Patch

31.

Emergency contraception can be provided by which of the following methods?

a)

Pills or IUD after sex

b)

Patch

c)

Implant

d)

Diaphragm

32.

What does the mnemonic CHIPPER stand for in contraception?

a)

Condom, Hormone, Implant, Patch, Pill, Emergency, Ring

b)

Copper, Hormone, Injection, Patch, Pill, Emergency, Ring

c)

Condom, Hormone, Injection, Patch, Pill, Emergency, Rod

d)

Contraceptive, Hormone, Implant, Patch, Pill, Emergency, Ring

33.

Which type of abortion is defined as a natural loss?

a)

Spontaneous

b)

Habitual

c)

Induced

d)

Elective

34.

What should be given to Rh-negative women within 72 hours after abortion?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Rhogam

c)

Iron supplements

d)

Painkillers

35.

Primary infertility is defined as ________.

a)

never conceived

b)

conceived once but not again

c)

conceived twice but miscarried

d)

conceived with medical assistance only

36.

Secondary infertility refers to a woman who ________.

a)

had a previous pregnancy but cannot conceive now

b)

has never been pregnant before

c)

can conceive but cannot carry to term

d)

is currently pregnant

37.

What are the causes of infertility?

a)

Ovarian, uterine, tubal, male

b)

Only ovarian

c)

Only male

d)

Only uterine

38.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for infertility?

a)

IVF

b)

GIFT

c)

Clomiphene

d)

NSAIDs

39.

Fill in the blank: The mnemonic CLEMOTS stands for Clomid, Lifestyle, Ovulation, Metformin, Education, Tubes, _____.

a)

Sperm

b)

Serum

c)

Sugar

d)

Sleep

40.

What is the leading 1st trimester cause of death in pregnancy?

a)

Ectopic pregnancy

b)

Gestational diabetes

c)

Pre-eclampsia

d)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

41.

Which of the following is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

a)

PID

b)

IUD

c)

Prior ectopic

d)

All of the above

42.

Fill in the blank: Methotrexate treatment for ectopic pregnancy requires avoiding _____ and NSAIDs.

a)

folic acid

b)

vitamin C

c)

iron supplements

d)

calcium

43.

The mnemonic BE SAFE for ectopic pregnancy stands for Bleeding, Ectopic, Shock, Avoid folic acid/NSAIDs, Fertility concern, and _____?

a)

Emotional support

b)

Early delivery

c)

Electrolyte balance

d)

Endometrial biopsy

44.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of perimenopause?

a)

Irregular cycles

b)

Hot flashes

c)

Increased fertility

d)

Vaginal dryness

45.

Non-hormonal treatments for menopause include:

a)

Fans

b)

SSRIs

c)

Calcium/vitamin D

d)

All of the above

46.

What does the mnemonic HERS stand for in relation to hormonal therapy?

a)

Hot flashes, Estrogen loss, Risks, Support

b)

Headache, Edema, Rash, Seizures

c)

Hormones, Estrogen, Receptors, Symptoms

d)

Hot flashes, Estrogen, Rash, Support

47.

What is the normal vaginal pH range?

a)

3.8–4.5

b)

5.0–6.0

c)

6.5–7.5

d)

2.0–3.0

48.

A decrease in estrogen leads to (a)   pH and (b)   risk of infections.

Choose from the below words

increased

decreased

increased

decreased

49.

Which type of vaginal infection is characterized by itching and thick white discharge?

a)

Candidiasis

b)

BV

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Gonorrhea

50.

Which vaginal infection is associated with a fishy smell and gray discharge with pH >4.5 and a positive whiff test?

a)

BV (Bacterial Vaginosis)

b)

Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Atrophic Vaginitis

51.

What does the mnemonic ITCH stand for in nursing care for vaginal infections?

a)

Irritation, Thick/Thin discharge, Contact tracing, Hygiene

b)

Itching, Temperature, Cramps, Healing

c)

Infection, Tenderness, Crusting, Hemorrhage

d)

Irritation, Tearing, Chills, Hematuria

52.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended nursing intervention for vaginal infections?

a)

Douche regularly

b)

No douching unless prescribed

c)

Partner treatment

d)

Medication adherence

53.

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is most commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Gonorrhea and chlamydia

b)

Candida

c)

Trichomonas

d)

Herpes simplex virus

54.

What is a key sign of PID on physical exam?

a)

Cervical motion tenderness

b)

Hepatomegaly

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Clubbing of fingers

55.

Which of the following is part of the treatment for PID?

a)

Doxycycline + ceftriaxone

b)

Amoxicillin only

c)

No antibiotics needed

d)

Antifungal therapy only

56.

What is the mnemonic SCAR used for?

a)

STI, Cervical pain, Antibiotics, Rest

b)

Surgery, Cancer, Antibiotics, Radiation

c)

Symptoms, Cure, Antibiotics, Rest

d)

STI, Cancer, Antibiotics, Rest

57.

Which of the following are symptoms of Fibroids (Leiomyomas)?

a)

Menorrhagia, pressure

b)

Painful periods, infertility

c)

Spotting, discharge

d)

Fluid-filled, may rupture

58.

Fill in the blank: The treatment for Fibroids (Leiomyomas) includes ________, hormones, and surgery.

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antifungals

59.

Endometriosis is characterized by endometrial tissue outside the ________.

a)

uterus

b)

ovary

c)

fallopian tube

d)

cervix

60.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Endometriosis?

a)

A) Painful periods

b)

B) Infertility

c)

C) Menorrhagia

d)

D) Endometrial tissue outside uterus

61.

PCOS is treated with which of the following?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Weight loss, metformin, clomiphene

c)

Surgery

d)

Remove + biopsy

62.

Fill in the blank: Ovarian cysts are ________-filled and may rupture.

a)

Fluid

b)

Air

c)

Blood

d)

Fat

63.

Ovarian cysts often resolve on their own.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which of the following is a symptom of Cervical Polyps?

a)

Menorrhagia

b)

Spotting, discharge

c)

Painful periods

d)

Insulin resistance

65.

Fill in the blank: The treatment for Cervical Polyps is ________ + biopsy.

a)

Remove

b)

Observe

c)

Medicate

d)

Irrigate

66.

Which virus is related to cervical cancer?

a)

HPV

b)

HIV

c)

EBV

d)

CMV

67.

What is the recommended prevention method for cervical cancer?

a)

Mammogram

b)

Vaccine and Pap smear

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Surgery

68.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of breast cancer?

a)

A) Lump

b)

B) Nipple changes

c)

C) Peau d’orange

d)

D) Headache

69.

At what age should yearly mammogram screening for breast cancer begin?

a)

30

b)

35

c)

40

d)

45

70.

Fill in the blank: After breast cancer surgery, no BP should be taken on the ______ arm.

a)

affected

b)

unaffected

c)

dominant

d)

left

71.

Which medication should be monitored for DVT in breast cancer patients?

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Tamsulosin

c)

Finasteride

d)

TURP

72.

The mnemonic LUMPED for breast cancer stands for Lump, Unilateral, Mammogram, Pain, Edema, and ______.

a)

Dimpling

b)

Discharge

c)

Depression

d)

Discoloration

73.

Which of the following is a common symptom of BPH?

a)

Retention

b)

Fever

c)

Rash

d)

Cough

74.

Which medications are used to treat BPH?

a)

Tamoxifen and Chemotherapy

b)

Tamsulosin and Finasteride

c)

Vaccine and Pap smear

d)

Radiation and Surgery

75.

The mnemonic DRIBBLE for BPH includes Decreased stream, Retention, Infection risk, Bladder distention, BLEeding, and ______ PSA.

a)

Elevated

b)

Decreased

c)

Normal

d)

Absent

76.

What are the symptoms of Prostatitis?

a)

Painful urination, fever

b)

Blurred vision, sneezing

c)

Hair loss, brittle nails

d)

Swollen ankles, chest pain

77.

What is the recommended treatment for Prostatitis?

a)

Give antibiotics, fluids

b)

Surgery only

c)

Painkillers only

d)

No treatment needed

78.

Testicular Torsion: Sudden pain is an ________.

a)

emergency

b)

infection

c)

allergy

d)

injury

79.

How soon should surgery be performed for Testicular Torsion?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

80.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of ED?

a)

Vascular

b)

Psychological

c)

Medications

d)

Bacterial infection

81.

True or False: Viagra can be used with nitrates for ED treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What does the mnemonic SHAME stand for in the context of ED?

a)

Smoking, HTN, Alcohol, Meds, Emotions

b)

Sugar, Heart, Anxiety, Mood, Exercise

c)

Sleep, Health, Activity, Medication, Environment

d)

Stress, Hormones, Age, Metabolism, Endurance

83.

What are the symptoms of Prostate cancer?

a)

Urinary symptoms, metastasis

b)

Severe headaches and vision loss

c)

Skin rashes and itching

d)

Frequent nosebleeds

84.

At what age range is a painless lump in the testicle most concerning for cancer?

a)

15–40 years

b)

0–10 years

c)

41–60 years

d)

Above 60 years

85.

What does TSE stand for and how often should it be performed?

a)

Testicular Self-Examination, monthly

b)

Thyroid Screening Exam, yearly

c)

Tendon Strength Evaluation, weekly

d)

Total Skin Examination, daily

86.

In an inclusive assessment, what should you ask regarding patient identity?

a)

Ask pronouns, name

b)

Ask about medical history only

c)

Ask about favorite color

d)

Ask about dietary preferences

87.

What type of terms should be used in an inclusive assessment?

a)

Neutral terms (partner, chest)

b)

Gendered terms (husband, wife)

c)

Medical jargon only

d)

Slang terms

88.

What are some risks associated with gender-affirming care? (List any two)

a)

Increased suicide, bullying, HIV, trauma; Stigma as a barrier to care

b)

Improved mental health, increased social support; Enhanced self-esteem

c)

Decreased access to healthcare; Reduced quality of life

d)

Lower rates of discrimination; Increased academic performance

89.

Which of the following may be affected by gender-affirming care?

a)

Fertility

b)

Vision

c)

Hearing

d)

Appetite

90.

What should still be screened based on anatomy in gender-affirming care?

a)

Screenings should still be based on anatomy.

b)

Screenings should be skipped entirely.

c)

Screenings should be based only on gender identity.

d)

Screenings should be based on age alone.

91.

What does the mnemonic RESPECT stand for in gender-affirming care? Match each letter to its meaning:

a)

Respect name/pronouns

1.

R

b)

Educate staff

2.

E

c)

Safe environment

3.

S

d)

Partner-inclusive

4.

P

e)

Emotional support

5.

E

92.

Stigma can be a barrier to care in gender-affirming care.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Name two interventions included in gender-affirming care.

a)

Hormones, surgery (FTM/MTF), fertility preservation, screening based on anatomy

b)

Antibiotics, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, blood transfusion

c)

Physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, acupuncture

d)

Dietary supplements, chiropractic care, aromatherapy, meditation