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Types of Epithelial Tissue

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Identify the type of epithelium

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Stratified squamous

d)

Pseudo stratified

2.

Esophagus epithelium is:

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Stratified squamous non keratinized

d)

Pseudo stratified

3.

What is the key function of Simple Squamous epithelium?

a)

Secretion

b)

Absorption

c)

Allows for rapid passage (diffusion and filtration) of substances; forms frictionless lining

d)

Protection

4.

Fill in the blank: The cells of Simple Cuboidal epithelium are _________?

a)

cube-shaped or spherical; central, large nucleus

b)

flat and thin; elongated nucleus

c)

column-shaped; nucleus near the base

d)

irregularly shaped; multiple nuclei

5.

Where is Simple Columnar epithelium typically found?

a)

Lining of the digestive tract

b)

Alveoli of lungs

c)

Skin surface

d)

Lining of blood vessels

6.

Which type of epithelial tissue has the thickest layers with deepest cells that are cuboidal/columnar and surface cells that are flattened (squamous)?

a)

Stratified Squamous

b)

Stratified Cuboidal

c)

Stratified Columnar

d)

Pseudostratified Columnar

7.

What is the main function of stratified cuboidal epithelium?

a)

Absorption

b)

Protection and some limited secretion

c)

Filtration

d)

Sensation

8.

Stratified columnar epithelium is found in small areas of the pharynx, male urethra, and lining of some large glandular ducts.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Fill in the blank: The keratinized type of stratified squamous epithelium is found in the _________.

a)

epidermis of the skin

b)

lining of the esophagus

c)

inner surface of the cheek

d)

lining of the vagina

10.

Which specialized epithelial tissue appears multilayered but is actually a single layer and is often ciliated in the trachea?

a)

Stratified Squamous

b)

Stratified Cuboidal

c)

Stratified Columnar

d)

Pseudostratified Columnar

11.

Identify the type of cartilage shown in diagram:

a)

Hyaline

b)

Fibrous

c)

Elastic

d)

Cornea

12.

Refer to the diagram of cartilage. Which type of cartilage is labeled as 'A'?

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

None of the above

13.

What is the appearance (gross) of Hyaline Cartilage?

a)

Glassy, smooth, translucent, bluish-white

b)

Opaque, rough, yellowish-brown

c)

Fibrous, dull, grayish-white

d)

Spongy, porous, reddish-pink

14.

Which type of cartilage contains thick bundles of Type I Collagen fibers?

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

d)

Articular cartilage

15.

Which type of cartilage is the most flexible and easily bends and recoils?

a)

Elastic cartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Articular cartilage

16.

What is the main fiber type found in Elastic Cartilage?

a)

Type II Collagen and abundant Elastic Fibers (Elastin)

b)

Type I Collagen only

c)

Reticular fibers only

d)

Type III Collagen and minimal Elastic Fibers

17.

Which type of cartilage usually has perichondrium present (except on articular surfaces)?

a)

A) Hyaline cartilage

b)

B) Elastic cartilage

c)

C) Fibrocartilage

18.

Where are chondrocytes located in elastic cartilage?

a)

Scattered in groups (isogenous groups)

b)

Located in lacunae between elastic fibers

c)

Arranged in rows/columns between collagen bundles

19.

Fill in the blank: The main function of fibrocartilage is _________.

a)

Shock absorption; resists heavy pressure and stretching forces

b)

Providing insulation and energy storage

c)

Facilitating rapid nerve impulse transmission

d)

Secreting hormones into the bloodstream

20.

Which type of cartilage is always present with perichondrium?

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

21.

Chondrocytes in fibrocartilage are arranged in rows or columns between collagen bundles.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which type of cartilage is found in the external ear (auricle)?

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

23.

Identify the type of cartilage shown in the image labeled 'Articular cartilage'.

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Calcified cartilage

24.

Identify the type of cartilage shown in the image labeled 'Ear pinna'.

a)

Elastic cartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Articular cartilage

25.

Identify the type of cartilage shown in the image labeled 'Intervertebral disc'.

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

d)

Articular cartilage

26.

Dilator pupillae & constrictor pupillae muscles of eye are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Surface ectoderm

27.

Which germ layer gives rise to the endothelium of blood and lymph vessels?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

28.

Red and white blood cells are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

29.

The spleen, kidney, and adrenal cortex are derivatives of the ____ germ layer.

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural crest

30.

Testes, epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

31.

Ovary, uterus, uterine tubes, and superior 1/3 of vagina are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural crest

32.

Microglia and Kupffer cells are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

33.

Hepatocytes are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Mesothelium

34.

Principal and oxyphil cells of parathyroid are derivatives of which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

35.

Parafollicular cells are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Neural crest

36.

Epithelial reticular cells of thymus are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

37.

Acinar and islet cells of pancreas are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Periderm

38.

Acinar cells of submandibular and sublingual glands are derivatives of which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

39.

Epithelial lining of gastrointestinal tract, trachea, bronchi, and lungs are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Neural crest

40.

Biliary apparatus is derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

41.

Urinary bladder, female urethra, and male urethra are derivatives of the ____ germ layer.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Neural crest

42.

Auditory tube and middle ear cavity are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

43.

Crypts of palatine tonsils are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Neural crest

44.

All neurons of the brain and spinal cord are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

45.

Retina, iris, epithelium, and ciliary body epithelium are derivatives of the ____ germ layer.

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Surface ectoderm

46.

Optic nerve (CN II), optic chiasma, and optic tract are derived from which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

47.

Dilator and sphincter pupillae muscles are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Surface ectoderm

48.

Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymocytes, tanycytes, and choroid plexus cells are derivatives of which germ layer?

a)

Mesoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Neuroectoderm

d)

Ectoderm

49.

Neurohypophysis and pineal gland are derived from the ____ germ layer.

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Surface ectoderm

50.

A patient report with sudden complete loss of vision on the left side field of both the eyes. What is the site of lesion?

a)

Left optic nerve

b)

Right optic tract

c)

Optic chiasma decussating fibers

d)

Visual cortex lesion

51.

Fill in the blank: The central area of each retina is called the _______.

a)

macula

b)

cornea

c)

iris

d)

sclera

52.

The image in the retina is inverted (upside down) which is converted to the upright image in the ________.

a)

cerebral visual cortex

b)

retina

c)

optic nerve

d)

lens

53.

The projection of the exterior light on the retina is _______ in each eye, i.e., structures on the temporal field are sensed by the nasal part of the retina, and structures on the nasal field are sensed by the temporal part of the retina.

a)

contralateral

b)

bilateral

c)

unilateral

d)

parallel

54.

After retinal stimulation, the fibers of the optic nerve (basically axons of the retinal ganglion cells) carry the signal from retina to the _______.

a)

optic chiasm

b)

lateral geniculate nucleus

c)

primary visual cortex

d)

superior colliculus

55.

The optic nerve is carrying 2 sets of fibers: those from the nasal side, and those from the temporal side of each retina, respectively.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Within the optic chiasm, the fibers of the 2 sides decussate and nasal fibres of each optic nerve cross over to the opposite side while the temporal fibres retain their side. The nasal fibres of the left retina will project to the ______ cerebral cortex.

a)

right

b)

left

c)

frontal

d)

occipital

57.

A person with section of the right optic tract will not be able to see things on the temporal side of the left eye and the nasal side of the right eye.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

After the optic tract ends in the lateral geniculate body in the Thalamus, optic radiations originate from there which project to the ______ cortex of each cerebral hemisphere.

a)

visual

b)

auditory

c)

motor

d)

olfactory

59.

There are two geniculocalcarine radiations on each hemisphere: the upper and the lower. Each one of them carries information of the opposite visual field in the tract. The upper tract will carry information of the ______ visual field, while the lower tract will carry information of the upper field.

a)

lower

b)

right

c)

central

d)

peripheral

60.

According to the passage, which tract carries information of the upper visual field?

a)

Upper tract

b)

Lower tract

61.

Refer to the diagram of the visual pathway and the visual field deficit illustrations. Which visual field defect is represented by a central scotoma?

a)

Central scotoma

b)

Monocular vision loss

c)

Bitemporal hemianopia

d)

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

e)

Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

62.

Refer to the diagram of the visual pathway and the visual field deficit illustrations. Which visual field defect is represented by complete vision loss in one eye?

a)

D) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

b)

C) Bitemporal hemianopia

c)

A) Central scotoma

d)

B) Monocular vision loss

e)

E) Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

63.

Refer to the diagram of the visual pathway and the visual field deficit illustrations. Which visual field defect is represented by loss of vision in the temporal half of both visual fields?

a)

Monocular vision loss

b)

Central scotoma

c)

Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

d)

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

e)

Bitemporal hemianopia

64.

Refer to the diagram of the visual pathway and the visual field deficit illustrations. Which visual field defect is represented by loss of vision in the same half of the visual field in both eyes?

a)

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

b)

Central scotoma

c)

Monocular vision loss

d)

Bitemporal hemianopia

e)

Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

65.

Which visual field defect is represented by loss of vision in the upper quadrant of the contralateral visual field?

a)

E) Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

b)

F) Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia

c)

K) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

66.

Refer to the diagram of the visual pathway and the visual field deficit illustrations. Which visual field defect is represented by loss of vision in the lower quadrant of the contralateral visual field?

a)

E) Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

b)

F) Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia

c)

K) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

67.

Refer to the diagram of the visual pathway and the visual field deficit illustrations. Which visual field defect is represented by contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing?

a)

Contralateral superior quadrantanopia

b)

Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia

c)

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

68.

Purkinje cells are found in:

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Midbrain

c)

Medulla

d)

Cerebellum

69.

Loss of vision in one eye is due to a defect in the _________

a)

Ipsilateral Optic Nerve

b)

Contralateral Optic Tract

c)

Optic Chiasma

d)

Lateral Geniculate Body

70.

Bitemporal Hemianopia is caused by a lesion at the _________

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Optic nerve

c)

Lateral geniculate body

d)

Occipital cortex

71.

Binassal hemianopia is associated with a defect in the _________

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Optic nerve

c)

Lateral geniculate body

d)

Occipital cortex

72.

Left homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion in the _________.

a)

Right optic tract / radiation

b)

Left optic nerve

c)

Right occipital lobe

d)

Left optic tract

73.

Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion in the _________

a)

Left optic tract / radiation

b)

Right optic nerve

c)

Left retina

d)

Right occipital pole

74.

Which layer of the cortex contains axons and dendrites (cell processes)?

a)

I – Molecular

b)

II – External granular

c)

IV – Internal granular

d)

VI – Multiform

75.

Which layer of the cortex contains densely packed stellate cells and small pyramidal cells?

a)

II – External granular

b)

I – Molecular

c)

IV – Internal granular

d)

VI – Multiform

76.

Which layer of the cortex contains loosely packed stellate cells and medium pyramidal cells?

a)

III – External pyramidal

b)

I – Molecular

c)

IV – Internal granular

d)

V – Internal pyramidal

77.

Which layer of the cortex contains densely packed stellate cells only?

a)

IV – Internal granular

b)

I – Molecular

c)

V – Internal pyramidal

d)

VI – Multiform

78.

Which layer of the cortex contains large pyramidal cells (Giant Pyramidal cells of Betz)?

a)

V – Internal pyramidal

b)

I – Molecular

c)

II – External granular

d)

IV – Internal granular

79.

Which layer of the cortex contains multiple sized pyramidal cells and loosely packed stellate cells?

a)

VI – Multiform

b)

I – Molecular

c)

II – External granular

d)

IV – Internal granular

80.

Which artery supplies the superior surface of the cerebellum?

a)

SCA

b)

AICA

c)

PICA

81.

The AICA originates from which artery?

a)

Basilar Artery

b)

Vertebral Artery

c)

Internal Carotid Artery

82.

The PICA supplies which surface of the cerebellum?

a)

Superior

b)

Anteroinferior

c)

Posteroinferior

83.

What is the main function of the cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres)?

a)

Planning, timing, and initiation of skilled movements.

b)

Regulation of heart rate and respiration.

c)

Processing visual information.

d)

Control of basic reflexes.

84.

Which nucleus is key for the cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres)?

a)

Dentate Nucleus

b)

Fastigial Nucleus

c)

Interposed Nucleus

d)

Vestibular Nucleus

85.

What is the main deficit seen in spinocerebellum (vermis & intermediate zones) lesions?

a)

Truncal/Gait Ataxia (Unsteady, wide-based walking, balance issues).

b)

Intention tremor (tremor during voluntary movement).

c)

Resting tremor (tremor at rest).

d)

Hemiballismus (violent, involuntary limb movements).

86.

The output of the spinocerebellum is to which structures?

a)

Brainstem/Spinal Cord

b)

Cerebral Cortex

c)

Basal Ganglia

d)

Thalamus

87.

The artery marked with arrow is palpated at which point:

a)

Petrous temporal

b)

Condyle

c)

Zygoma

d)

Ramus of mandible

88.

Which bone does the superficial temporal artery pass over, as shown in the diagram?

a)

Mandible

b)

Maxilla

c)

Zygoma

d)

Parietal bone

89.

The superficial temporal artery is a branch of which artery?

a)

Internal carotid artery

b)

External carotid artery

c)

Maxillary artery

d)

Parietal artery

90.

Fill in the blank: The STA is one of the two terminal branches of the ________, the other being the Maxillary Artery.

a)

External Carotid Artery (ECA)

b)

Internal Carotid Artery (ICA)

c)

Subclavian Artery

d)

Common Carotid Artery

91.

Name the two main terminal branches of the superficial temporal artery after its bifurcation above the zygomatic arch.

a)

Frontal Branch (Anterior) and Parietal Branch (Posterior)

b)

Maxillary Branch and Occipital Branch

c)

Temporal Branch and Mandibular Branch

d)

Zygomatic Branch and Auricular Branch

92.

Transverse Facial Artery: ________ the parotid gland, parotid duct, and the Masseter muscle.

a)

Supplies

b)

Drains

c)

Innervates

d)

Protects

93.

Middle Temporal Artery: ________ the Temporalis muscle.

a)

Supplies

b)

Innervates

c)

Originates from

d)

Attaches to

94.

Zygomatico-orbital Artery: ________ the Orbicularis Oculi muscle (around the eye).

a)

Supplies

b)

Innervates

c)

Drains

d)

Contracts

95.

Anterior Auricular Branches: ________ the anterior aspect of the external ear.

a)

Supply

b)

Drain

c)

Protect

d)

Compress

96.

The Fontanelle between Coronal & Sagittal sutures is:

a)

Anterior fontanelle and fuses at 18 months

b)

Posterior fontanelle & fuses at 12 months

c)

Lambdoid fontanelle & fuses at 2-3 months