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45 IG Class Competition

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 6hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?

a)

Chlorosynthesis

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

ADP

d)

Electron Transport

2.

The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:

a)

Lamellae

b)

Grana

c)

Stroma

d)

Thylakoid

3.

The interior space of the chloroplast is called:

a)

Lamellae

b)

Grana

c)

Stroma

d)

Thylakoids

4.

Where does the light independent reaction take place?

a)

Matrix

b)

Stroma

c)

Thylakoid membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

5.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

6.

Which organisms perform Photosynthesis?

a)

Only Autotrophs

b)

Only Heterotrophs

c)

Autotrophs and Heterotrophs

7.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

water and carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen and glucose

c)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

oxygen and water

8.

Chloroplasts are...

a)

Structures of animal cells to produce ATP

b)

Organelles where lipids are elaborated

c)

Specialized structures of plants where food is made

d)

Waste organelle of plants

9.

Most plants appear green because chlorophyll

a)

absorbs green light.

b)

absorbs violet light.

c)

does not absorb green light.

d)

does not absorb violet light.

10.

Where do the light-dependent reactions occur? 

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

stroma

c)

mesophyll

d)

mitochondria

11.

Where does the Light Independent Reactions (Calvin Cycle) occur?

a)

thylakoid

b)

stroma

c)

lumen

d)

mitochondria

12.

What is the main function of the cuticle on a leaf?

a)

To allow air to enter and exit the leaf

b)

To keep the leaf from drying out

c)

To perform photosynthesis

d)

To transport nutrients

13.

What are the openings on the lower leaf epidermis called?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Stoma

c)

Xylem

d)

Guard cells

14.

Which cells control the opening and closing of the stoma?

a)

Guard cells

b)

Bundle sheath cells

c)

Palisade cells

d)

Spongy cells

15.

What is the primary role of the palisade layer in a leaf?

a)

Structural support

b)

Gas exchange

c)

Water transport

d)

Photosynthesis

16.

Which type of vascular tissue carries water from the roots into the leaves?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Xylem

c)

Petiole

d)

Phloem

17.

The less tightly packed area in this portion of the leaf increases space for gas exchange.

a)

cuticle

b)

palisade layer

c)

spongy layer

d)

vascular bundle

18.

What are the green structures containing chlorophyll inside the palisade cells called?

a)

Stoma

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Xylem

d)

Cuticle

19.

What is the main function of the stomata located on the leaf surface?

a)

Protection against pests

b)

Transport of nutrients

c)

Gas exchange

d)

Water absorption

20.

Which part of the plant is primarily involved in absorbing water and nutrients from the soil?

a)

Stem

b)

Leaves

c)

Roots

d)

Flowers

21.

What is the function of the phloem in plants?

a)

Transporting water from roots to leaves

b)

Providing structural support

c)

Transporting sugars downward from the leaves

d)

Facilitating gas exchange

22.

The maintenance of an organism’s internal environment is called:

a)

compensating

b)

homeostasis

c)

balancing

d)

routine

23.

In a drug ________, the body responds to a certain medication as if it is harmful. 

a)

misuse

b)

allergy

c)

overdose

d)

side effect

24.

TRUE OR FALSE. Heroin is often cut with other dangerous substances.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Substances used to treat symptoms of an illness or to cure, manage or prevent a disease are called _______________.

a)

Medications

b)

Drugs

26.

Unintentionally not following a medication’s instructions is medication ______________.

a)

allergy

b)

overdose

c)

abuse

d)

misuse

27.

A condition in which a person can no longer control his or her drug use is called:

a)

Addiction

b)

Tolerance

c)

Withdrawal

d)

Dependence

28.

Any reaction to a medicine other than the one intended.

a)

Tolerance

b)

OTC medicine

c)

Addcition

d)

Side effect

e)

Catalyst

29.

When a person's body has become used to the effects of the a drug or medicine and needs a greater amount to be effective.

a)

Stimulant

b)

Side Effect

c)

Tolerance

d)

Addcition

e)

Craving

30.

Prescription medicines

a)

are not drugs.

b)

can be bought only with a doctor’s written order.

c)

can be bought without a doctor’s permission.

d)

are illegal for teens

31.

You should not use a drug if...

a)

The presciption label says its expired

b)

The prescription is for someone else

c)

The dosage is unclear

d)

All of the above

32.

It is considered drug abuse if you take your own prescription drugs for any purpose

other than what they were intended for.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The majority of alcohol consumed by underage drinkers is in the form of  _______ drinking

a)

Moderate

b)

binge

c)

heavy

d)

alcohol use disorder

34.

Encouraging a person’s unhealthy behaviors, such as alcohol use disorder is called _____.

a)

detoxification

b)

refusal skills

c)

Education Programs for Alcohol Awareness

d)

Enabling

35.

About ________ people die from alcohol-related causes each year.

a)

88,000

b)

880

c)

8,800

d)

88

36.

Developing and practicing _______ skills can help you say “no” when someone offers you alcohol.

a)

Detoxication

b)

social groups

c)

Refusal

d)

Family

37.

Which are harmful effects of an alcohol use disorder.

a)

Chronic Diseases such as cirrhosis of the liver

b)

Running faster

c)

Being healthy

d)

Losing Weight

38.

TRUE OR FALSE. Alcohol effects and is associated with health issues in every single organ and body system.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Alcohol is a type of drug known as a _________.

a)

Suppressant

b)

Depressant

c)

Stimulus

d)

It is not a drug.

40.

When you breathe, your lungs take in ___ and remove ___. 

a)

air/oxygen

b)

oxygen/carbon dioxide 

c)

carbon dioxide/waste 

d)

waste/air 

41.

Many chemicals in cigarettes are considered carcinogenic because they cause what?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Cancer

c)

Heart disease

d)

Liver Failure

42.

What is tar?

a)

A plant used to make cigarettes

b)

A toxic metal found in rechargeable batteries

c)

A chemical released by the body in exciting situations

d)

A sticky substance formed by cigarette smoke

43.

Smoking interferes with the lungs' ability to provide what to the rest of the body?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Ammonia

c)

Water

d)

Carbon dioxide

44.

Nicotine puts the most stress on which organ?

a)

Lungs

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

Eyes

45.

Cigarettes and e-cigarettes both contain:

a)

Nicotine

b)

Tobacco

c)

Formaldehyde

d)

Tar

46.

What is Heroin

a)

opioid Drug

b)

White or brown powder

c)

injections

d)

medicine

47.

The word cut means:

a)

To be absent from a place without authorization

b)

To add a substance to another, especially to a drug or an alcoholic drink, usually to make it weaker or cheaper

c)

To divide a drug dosage into smaller portions

d)

To trim or shorten the length of something being smoked

48.

How is heroin used?

a)

Orally, by taking pills

b)

Injected, snorted or smoked

c)

Eaten in food

d)

By prescription

49.

Aside from the dangers of the drug itself, what other risks are there from heroin use?

a)

Contracting AIDS, hepatitis (liver disease) and other diseases from infected needles

b)

Allergic reaction to the drug, including hives

c)

Spreading contracted disease to sexual partners or to newborns

d)

Both contracting AIDS, hepatitis (liver disease) and other diseases from infected needles, as well as spreading contracted disease to sexual partners or to newborns

50.

Each white spot is a different antibiotic.

How many antibiotics does the bacteria seem to be resistant to?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

All of them

d)

None of them

51.

If you take antibiotics, the non-resistant bacteria die while the resistant bacteria survive and pass their antibiotic resistance trait to their offspring. This is an example of...

a)

DNA replication

b)

natural selection

c)

meiosis

d)

a virus

52.

Taking antibiotics when they are not needed can weaken the effectiveness of the antibiotics.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which are most closely related to biotechnology?

a)

medicine and agriculture

b)

construction and engineering

c)

electricity generation

d)

communication and information technology

54.

Which best describes a controversial issue associated with the use of genetically modified crops?

a)

the use of genetically modified crops to increase potential yield

b)

the short term use of genetically modified crops in helping people in developing countries

c)

the development of genetically modified crops which are resistant to herbicides

d)

the long term effects which may arise from the use of genetically modified crops

55.

Which of the following is the process of using technology to create or change the DNA of living things?

a)

Genetic modification

b)

Machinery

c)

Pest resistant crops

d)

Transpiration

56.

Which of these is not a way in which biotechnology can benefit agriculture?

a)

increase crop population

b)

reducing the loss of crops due to insects

c)

producing better-tasting food

d)

improving farm machinery

57.

Which of these is a type of genetic modification?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Kidney Surgery

c)

Gene inserting

d)

Use of herbicides

58.

Step 1: The process begins by identifying the part of ​ (a)   – the gene – that codes for the production of a desired ​ (b)   . Enzymes called ​ (c)   are used to cut the DNA on either side of the ​ (d)   . These enzymes cut DNA molecules at particular points. They leave short lengths of unpaired bases at either end of the cut DNA, called ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
DNA
protein
restriction enzymes
gene
sticky ends
59.

Step 2: Next, ​ (a)   are removed from ​ (b)   . The ring of DNA in the plasmid is cut, using the same ​ (c)   that were used for cutting the human DNA. The reason for using the same restriction enzyme is so that the ​ (d)   on the plasmid DNA are complementary to the sticky ends that were left on the ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
plasmids
bacteria
restriction enzymes
sticky ends
human DNA
60.

Step 3:

The human ​ (a)   and the cut plasmids are now mixed together. The sticky ends on the human DNA pair up with the complementary sticky ends on the plasmid DNA. Another ​ (b)   , called ​ (c)   DNA 连接酶, links the two strands firmly together, closing the ​ (d)   . Now we have bacterial plasmids that contain the human gene. They are called ​ (e)   重组质粒.


Choose from the below words
DNA
enzyme
DNA ligase
plasmid loop
recombinant plasmids
61.

Step 4:

Next, these ​ (a)   are added back to the ​ (b)   . These are now genetically modified bacteria because they contain ​ (c)   as well as their own. The GM bacteria are put into ​ (d)   , where they reproduce asexually to form large populations. They express the gene for the human protein – that is, they use the code on the human DNA to make the ​ (e)   , which can be extracted from the fermenters and purified.


Choose from the below words
genetically modified plasmids
bacteria
human DNA
fermenters
human protein
62.

Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

a)

It has yellow grains, because it was soaked in yellow dye

b)

It is Vitamin A enriched, with can help prevent child blindness

c)

It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

d)

It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector

63.

another word for farming

a)

agriculture

b)

technology

c)

specialization

d)

shrine

64.

A system to bring water to crops

a)

migration

b)

agricultural revolution

c)

irrigation

d)

nomad

65.

Which is a positive result of the use of biotechnology in agriculture?

a)

increased cost

b)

increased yield

c)

increased use of pesticides

d)

increased use of preservatives

66.

genetically Identical

a)

Clones

b)

Twins

c)

Doppleganger

d)

Triplets

67.

Heritable changes in DNA

a)

Mutations

b)

Maize

c)

Genes

d)

DNA

68.

The application of technological process, invention, or method of living organisms.

a)

Biotechnology

b)

Hybridization

c)

Biology

d)

Selective Breeding

69.

GM-

a)

General money

b)

Genetic

medicine

c)

Genetically Modified

d)

Genetic Mutation

70.

The chemical molecule that is the basic genetic material found in all cells.

a)

DNA

b)

GMO

c)

Hybrid

d)

Protein

71.

Which of the following is the process of using technology to create or modify living things?

a)

Biotechnology

b)

GMO

c)

Pest resistant crops

d)

Transpiration

72.

Which positive ways has Biotechnology impacted our environment?

a)

Reduced Pesticides use

b)

Improved color and taste of vegetables

c)

Improved our waterways

d)

All of the above

73.

Vaccines are made form biotechnology. ( true or false)

a)

False

b)

True

74.

The process of changing a gene to treat a genetic disease or disorder. It is one of the products of the human genome project.

a)

cloning

b)

hybridization

c)

gene therapy

d)

selective cutting

75.

A circular DNA that is usually found in all bacteria is called

a)

tRNA

b)

virus

c)

plasmid

d)

amino acid

76.

A genetically engineered DNA made from two different organisms is called

a)

mutated DNA

b)

replicated DNA

c)

recombinant DNA

d)

translocated DNA

77.

The transfer of a gene from the DNA of one organism into another organism, to produce an organism with desired traits

a)

stem cell research

b)

genetic engineering

c)

human genome project

d)

global warming project

78.

A protein that regulates glucose level in the bloodstream is called

a)

insulin

b)

enzyme

c)

collagen

d)

hemoglobin

79.

A young and unspecialized cells that can develop into different types of human body cells

a)

stem cells

b)

body cells

c)

small cells

d)

large cells

80.

An international collaborative effort to map and sequence the DNA of the entire human genome.

a)

RNA Biology

b)

Stem Cell Research

c)

Human Genome Project

d)

Water and Sanitation Project

81.

A method of breeding that allows only those individual organisms with desired characteristics to produce the next generation(example, Super Cow)

a)

hybridization

b)

inbreeding

c)

selective breeding

d)

selective cutting

82.

All of an organisms genetic material( or all your set of genes) is called

a)

organs system

b)

organism

c)

genome

d)

organs

83.

The process of separating DNA fragments to produce DNA fingerprints is called

a)

cloning

b)

genetic splicing

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

DNA fingerprinting

84.

The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagrams below show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?

a)

A. It provides information about the organisms' habitats.

b)

B. It shows possible common ancestry between organisms

c)

C. It provides information to determine the organisms' ages

d)

D. It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.

85.

According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?

a)

A. commensalism

b)

B. inbreeding

c)

C. migration

d)

D. evolution by natural selection

86.

The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram?

a)

A. The organisms share a common ancestry.

b)

B. The organisms belong to the same genus.

c)

C. The organisms are native to the same geographic areas

d)

D. The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.

87.

Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram below shows the skulls of 3 hominid species. Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution?

a)

A. The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time.

b)

B. The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.

c)

C. There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.

d)

D. The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size.

88.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown below.Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?

a)

A. Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.

b)

B. Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.

c)

C. Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7

d)

D. Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.

89.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown below.What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?

a)

A. DNA sequences

b)

B. Anatomical features

c)

C. Habitat types

d)

D. Reproductive Strategies

90.

Organisms classified as fungi have unique characteristics. Which of the following characteristics is found only in organisms classified in the kingdom fungi?

a)

A. single cells without a nucleus

b)

B. multicellular with chloroplasts

c)

C. multicellular filaments that absorb nutrients

d)

D. colonies of single, photosynthetic cells that reproduce asexually

91.

The diagram below represents possible evolutionary pathways of certain organisms. Which species is most closely related to species L?

a)

A. species E

b)

B. species F

c)

C. species G

d)

D. species I

92.

Which kingdoms have photosynthetic organisms?

a)

A. fungi and plants

b)

B. fungi and protists

c)

C. protists and plants

d)

D. plants and animals

93.

Some characteristics of a recently discovered organism are listed in the following table. Based on the given characteristics, this organism would be classified in which kindgom?

a)

A. eubacteria

b)

B. fungi

c)

C. plantae

d)

D. protista

94.

The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, a form of nitrogen plants can readily use, is called -

a)

denitrification.

b)

ammonification.

c)

nitrogen fixation.

d)

nitrification.

95.

To obtain the nitrogen they need, animals depend on many different microscopic ____________________ to convert nitrogen at all stages of the nitrogen cycle.

a)

protozoa

b)

bacteria

c)

worms

d)

insects

96.

The atmosphere is made up of mostly nitrogen. The percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere is approximately _____.

a)

60%

b)

78%

c)

83%

d)

51%

97.

(a)   converts ammonia and ammonium into nitrite and nitrate.

98.

Select all answers below that are stages of the nitrogen cycle.

a)

Nitrogen fixation

b)

Diffusion

c)

Ammonification

d)

Nitrification

99.

How do animals get the nitrogen they need?

a)

From the air they breathe

b)

From the water they drink

c)

From the food they eat

d)

From the sun

100.

What process occurs when dead plant and animal matter decomposes and nitrogen is released back into the atmosphere?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Fixation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Denitrification

101.

A correct path that nitrogen could take would be

a)

air -> animals -> plants -> bacteria

b)

animals -> air -> bacteria -> plants

c)

bacteria -> air -> plants -> animals

d)

air -> bacteria -> plants -> animals

102.

The diagram below shows the carbon cycle.

Press the hotspot for where you would find fossil fuels.

103.

The diagram below shows the carbon cycle.

Press the hotspot for where you would find carbon dioxide.

104.

PRE-INDUSTRIAL
Fossil fuels include carbon rich materials such as ​ (a)   , ​ (b)   , and ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words

sunlight

coal

crude oil

natural gas

105.

The diagram below shows a portion of the carbon cycle,

Select where photosynthesis takes place

106.

Which of the following add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

a)

volcanoes

b)

combustion of fossil fuels

c)

animal and plant respiration

d)

all of these

107.

The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?

a)

lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere

b)

lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere

c)

higher levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere

d)

higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

108.

What will happen to the population when the birth rate is larger than the death rate?

a)

grow

b)

shrink

c)

stay the same

109.

What type of growth is represented behind?

a)

exponential

b)

logistics

c)

a good kind

d)

representative

110.

In a forest ecosystem, which of the following is the best example of a limiting factor for a rabbit population?

a)

Squirrel Population

b)

Sunlight

c)

Grass available

111.

An environmental factor such as predation, disease, and competition that depends on the number of members in a population per unit

a)

dispersion

b)

density- independent factor

c)

density- dependent factor

d)

population growth rate

112.

An environmental factor such as storms and extreme heat or cold that affects population regardless of their density

a)

density- dependent factor

b)

population density

c)

dispersion

d)

density- independent factor

113.

When a population has reached carrying capacity

a)

Growth & Immigration are equal to Death & emigration

b)

Growth & Immigration are less than Death & emigration

c)

Growth & Immigration are greater than Death & emigration

d)

Growth is exponential

114.

Review: What type of growth curve is shown in the picture?

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

115.

What age groups does the bottom of a population pyramid represent?

a)

The elderly

b)

The working adults

c)

The children

d)

Males

116.

What does the whole right side of the population pyramid represent?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Unemployed

d)

Young people

117.

What age group does the top of the population pyramid represent?

a)

The working people

b)

The rich people

c)

The elderly

d)

The young people

118.

What growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Rapid Growth

b)

Slow Growth

c)

Negative Growth

d)

Zero Growth

119.

What population growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Zero Growth

b)

Negative Growth

c)

Slow Growth

d)

Rapid Growth

120.

Which population growth rate does this pyramid represent?

a)

Rapid Growth

b)

Slow Growth

c)

Negative Growth

d)

Zero Growth

121.

All the living organisms in an environment

a)

Biotic factors

b)

Abiotic factors

122.

Mark ALL the biotic factors

a)

Owl

b)

Temperature

c)

Grass

d)

Soil

123.

Non-living factors of the environment

a)

Biotic factors

b)

Abiotic factors

124.

Area where an organism lives

a)

Niche

b)

Abiotic factor

c)

Habitiat

d)

Biotic factor

125.

The functional role or job of an organism within an ecosystem

a)

Habitat

b)

Abiotic factors

c)

Niche

d)

Symbiosis

126.

Any relationship in which two different species interact

a)

Predator

b)

Symbiosis

c)

Parasitism

d)

Commensalism

127.

Type of symbiotic relationship where BOTH organisms BENEFIT

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

128.

Commensalism

a)

Both species benefit

b)

One species benefits the other species neither benefits or is harmed

c)

One species benefits the other is harmed

129.

Type of symbiotic relationship where one species BENEFITS and the other species is HARMED

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

130.

Predators:

a)

organisms that hunt other organisms

b)

organisms that are being hunted

131.

A tapeworm lives inside the intestines of an human causing the human to become sick.


This is which symbiotic relationship:

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

132.

Bats pollinate cacti, and then in the spring these cacti produce fruit for the bats


This is which symbiotic relationship:

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

133.

Barnacles hitch a ride on the bottom of a blue whale. The whale isn't harmed or benefited by this interaction


This is which symbiotic relationship

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

134.

The diagram shows the flow of organic molecules through an ecosystem. What two processes are identified by the labels X and Y?

a)

X : Respiration
Y : Predation

b)

X : Adaptation
Y : Decomposition

c)

X : Fermentation
Y : Nitrogen Fixation

d)

X : Decomposition
Y : Respiration

135.

Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?

a)

Owl

b)

Fish

c)

Tree

d)

Mushroom

136.

When humans EXHALE, we release __________________.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Water

137.

How is the carbon cycle similar to the water cycle?

a)

Both involve liquid substances falling to the Earth from the atmosphere?

b)

Neither process works at low temperature.

c)

Both involve the transfer of substances between animals, plants, and the Earth.

d)

Both involve the transfer of substances between the earth and outer space.

138.

According to the image, what is the producer?

a)

plant

b)

insect

c)

mouse

d)

snake

139.

According to the image, what is the primary consumer in the food chain?

a)

plant

b)

insect

c)

mouse

d)

snake

140.

What kind of organisms are usually at the top of the food chain?

a)

producers

b)

herbivores

c)

omnivores

d)

carnivores

141.

Which is a MAJOR cause of acid rain?

a)

spraying pesticides on crops

b)

burning fossil fuels for energy

c)

dumping sewage in rivers

d)

using Nuclear power stations

142.

Which is a result of human activities?

a)

decay of leaves in a forest

b)

acid rain kills fish in a lake

c)

volcanic eruptions

d)

bad weather

143.
Which of these contributes to acid rain?
a)
HCl
b)
NaOH
c)
CaO
d)
SO2
144.

Acid rain has a pH LESS than

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

3

145.

How does acid rain affect humans?

a)

air pollution gets into our lungs and water

b)

It burns our clothes

c)

it makes us blind

d)

it makes us blonde

146.

What human activity is the main cause of acid rain?

a)

cars

b)

deforestation

c)

coal power plants / power stations

d)

volcanoes

147.
Why is the increase of Greenhouse gasses a big issue?
a)
It causes climate change and increase in the global temerature 
b)
It can lead to a major increase in Greenhouses 
c)
It leads to more factories
d)
It causes a major decrease in people
148.
How can global warming cause sea levels to rise? Choose the best answer.
a)
by causing it to rain more often
b)
by melting glaciers and ice caps
c)
by increasing the number of undersea volcanic eruptions
d)
by creating bigger and more powerful hurricanes
149.

What is the original cause of eutrophication?

a)

Too many predators

b)

Too many herbivores

c)

Excess fertilizer

d)

Too much oxygen

150.

Which describes a dead zone?

a)

An area of low oxygen in water

b)

A single point where water drains to

c)

Where fresh water and salt water meet

151.

One of the primary human causes of dead zone formation is:

a)

Burning of fossil fuels

b)

Deforestation

c)

Overfishing

d)

Farming with fertilizers

152.

In eutrophication, dissolved oxygen levels decrease because

a)

bacteria use it as they decompose organic material

b)

algae uses it during photosynthesis

c)

it reacts with hydrogen to form H2O (water)

d)

fish use it up as they consume algae

153.

What is the very next thing that happens after fertilisers enter a river in eutrophication?

a)

Fish die due to a lack of oxygen

b)

Plants below the surface die due to a lack of sunlight

c)

The number of aerobic bacteria increases

d)

Fast growth of plants

154.

In eutrophication, what does 'algal bloom' refer to?

a)

The rapid increase in the number of bacteria

b)

The rapid increase in the number of plants

c)

The rapid decrease in the number of fish

d)

The rapid increase in the amount of nitrates in the river

155.

When algae levels increase in a body of water, it

a)

cuts off light to plants at the bottom.

b)

increases light to the plants on the bottom.

c)

causes dissolved Oxygen levels increase.

d)

causes bacteria populations decrease.

156.

Hypoxia is a state of depleted oxygen in water.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

In a dead zone, _________ levels are really low such that living organisms are not able survive.

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

fertilizer

d)

carbon dioxide

158.
A factory is located next to a river.  The factory has a sewage pipe running straight out of the factory and into the river.  This is an example of ________________________.
a)
point source pollution
b)
non-point pollution
c)
tertiary receiving stream
d)
primary treatment
159.

Which describes primary treatment?

a)

coagulation

b)

filtration and removal of debris, sand, grit, etc.

c)

flocs

d)

concentation

160.
What gas must be maintained at precise levels in the aeration tank?
a)
CO2
b)
O2
c)
H2
d)
CO
161.
Bacteria are beneficial to wastewater treatment because
a)
they naturally break down organic matter
b)
they help solid material to settle out of the wastewater
c)
the nutrients produced are beneficial to the treated water
d)
they aren't beneficial
162.

Which substance is used in a sewage treatment system to kill harmful bacteria?

a)

ammonia

b)

chlorine

c)

sand

d)

soap

163.
What is the purpose of using ultraviolet light on the water?
a)
To bleach it out
b)
To "sterilize" any bacteria 
c)
To remove chlorine
d)
To kill viruses
164.

Which indicates that a body of water is contaminated by human waste water?

a)

low BOD and a fecal coliform bacteria count of zero

b)

high levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, an high BOD

c)

low BOD and low levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus

d)

low levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, and a fecal coliform bacteria count of zero

165.

Which one is the characteristic of wastewater?

a)

Does not contain pathogenic micro-organisms

b)

Safe to health

c)

Used water from residential, commercial, and industrial areas

d)

Free from breeding sites for insects, pests and micro organism

166.

What type of cell does chloroplast belong in?

a)

Plant Only

b)

Both Plant and Animal

c)

Animal Only

167.

What type of cell does a cell membrane belong in?

a)

Plant Only

b)

Animal Only

c)

Both Plant and animal

168.

What type of cell does the cytoplasm belong in?

a)

Plant Cell Only

b)

Animal Cell Only

c)

Plant and Animal Cell

169.

What type of cell contain a nucleus?

a)

Prokaryotic cells like bacteria.

b)

Eukaryotic cells like bacteria.

c)

Eukaryotic cells like plant and animal cells.

d)

Prokaryotic cells like plant and animal cells.

170.

Match the following

a)

Cell Membrane

1.

regulates what goes into and out of the cell

b)

Cell Wall

2.

gives structure to plant cells

c)

Chloroplast

3.

site of photosynthesis in plant cells

d)

Mitochondrion

4.

converts energy from food into energy a cell can use

e)

Nucleus

5.

contains genetic material and controls the use of genes; found in eukaryotic cells

171.

During osmosis

a)

water moves from high to low concentration

b)

large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane

c)

water moves when energy is used

d)

proteins are built

172.

Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.

a)

food

b)

energy

c)

oxygen

d)

water

173.

A person would never have pure water put into their veins in a hospital because their cells would...

a)

Shrink/Dehydrate

b)

Expand

174.

What is diffusion?

a)

when molecules move 

b)

when molecules move from a high concentration to a low.

c)

no movement 

d)

molecules move everywhere

175.

Why can't you drink salt water?

a)

It's hypertonic to your cells

b)

It's hypotonic to your cells

c)

It's isotonic to your cells

d)

It's paratonic to your cells

176.

Ideally, your cells should be in a(n) _______ solution

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Cola

177.

An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will

a)

Shrink

b)

Swell

c)

Stay the same

178.

The diagram shows two chambers with different concentration of molecules separated by a selectively permeable membrane. Predict what will happen to the water molecules ?

a)

move from B to A due to diffusion

b)

move from B to A due to osmosis

c)

move from B to A due to active transport

d)

move from A to B due to osmosis

179.

This red blood cell swell and burst in a ....solution

a)

hypotonic

b)

isotonic

c)

elektronic

d)

hypertonic

180.

Why is diffusion so important in biology?

a)

It's the basic power source for most types of cells

b)

It allows substances to move across cell membranes

c)

It prevents toxins from entering our bodies

d)

Without diffusion, cell division could not take place

181.

What is the definition of  Selective Permeability?

a)

The movement of materials across the cell membrane that requires NO ENERGY from the cell.

b)

The movement of materials through (or across) the cell membrane

c)

The ability of the cell membrane to allow some things to pass through while preventing other things from passing through.

d)

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to a area of low concentration 

182.

DNA stands for...

a)

Deoxyribose Acid

b)

Deoxynucleic Acid

c)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

d)

Ribonucleic Acid

183.

If one side of DNA is ATTA what would the complementary strand look like?

a)

CGGC

b)

GCCG

c)

TAAT

d)

ATTA

184.

Cystosine is always paired with ______________.

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

It doesn't match with anything

185.

The shape of DNA looks like a twisted ladder, known as

a)

helicase

b)

a double helix

c)

a triple helix

186.

Where is DNA found in the cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Nucleus

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

187.

Guanine bonds with ______________.

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

188.

Why is DNA important?

a)

it is very small and very complicated

b)

it's in everything

c)

it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things

d)

because we eat it every day for energy

189.

Which of these is NOT in DNA?

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

e)

Cytosine

190.

What are the 4 nitrogen bases?

a)

adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine

b)

adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine

c)

adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol

d)

adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose

191.

What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?

a)

the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases

b)

the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases

c)

the color of the nitrogen bases

d)

the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases

192.

Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?

a)

polar bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

193.

How did Rosalind Franklin's photo 51 affect the work of Watson and Crick? (picture is shown)

a)

It was used to determine the physical structure of DNA

b)

It was used to identify the four bases that make up DNA

c)

It was used to determine the theory of independent assortment

d)

It was used to show DNA was the molecule of inheritance

194.

Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

nucleic acid

c)

cholesterol

d)

fatty acid

195.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
196.
What affects Enzyme activity?
a)
cold temperature & pH levels
b)
hot or cold temperature & environment
c)
high temperature &  pH levels
d)
pH levels & environment
197.

At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because:

a)

enzymes denature changing the shape of the active site

b)

enzymes disappear

c)

Increased H-Bonding

d)

fit with the substrate causing a reaction

198.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
199.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
200.
The pH at which an enzyme is most efficient is called the _________ pH of an enzyme.
a)
neutral
b)
optimum
c)
minimum
d)
experimental 
201.
If enzyme C is functioning at 25°C and a pH of 7, under which conditions would the rate of enzyme action probably increase?Use the chart below and your knowledge of enzymes to answer the question.
a)
The temperature is decreased to 22 C and the pH is kept the same
b)
The temperature is kept the same and the pH is decreased to 6
c)
The temperature is increased to 44 C and the pH is kept the same
d)
The temperature is increased to 30 C and the pH is increased to 8
202.
Why does enzyme activity decrease when it is in solution that has either a too high or too low pH?
a)
All enzymes only work in neutral solutions
b)
Enzyme activity remains unchanged in different pH's
c)
The shape of the active site changes
d)
The shape of the substrate changes
203.
After the enzyme and substrate bind together and perform the reaction, what does the substrate become?
a)
a substrate
b)
an enzyme
c)
a product
d)
an active site
204.
Sucrase has an optimum temperature of 37C and an optimum pH of 6.2. What would happen if the pH changed to 4?
a)
Continue to work the same
b)
Speed up the reaction
c)
Slow down the reaction
205.
Sucrase has an optimum temperature of 37C and an optimum pH of 6.2. What would happen if the temperature was changed to 70C?
a)
Speed up the reaction
b)
No change in reaction
c)
Denature the protein