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Quiz sobre Células del Estómago

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What percentage of the stomach is covered by oxínticas (gastric) cells?

a)

50%

b)

80%

c)

20%

d)

100%

2.

Which of the following is secreted by oxínticas cells?

a)

Gastrina

b)

Mucus

c)

HCL

d)

Pepsina

3.

Where are pilóricas cells located in the stomach?

a)

Antrum

b)

Fundus

c)

Body

d)

Cardia

4.

What is the role of pepsinogen secreted by pilóricas cells?

a)

Neutralize acid

b)

Precursor of pepsin

c)

Stimulate mucus production

d)

Regulate blood flow

5.

What is stimulated by the parasympathetic system during the cephalic phase?

a)

Production of pepsin and acid

b)

Production of insulin

c)

Production of bile

d)

Production of saliva

6.

Which phase involves local nervous secretory reflexes?

a)

Gastric phase

b)

Cephalic phase

c)

Intestinal phase

d)

Absorptive phase

7.

What is the role of gastrin in the digestive process?

a)

Stimulates histamine

b)

Inhibits acid production

c)

Stimulates bile production

d)

Inhibits pepsin production

8.

What is the origin of neurogenic signals in the cephalic phase?

a)

Cerebral cortex, amygdala, and hypothalamus

b)

Spinal cord and medulla oblongata

c)

Cerebellum and thalamus

d)

Pituitary gland and pineal gland

9.

What percentage of gastric secretion occurs during the cephalic phase?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

10.

What triggers the gastric phase in the digestive process?

a)

Presence of food in the mouth

b)

Distension in the stomach walls and presence of food

c)

Absence of food in the stomach

d)

Presence of food in the intestines

11.

Which type of reflex is involved in the gastric phase?

a)

Spinal reflexes

b)

Local and parasympathetic reflexes

c)

Sympathetic reflexes

d)

Hormonal reflexes

12.

What is the result of the gastric phase in terms of secretion?

a)

Decrease in gastric juice secretion

b)

Increase in gastric juice and gastrin secretion

c)

No change in secretion

d)

Increase in saliva production

13.

What triggers the short neural reflexes in the intestinal phase?

a)

Distension of the duodenum

b)

Presence of lipids

c)

Low pH levels

d)

Release of gastrin

14.

Which hormone is stimulated by the presence of carbohydrates and lipids during the primary hormonal response?

a)

Gastrin

b)

Secretin

c)

Pepsinogen

d)

Insulin

15.

What is the effect of the intestinal phase on gastric motility?

a)

Increases gastric motility

b)

Reduces gastric motility

c)

Has no effect on gastric motility

d)

Completely stops gastric motility

16.

Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor used to inhibit acid secretion in the parietal cell membrane?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Ranitidine

c)

Pirenzepine

d)

Cimetidine

17.

What class of drugs does Ranitidine belong to?

a)

Proton pump inhibitors

b)

H2 receptor antagonists

c)

Muscarinic antagonists

d)

Antacids

18.

Which of the following is a muscarinic antagonist mentioned in the document?

a)

Pantoprazole

b)

Esomeprazole

c)

Pirenzepine

d)

Famotidine

19.

Which of the following is a mucosal protector used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Sucralfate

b)

Bicarbonate of soda

c)

Magnesium compounds

d)

Calcium compounds

20.

What is the role of "Bismuth salts" in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Antacid

b)

Mucosal protector

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Proton pump inhibitor

21.

Which of the following is an antacid used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Misoprostol

b)

Aluminum compounds

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Bismuth salts

22.

What is the primary function of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

a)

Increase acid secretion

b)

Inhibit acid secretion

c)

Stimulate enzyme production

d)

Neutralize stomach acid

23.

Which of the following is a first-generation proton pump inhibitor?

a)

Rabeprazole

b)

Esomeprazole

c)

Omeprazole

d)

Pantoprazole

24.

What is required for the restitution of acid secretion after using PPIs?

a)

Increased blood flow

b)

Synthesis of new enzymes

c)

Higher pH levels

d)

Reduced enzyme activity

25.

How do weak bases in the acidic environment of the secretory canaliculi behave?

a)

They dissolve completely

b)

They ionize and get trapped

c)

They neutralize the acid

d)

They evaporate

26.

Which of the following is a first-generation proton pump inhibitor (IBP)?

a)

Rabeprazol

b)

Esomeprazol

c)

Omeprazol

d)

Pantoprazol

27.

Where is the absorption of omeprazole primarily located?

a)

Stomach

b)

Duodenum

c)

Liver

d)

Colon

28.

What is the primary method of elimination for omeprazole?

a)

Sweat

b)

Feces

c)

Orina (Urine)

d)

Lungs

29.

Which of the following statements about omeprazole is true regarding its bioavailability?

a)

It decreases over time.

b)

It remains constant.

c)

It is initially low but increases over time.

d)

It is always high.

30.

Which of the following proton pump inhibitors is not metabolized by the microsomal system?

a)

Omeprazol

b)

Lansoprazol

c)

Rabeprazol

d)

Pantoprazol

31.

Which of the following is a first-generation proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

a)

Rabeprazole

b)

Esomeprazole

c)

Omeprazole

d)

Pantoprazole

32.

What is a potential adverse effect of prolonged suppression of gastric acid secretion by PPIs?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypergastrinemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

33.

What gastrointestinal side effects are associated with PPIs?

a)

Constipation and bloating

b)

Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

c)

Heartburn and indigestion

d)

Flatulence and cramps

34.

What is the concern with combining PPIs and clopidogrel?

a)

Increased risk of bleeding

b)

Decreased cardiovascular risk

c)

Decreased plasma level of clopidogrel

d)

Increased absorption of clopidogrel

35.

What is the primary function of H2 receptor antagonists?

a)

Stimulate acid secretion

b)

Inhibit acid secretion

c)

Increase heart rate

d)

Decrease blood pressure

36.

Which of the following is a method of administration for H2 receptor antagonists?

a)

Intravenous only

b)

Oral and parenteral

c)

Topical only

d)

Inhalation

37.

What is the absorption rate of H2 receptor antagonists?

a)

Slow

b)

Moderate

c)

Rapid

d)

Variable

38.

What should be adjusted in patients with renal impairment when administering H2 receptor antagonists?

a)

Frequency of administration

b)

Dosage

c)

Type of medication

d)

Method of administration

39.

Diagram showing the administration and effects of H2 receptor antagonists.

a)

Diagram showing the administration and effects of H2 receptor antagonists.

b)

Diagram showing the administration and effects of beta blockers.

c)

Diagram showing the administration and effects of proton pump inhibitors.

d)

Diagram showing the administration and effects of antacids.

40.

Which of the following is an H₂ antagonist?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Ranitidine

c)

Aspirin

d)

Paracetamol

41.

What effect does cimetidine have on cytochrome P450?

a)

Activation

b)

Inhibition

c)

No effect

d)

Enhancement

42.

How does the presence of antacids affect the bioavailability of H₂ antagonists?

a)

Increases it

b)

Decreases it

c)

No change

d)

Doubles it

43.

What is the suggested time interval to space doses of H₂ antagonists when taken with antacids?

a)

1 hour

b)

2 to 3 hours

c)

4 to 5 hours

d)

6 hours

44.

Which of the following is a gastrointestinal adverse effect of H2 antagonists?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Confusion

45.

What condition can high doses of cimetidine cause?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperprolactinemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

46.

Which cardiovascular effect is associated with H2 antagonists?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Arrhythmia

47.

What neurological effect can H2 antagonists cause?

a)

Euphoria

b)

Aggressiveness

c)

Increased alertness

d)

Insomnia

48.

What type of antagonist is Pirenzepine?

a)

Selective muscarinic receptor M1 antagonist

b)

Selective muscarinic receptor M2 antagonist

c)

Non-selective muscarinic receptor antagonist

d)

Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist

49.

In which decade was Pirenzepine primarily used?

a)

1970s

b)

1980s

c)

1990s

d)

2000s

50.

Is Pirenzepine a first-choice drug for treating ulcerative disease?

a)

Yes, it is the first choice

b)

No, it is not the first choice

c)

It is only used in emergencies

d)

It is the last resort

51.

What is the duration of action for Sucralfate when taken orally?

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

8 hours

52.

What is the primary action of Sucralfate?

a)

Systemic absorption

b)

Local action

c)

Hormonal regulation

d)

Enzyme inhibition

53.

How does Sucralfate provide a cytoprotective effect?

a)

By increasing stomach acid

b)

By forming a polymerized paste in acidic medium

c)

By inhibiting bile production

d)

By reducing blood flow

54.

What does Sucralfate bind to for its reparative effect?

a)

Stomach acid

b)

Bile and pepsin

c)

Blood cells

d)

Enzymes

55.

What is the required condition for Sucralfate to act effectively?

a)

Neutral pH environment

b)

Alkaline environment

c)

Acidic environment

d)

High temperature

56.

What is the bioavailability percentage of Sucralfate?

a)

10-15%

b)

3-5%

c)

20-25%

d)

50-55%

57.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Sucralfate?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Headache

d)

Nausea

58.

How should Sucralfate be administered to avoid drug interactions?

a)

With antacids

b)

With a 2-hour interval

c)

With meals

d)

With alcohol

59.

In the prevention of stress ulcers in hospitalized patients, what is a benefit of using Sucralfate?

a)

Increases pH

b)

Reduces nosocomial pneumonia

c)

Enhances drug absorption

d)

Causes sedation

60.

What is Misoprostol an analog of?

a)

Alprostadil (PgE1)

b)

Aspirin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Acetaminophen

61.

What is one of the cytoprotective effects of prostaglandins (Pg)?

a)

Vasodilation in the mucosa

b)

Inhibition of mucus secretion

c)

Reduction of bicarbonate production

d)

Increase in gastric acid secretion

62.

How long does the action of Misoprostol last after administration?

a)

1 hour

b)

3 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

7 hours

63.

What percentage of Misoprostol binds to plasma proteins?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

80%

d)

90%

64.

Diagram showing the effects and properties of Misoprostol.

a)

Induction of labor and prevention of gastric ulcers

b)

Treatment of hypertension

c)

Management of diabetes

d)

Relief of asthma symptoms

65.

What is Misoprostol an analog of?

a)

Alprostadil (PgE1)

b)

Aspirin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Acetaminophen

66.

What is one of the cytoprotective effects of prostaglandins (Pg)?

a)

Vasodilation in the mucosa

b)

Inhibition of mucus secretion

c)

Increase in gastric acid secretion

d)

Reduction of bicarbonate secretion

67.

How long does the action of Misoprostol last when administered orally?

a)

3 hours

b)

1 hour

c)

6 hours

d)

12 hours

68.

What percentage of Misoprostol binds to plasma proteins?

a)

80%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

10%

69.

What is a potential gastrointestinal side effect of Misoprostol?

a)

Headache

b)

Abdominal pain

c)

Skin rash

d)

Hypertension

70.

What effect does Misoprostol have on uterine contractility?

a)

Decreases contractility

b)

No effect

c)

Increases contractility

d)

Causes relaxation

71.

What is a possible skin-related side effect of Misoprostol?

a)

Dry skin

b)

Eruptions

c)

Bruising

d)

Itching

72.

What is the treatment dosage of Misoprostol for ulcer disease?

a)

200 µg/day

b)

400 µg/day

c)

600 µg/day

d)

800 µg/day

73.

What is the prophylactic dosage of Misoprostol for ulcer disease?

a)

100 µg/day

b)

200 µg/day

c)

300 µg/day

d)

400 µg/day