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Exposure Exam

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A higher grid ratio:

a)

Decreases image contrast

b)

Requires less exposure

c)

Removes more scatter radiation

d)

Increases image brightness

2.

A higher DQE (Detective Quantum Efficiency) indicates:

a)

Better system efficiency and lower patient dose

b)

Higher patient dose

c)

Greater pixel pitch

d)

More image noise

3.

Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam?

a)

75 kVp

b)

60 kVp

c)

50 kVp

d)

90 kVp

4.

Grid replacement software is designed to

a)

Hide the grid lines from the viewer

b)

Allow the radiographer to select a grid ratio for postprocessing

c)

Create a nongrid image that looks like a grid was employed

d)

All of the above

5.

Digital radiography is best described by which three elements?

a)

Collection, capture, receptor

b)

Capture, signal, receptor

c)

Capture, coupling, and collection

d)

Coupling, receptor, collection

6.

The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the image-forming beam are:

a)

mAs, filtration, and grids

b)

mAs, kVp, and collimation

c)

Filtration, patient thickness, and mAs

d)

kVp, field size, and patient thickness

7.

Which statement about radiographic grids is incorrect?

a)

A grid is a series of lead strips that alternate with radiopaque interspace strips

b)

The radiopaque strips are typically made of thin lead

c)

Grids may have grid strips running in perpendicular directions

d)

The interspace strips are usually made of aluminum

8.

What operation is applied to small groups of pixels to enhance or smooth the image?

4 lines
9.

The number of pixels in a matrix and the field of view determines the:

a)

Spatial resolution

b)

Histogram equalization

c)

Window leveling

d)

Geometric correction

10.

X-rays are attenuated:

a)

Based upon the direction of the central ray

b)

Exponentially

c)

Linearly

d)

As a function of mAs

11.

Subject contrast is primarily the result of:

a)

Exposure time

b)

OID

c)

mA settings

d)

Differential absorption

12.

The window level controls image:

a)

Brightness

b)

Resolution

c)

Speed

d)

Contrast

13.

A pixel that has an eight-bit depth displays:

a)

512

b)

256

c)

126

d)

1024

14.

The standard for digital medical imaging and communications is known as:

(a)  

15.

Which of the following is a destructive pathology?

a)

Empyema

b)

Sclerosis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Tumor

16.

The lead strips in a focused grid are aligned to match the:

4 lines
17.

The amount of scatter radiation produced increases with:

a)

Decrease in atomic number

b)

Larger field size

c)

Increase in patient thickness

d)

All of the above

18.

Which of the following tissues absorbs the most x-rays?

a)

Bone

b)

Air

c)

Fat

d)

Muscle

19.

Bit depth refers to:

4 lines
20.

The purpose of moving the grid during exposure is to:

a)

Remove unwanted contrast

b)

Activate the AEC detectors

c)

Blur out the radiopaque strips

d)

Activate the digital detector

21.

CsI/CCD is an indirect DR process by which x-rays are converted first to light and then to an electronic signal.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The computed radiography cassette is called a(n):

a)

Laser

b)

Thermoluminescent

c)

Optical

d)

Imaging

23.

If the original technique is 25 mAs with an 8:1 grid and you switch to a 12:1 grid, what is the new mAs required?

a)

36 mAs

b)

20 mAs

c)

30 mAs

d)

25 mAs

24.

When performing a KUB on a patient with ascites using AEC and the proper detector combination, the responsible radiographer would:

a)

Decrease the kVp to reduce the amount of Compton

b)

Allow the AEC system to adjust the exposure for the patient condition

c)

Take a scout image using manual techniques

d)

Immediately increase the AEC sensitivity to +2

25.

The dynamic range determines the degree of:

a)

Contrast resolution

b)

Motion blur

c)

Sensitivity

d)

Spatial resolution

26.

What is the definition of attenuation?

a)

Amplification of the x-ray signal

b)

Decrease in patient dose

c)

Reduction in beam intensity after passing through material

d)

Increase in x-ray beam intensity

27.

The ____ the body part, the ____ the attenuation.

a)

More dense; less

b)

Thicker; greater

c)

Thicker; less

d)

Thinner; greater

28.

Which of the following is the greatest attenuator of the x-ray beam?

a)

Psoas muscle

b)

Perirenal fat

c)

Pneumonic lung

d)

Pericardial fat

29.

Which grid would most effectively reduce scatter?

a)

8:1

b)

12:1

c)

6:1

d)

15:1

30.

A device that moves the grid during a radiographic exposure is called a(n):

a)

Potter-Bucky diaphragm

b)

Alternator

c)

Focused grid

d)

Oscillator

31.

The number of grid lines per inch is the grid:

a)

Ratio

b)

Speed

c)

Frequency

d)

Focus

32.

The ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance between the lead strips is the grid:

a)

Ratio

b)

Selectivity

c)

Speed

d)

Frequency

33.

The primary purpose of using a radiographic grid is to:

a)

Intercept remnant radiation

b)

Remove a percentage of scatter photons

c)

Decrease skin exposure to patients

d)

Remove undesired primary photons

34.

The Moiré effect occurs when:

a)

The tube is angled with the grid

b)

Grid lines run parallel to the scan lines of a digital image

c)

The patient moves during the exposure

d)

The SID is too long

35.

The purpose of an LUT is to:

a)

Apply a predetermined scale of contrast to the digital data set

b)

Determine the exposure index

c)

Create the histogram

d)

Perform geometric processing

36.

The primary source of radiation exposure for occupational personnel is due to:

(a)  

37.

A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 6 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid. A second film is requested using an 8:1 grid with a conversion factor of 4. What mAs is needed?

a)

24 mAs

b)

12 mAs

c)

6 mAs

d)

18 mAs

38.

When matrix size is increased and pixel size goes down:

a)

Spatial resolution decreases

b)

Spatial resolution increases

c)

Contrast increases

d)

Both a and c

39.

In an emergency when a grid is unavailable, a way to simulate grid effect is to:

a)

Grid suppression software

b)

Turn the detector over

40.

X-rays transmitted through the patient without interaction contribute to:

a)

Patient radiation dose

b)

Scatter radiation

c)

Useful information

d)

Image noise

41.

As subject density ____, image receptor exposure ____.

a)

Increases; decreases

b)

Increases; remains the same

c)

Decreases; decreases

d)

Increases; increases

42.

__________ refers to the misrepresentation of the size or shape of a structure.

a)

Distortion

b)

Resolution

c)

Magnification

d)

Contrast

43.

All of the following refer to patient factors contributing to image quality EXCEPT:

a)

Receptor contrast

b)

Subject detail

c)

Subject contrast

d)

Tissue density

44.

Total photon absorption leads to ________.

a)

Photoelectric effect

b)

Compton scattering

c)

Pair production

d)

Rayleigh scattering

45.

Basic composition of the liver is ________.

a)

Water

b)

Fat

c)

Calcium

d)

Glucose

46.

6.46 is associated with ________.

a)

Fat

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Vitamin

47.

Larger patients impact this negatively: ________.

a)

Subject detail

b)

Image brightness

c)

Scan duration

d)

Contrast resolution

48.

Subject contrast is high in the ________.

a)

Knee

b)

Liver

c)

Brain

d)

Heart

49.

Very low attenuation is associated with ________.

a)

Air

b)

Bone

c)

Muscle

d)

Fat

50.

Reduces image quality: ________.

a)

Compton scatter

b)

Photoelectric effect

c)

Pair production

d)

Bremsstrahlung

51.

A radiographic grid absorbs:

a)

All scatter and secondary electrons

b)

Scatter radiation

c)

Primary radiation

d)

Scatter electrons

52.

A grid is generally employed:

a)

For procedures below 60 kVp

b)

For pediatric studies

c)

For part thicknesses above 10 cm

d)

To improve positioning latitude

53.

The deviation index (DI):

a)

Compares entrance dose to the detector to an established department target dose

b)

Compares DQE and MTF

c)

Compares exit dose to the detector

d)

Compares entrance dose to the patient

54.

Analog to digital conversion involves two steps: quantification and .

(a)  

55.

Digital radiographic systems are divided into:

a)

Storage phosphor and PSP

b)

CR and storage phosphor

c)

Direct and indirect conversion

d)

Laser digitizers and selenium plates

56.

The degree of differential absorption is referred to as:

a)

Image receptor exposure

b)

Material contrast

c)

Subject density

d)

Subject contrast

57.

When using a radiographic grid with CR:

a)

The Moiré effect is a consideration

b)

Higher frequency grids are undesirable

c)

Grids are unnecessary

d)

None of the above

58.

Exposure indicators in digital radiography:

4 lines
59.

All of the following are true of local area processing EXCEPT:

a)

Spatial filtering is local

b)

Electronic magnification is local

c)

It relies on kernels

d)

Kernels are ultimately applied to the entire pixel data set

60.

In CR, the capture element is the:

a)

TFT

b)

Scintillation phosphor

c)

Photostimulable phosphor (PSP)

d)

CCD

61.

Which digital system uses photostimulable phosphor plates?

a)

Flat panel detector

b)

Computed Radiography (CR)

c)

Direct DR

d)

Indirect DR

62.

A condition that increases thickness or tissue density is called an:

(a)  

63.

The recorded detail of a structure depends on:

a)

Its position

b)

The body/film relationship

c)

The size of the part

d)

All of the above

64.

A voxel differs from a pixel in that it:

a)

Has only two dimensions

b)

Possesses a third dimension

c)

Controls pixel dimensions

d)

Controls audio volume

65.

The use of a radiographic grid requires:

a)

Attention to CR angulation

b)

Awareness of SID

c)

Increase in exposure

d)

All of the above

66.

The window width controls:

a)

Darkness

b)

Resolution

c)

Contrast

d)

Speed

67.

Image-forming x-rays include those:

4 lines
68.

When lead strips run in one direction, the grid pattern is:

a)

Criss-cross

b)

Tangential

c)

Linear

d)

Cross-hatched

69.

The luminescence of blue-violet light from a CR fluorohalide, due to laser stimulation:

a)

is directly related to the rescaling process.

b)

is proportional to the x-ray energy exposure.

c)

is inversely related to x-ray exposure.

d)

is not related to the x-ray exposure.

70.

DR panels are particularly vulnerable to:

a)

bodily fluids.

b)

extended exposure times.

c)

sterile fields and temperatures in surgery.

d)

very high kVp values.

71.

Extraneous information not representing the patient is called:

a)

signal loss.

b)

noise.

c)

data drop.

d)

an artifact.

72.

Underexposure using DR detectors will result in:

a)

photon saturation.

b)

quantum noise.

c)

less spatial resolution.

d)

electronic noise.

73.

Indirect DR uses _______ as the photoconductor material:

a)

amorphous selenium

b)

calcium tungstate

c)

gadolinium oxysulfide

d)

amorphous silicon

74.

What is the relationship between CR plate size and spatial resolution?

a)

The best CR spatial resolution is achieved with the smallest size CR plates

b)

Larger CR plates deliver better spatial resolution

c)

Plate size and image resolution have no relationship

d)

Smaller CR plates deliver less resolution due to a lower sampling frequency

75.

In the technology of CR, the latent image is actually:

a)

sensitivity specks in the barium fluorohalide.

b)

electron “holes” in Europium.

c)

the light from the phosphor following laser excitation of the reader assembly.

d)

free electrons in the amorphous silicon.

76.

Increasing mAs decreases image _________, which improves image clarity:

a)

Noise

b)

Contrast

c)

Sharpness

d)

Resolution

77.

All of the following will improve DR radiographic image resolution, EXCEPT:

a)

using lower kVp values.

b)

increasing the SID.

c)

high mA and shorter exposure times.

d)

using a small focal spot.

78.

What is the post-processing function used to eliminate brightness around the image edges called?

a)

Histogram equalization

b)

Electronic annotation

c)

Window leveling

d)

Electronic masking

79.

When adding annotation to a digital image, remember that:

a)

electronic annotation for patient laterality is unacceptable.

b)

all electronic annotation is legally acceptable.

c)

the annotation is a temporary indication of patient condition.

d)

the annotation needs to be added to the exam requisition as well.

80.

Readout of CR data is a line-by-line process that creates a:

a)

linear array.

b)

detector array grid.

c)

a series of sensitivity specks.

d)

raster pattern.

81.

DR and CR image receptors:

a)

require a reader mechanism to capture the image signal.

b)

have two classes: indirect and direct.

c)

display a quantitative measure of receptor exposure.

d)

work well with automatic exposure control.

82.

A panel has a fill factor of 85%. What % is occupied by non-sensing electronics?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

25%

83.

In CR, pixel pitch is dependent upon:

a)

sampling frequency

b)

laser energy wavelength of the reader

c)

viewing monitor size

d)

DEL size

84.

Pixel bit depth determines:

a)

image brightness

b)

pixel dimension

c)

gray shade levels

d)

spatial resolution

85.

In indirect DR detectors, the scintillator converts x-ray energy into:

a)

a. electrical signal

b)

b. electrons

c)

c. light energy

d)

d. gamma rays

86.

A common feature between indirect and direct DR technology is:

4 lines
87.

Select the TRUE statement regarding computer radiography (CR):

a)

Grids are of little value with CR

b)

Fixed mode on Fuji systems requires precise positioning

c)

CR imaging plates are very sensitive to post-exposure radiation.

d)

CR plate sampling rates determine image brightness

88.

Positioning an AP wrist projection off-center using CR may lead to:

a)

preprocessing errors

b)

incorrect histogram analysis

c)

suboptimum image quality

d)

all of the above

89.

Underexposed radiographic images demonstrate:

a)

increased contrast

b)

decreased image brightness

c)

visibility of grid lines

d)

photon starvation

90.

The purpose of a charge-coupled device (CCD) in DR is to:

a)

convert x-ray energy into light

b)

act as a photoconductor

c)

collect light and convert it to electrons

d)

both b and c

91.

Fixed kVp exposure techniques require:

a)

automatic exposure control (AEC)

b)

an optimum threshold kVp

c)

a minimum mA

d)

radiographic grids

92.

CR systems acquire clinical information by:

a)

gathering light from a scintillator

b)

direct digital transformation of x-rays to selenium

c)

laser scanning a PSP plate

d)

capturing light from a CCD

93.

The final image appearance in terms of brightness and contrast is primarily due to:

a)

data rescaling

b)

the application of a look up table

c)

total exposure to the detector

d)

window and level controls

94.

The relationship between detector “fill-factor” and spatial resolution is:

a)

indirect

b)

not a factor

c)

indirect based on DEL depth

d)

direct

95.

According to the AAPM, a DI value of +4 indicates:

a)

optimum exposure

b)

underexposure

c)

mid-range exposure

d)

overexposure and an ALARA violation

96.

A DR detector that is integral to the x-ray system means:

a)

uses wireless tech

b)

is built into the x-ray unit

c)

is not hard-wired

d)

must be used with generator interface

97.

Which of the following factors would decrease remnant radiation exposure to a DR detector?

a)

using an 8” air-gap

b)

increasing kVp and keeping mAs the same

c)

switching from an 8:1 grid to a 4:1 grid

d)

increasing kVp from 75 to 87 and halving mAs

98.

The total amount of clinically significant diagnostic image information is:

a)

diagnostic acuity

b)

image fidelity

c)

diagnostic yield

d)

diagnostic efficacy