wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Community Mental Health and Nursing History Quiz

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary purpose of the Community Mental Health Center Act of 1963 was to

a)

get better treatment in larger, more urban areas.

b)

move clients to their home communities for treatment.

c)

provide former clients with employment opportunities.

d)

remove the stigma of living in an institution.

2.

Managed care is designed to

a)

control health care costs by limiting access to care.

b)

keep health care costs from increasing over time.

c)

limit the amount of money paid to physicians and hospitals.

d)

maintain a balance between the quality and costs of health care.

3.

Hospitals established by Dorothea Dix were designed to provide

a)

asylum.

b)

confinement.

c)

therapeutic milieu.

d)

public safety.

4.

Hildegard Peplau is best known for her writing about

a)

community-based care.

b)

humane treatment.

c)

psychopharmacology.

d)

therapeutic nurse–client relationship.

5.

What do mental health parity laws ensure?

a)

Better quality mental health treatment.

b)

Equality in insurance coverage for mental illness.

c)

Mental health treatment without stigma.

d)

That persons receiving treatment really need it.

6.

Who was the first American psychiatric nurse?

a)

Dorothea Dix

b)

Linda Richards

c)

Hildegard Peplau

d)

Emil Kraepelin

7.

Which person is associated with the moral treatment of the mentally ill?

a)

Hildegard Peplau

b)

Dorothea Dix

c)

Philippe Pinel

d)

Emil Kraepelin

8.

Who is known for the therapeutic nurse–client relationship?

a)

Linda Richards

b)

Hildegard Peplau

c)

William Dukes

d)

Dorothea Dix

9.

Which individuals are associated with the concept of asylum as a safe refuge?

a)

Emil Kraepelin and Dorothea Dix

b)

Philippe Pinel and William Dukes

c)

Linda Richards and Hildegard Peplau

d)

Dorothea Dix and William Dukes

10.

Who is known for the classification of mental disorders according to symptoms?

a)

Hildegard Peplau

b)

Philippe Pinel

c)

Emil Kraepelin

d)

Linda Richards

11.

Which of the following is a strategy to increase the number of people receiving treatment for mental illness?

a)

Decreasing the number of clinics

b)

Increasing community-based clinics and screening in primary settings

c)

Reducing insurance coverage

d)

Limiting mental health education

12.

The nurse is teaching a client taking an MAOI about foods with tyramine that they should avoid. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

a)

I’m so glad I can have pizza as long as I don’t order pepperoni.

b)

I will be able to eat cottage cheese without worrying.

c)

I will have to avoid drinking nonalcoholic beer.

d)

I can eat green beans on this diet.

13.

A client who has been depressed and suicidal started taking a tricyclic antidepressant 2 weeks ago and is now ready to leave the hospital to go home. Which is a concern for the nurse as discharge plans are finalized?

a)

The client may need a prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to use for side effects.

b)

The nurse will evaluate the risk for suicide by overdose of the tricyclic antidepressant.

c)

The nurse will need to include teaching regarding the signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

d)

The client will need regular laboratory work to monitor therapeutic drug levels.

14.

Which of the following is a serious side effect of lithium toxicity?

a)

Sedation, fever, and restlessness

b)

Psychomotor agitation, insomnia, and increased thirst

c)

Elevated WBC count, sweating, and confusion

d)

Severe vomiting, diarrhea, and weakness

15.

Which is a concern for children taking stimulants for ADHD for several years?

a)

Dependence on the drug

b)

Insomnia

c)

Growth suppression

d)

Weight gain

16.

A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who is taking haloperidol (Haldol) and complains of restlessness, inability to sit still, and muscle stiffness. Which prn medication should the nurse administer?

a)

Haloperidol (Haldol), 5 mg PO

b)

Benztropine (Cogentin), 2 mg PO

c)

Propranolol (Inderal), 20 mg PO

d)

Trazodone, 50 mg PO

17.

Client teaching for lamotrigine (Lamictal) should include which instruction?

a)

Eat a well-balanced diet to avoid weight gain.

b)

Report any rashes to your doctor immediately.

c)

Take each dose with food to avoid nausea.

d)

This drug may cause psychological dependence.

18.

Which physician order would the nurse question for a client who has stated, “I’m allergic to phenothiazines?”

a)

Haldol, 5 mg PO bid

b)

Navane, 10 mg PO bid

c)

Prolixin, 5 mg PO tid

d)

None of the above

19.

Clients taking which type of psychotropic medications need close monitoring of their cardiac status?

a)

Antidepressants

b)

Antipsychotics

c)

Mood stabilizers

d)

Stimulants

20.

Which of the following medications is classified as an atypical antipsychotic?

a)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

b)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

c)

Clozapine (Clozaril)

d)

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

21.

Fluoxetine (Prozac) belongs to which drug classification?

a)

SSRI antidepressant

b)

Tricyclic antidepressant

c)

Anticonvulsant

d)

Stimulant

22.

Which medication is a tricyclic antidepressant?

a)

Benzotropine (Cogentin)

b)

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

c)

Clonazepam (Klonopin)

d)

Quetiapine (Seroquel)

23.

Benzotropine (Cogentin) is best classified as which of the following?

a)

Anticonvulsant

b)

Anticholinergic

c)

Stimulant

d)

SSRI antidepressant

24.

Which of the following is a stimulant medication?

a)

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

b)

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

c)

Clozapine (Clozaril)

d)

Clonazepam (Klonopin)

25.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is classified as which type of medication?

a)

Benzodiazepine

b)

Anticonvulsant (mood stabilizer)

c)

Tricyclic antidepressant

d)

Anticholinergic

26.

Clonazepam (Klonopin) belongs to which drug class?

a)

Stimulant

b)

Benzodiazepine

c)

SSRI antidepressant

d)

Atypical antipsychotic

27.

Quetiapine (Seroquel) is best classified as which of the following?

a)

Tricyclic antidepressant

b)

Atypical antipsychotic

c)

Anticholinergic

d)

Stimulant

28.

Which theorist believed that a corrective interpersonal relationship with the therapist was the primary mode of treatment?

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

William Glasser

c)

Hildegard Peplau

d)

Harry Stack Sullivan

29.

Dream analysis and free association are techniques in which modality?

a)

Client-centered therapy

b)

Gestalt therapy

c)

Logotherapy

d)

Psychoanalysis

30.

Four levels of anxiety were described by

a)

Erik Erikson

b)

Sigmund Freud

c)

Hildegard Peplau

d)

Carl Jung

31.

What is the rationale for tapering psychotropic medication doses before the client discontinues the drug?

a)

To increase the effectiveness of the medication

b)

To prevent rebound effect and withdrawal symptoms

c)

To reduce the cost of medication

d)

To speed up the treatment process

32.

What teaching should be provided to a client scheduled for a PET scan?

a)

The client will be asked to fast for 24 hours before the scan

b)

A radioactive substance will be injected, and the client will perform thinking tasks while brain scans are taken

c)

The client will need to avoid all medications before the scan

d)

The scan is performed without any injections or tasks

33.

How does the kindling process relate to manic episodes in bipolar affective disorder?

a)

It prevents the occurrence of manic episodes

b)

Mild or small manic mood swings can trigger a major, acute manic episode, similar to how kindling starts a larger fire

c)

It is unrelated to mood swings

d)

It only applies to depressive episodes

34.

Correcting how one thinks about the world and oneself is the focus of which type of therapy?

a)

behaviorism.

b)

cognitive therapy.

c)

psychoanalysis.

d)

reality therapy.

35.

Who described the personality structures of id, ego, and superego?

a)

Sigmund Freud.

b)

Hildegard Peplau.

c)

Frederick Perls.

d)

Harry Stack Sullivan.

36.

The nursing role that involves being a substitute for another, such as a parent, is called what?

a)

counselor.

b)

resource person.

c)

surrogate.

d)

teacher.

37.

Psychiatric rehabilitation focuses on which of the following?

a)

client’s strengths.

b)

medication compliance.

c)

social skills deficits.

d)

symptom reduction.

38.

When a nurse develops feelings toward a client that are based on the nurse’s past experience, what is this called?

a)

countertransference.

b)

role reversal.

c)

transference.

d)

projection.

39.

A group that was designed to meet weekly for 10 sessions to deal with feelings of depression would be a(n)

a)

closed group.

b)

educational group.

c)

open group.

d)

support group.

40.

Who is the theorist associated with the idea that "The client is the key to their own healing"?

a)

Carl Rogers

b)

Erik Erikson

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

B.F. Skinner

41.

Which theorist emphasized that social and psychological factors influence development?

a)

Erik Erikson

b)

Carl Rogers

c)

Frederick Perls

d)

Albert Ellis

42.

Who proposed that behavior change occurs through conditioning with environmental stimuli?

a)

Ivan Pavlov

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Carl Rogers

d)

Albert Ellis

43.

According to which theorist do people make themselves unhappy by clinging to irrational beliefs?

a)

Albert Ellis

b)

Frederick Perls

c)

Erik Erikson

d)

Ivan Pavlov

44.

Who believed that behavior is learned from past experience that is reinforcing?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

Carl Rogers

c)

Erik Erikson

d)

Frederick Perls

45.

Which therapy is Carl Rogers most closely associated with?

a)

Client-centered therapy

b)

Gestalt therapy

c)

Rational emotive therapy

d)

Behavioral therapy

46.

Who is the founder of Gestalt therapy?

a)

Frederick Perls

b)

Carl Rogers

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

Albert Ellis

47.

Who is associated with the development of the "Hierarchy of Needs" theory?

a)

Viktor Frankl

b)

Albert Ellis

c)

William Glasser

d)

Abraham Maslow

48.

Which therapy was developed by Viktor Frankl?

a)

Rational emotive therapy

b)

Reality therapy

c)

Logotherapy

d)

Group psychotherapy

49.

Albert Ellis is best known for which type of therapy?

a)

Reality therapy

b)

Rational emotive therapy

c)

Logotherapy

d)

Group psychotherapy

50.

Which of the following therapies is William Glasser associated with?

a)

Rational emotive therapy

b)

Logotherapy

c)

Reality therapy

d)

Hierarchy of needs

51.

What is the main purpose of group psychotherapy?

a)

To learn about a particular topic from an expert

b)

To benefit one another and make some change through shared group sessions

c)

To help members cope with life stress, events, illness, or problems

d)

To run a group based on a common experience

52.

Which type of group is focused on members learning about a specific topic from someone with expertise?

a)

Support group

b)

Education group

c)

Self-help group

d)

Group psychotherapy

53.

In which type of group do members help themselves and each other cope with life stress, events, illness, or problems?

a)

Education group

b)

Group psychotherapy

c)

Support group

d)

Self-help group

54.

Which group is structured around a common experience and is run by the group members themselves?

a)

Education group

b)

Self-help group

c)

Support group

d)

Group psychotherapy

55.

A group of people who meet to discuss and support each other through a shared experience, without a professional leader, is best described as which type of group?

a)

Education group

b)

Group psychotherapy

c)

Self-help group

d)

Support group

56.

If a group is led by a professional and aims to help members make changes in their lives, what type of group is this?

a)

Support group

b)

Education group

c)

Group psychotherapy

d)

Self-help group

57.

All are characteristics of ACT except which?

a)

Services are provided in the home or community.

b)

Services are provided by the client’s case manager.

c)

There are no time limitations on ACT services.

d)

All necessary support systems are involved in ACT.

58.

Inpatient psychiatric care focuses on all the following except

a)

brief interventions.

b)

discharge planning.

c)

independent living skills.

d)

symptom management.

59.

Which intervention is an example of primary prevention implemented by a public health nurse?

a)

Reporting suspected child abuse

b)

Monitoring compliance with medications for a client with schizophrenia

c)

Teaching effective problem-solving skills to high school students

d)

Helping a client apply for disability benefits

60.

The primary purpose of psychiatric rehabilitation is to

a)

control psychiatric symptoms.

b)

manage clients’ medications.

c)

promote the recovery process.

d)

reduce hospital readmissions.

61.

Which of the following is the primary function of a psychiatric social worker?

a)

Develop vocational skills.

b)

Improve medication compliance.

c)

Provide community skills training.

d)

Teach social skills.

62.

The mentally ill homeless population benefits most from which of the following?

a)

Case management services.

b)

Outpatient psychiatric care to manage psychiatric symptoms.

c)

Stable housing in a residential neighborhood.

d)

A combination of housing, rehabilitation services, and community support.

63.

Which interdisciplinary team member works with families, community supports, and referrals?

a)

Psychiatrist

b)

Occupational Therapist

c)

Vocational rehabilitation specialist

d)

Psychiatric social worker

64.

Who focuses on functional abilities and work using arts and crafts in the interdisciplinary team?

a)

Psychiatric social worker

b)

Occupational Therapist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Vocational rehabilitation specialist

65.

Which team member is responsible for making diagnoses and prescribing treatment?

a)

Psychiatric social worker

b)

Occupational Therapist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Vocational rehabilitation specialist

66.

Who emphasizes job-seeking and job retention skills in the interdisciplinary team?

a)

Psychiatric social worker

b)

Occupational Therapist

c)

Psychiatrist

d)

Vocational rehabilitation specialist

67.

Consider the barriers to community reintegration for mentally ill offenders. Which of the following sets best represents three common barriers?

a)

Access to education, family support, and stable employment

b)

Stigma, lack of housing, and limited access to mental health services

c)

Peer pressure, substance abuse, and high income

d)

Overcrowded housing, excessive leisure time, and high self-esteem

68.

Building trust is important in

a)

the orientation phase of the relationship.

b)

the problem identification subphase of the relationship.

c)

all phases of the relationship.

d)

the exploitation subphase of the relationship.

69.

Abstract standards that provide a person with their code of conduct are

a)

values.

b)

attitudes.

c)

beliefs.

d)

personal philosophy.

70.

Ideas that one holds as true are:

a)

values.

b)

attitudes.

c)

beliefs.

d)

personal philosophy.

71.

The emotional frame of reference by which one sees the world is created by:

a)

values.

b)

attitudes.

c)

beliefs.

d)

personal philosophy.

72.

A client tells the nurse, “My biggest problem right now is trying to deal with a divorce. I didn’t want a divorce and I still don’t. But it is happening anyway!” Which of the following responses by the nurse will convey empathy?

a)

Can you tell me about it?

b)

I’m so sorry. No wonder you’re upset.

c)

Sounds like it has been a difficult time.

d)

You must be devastated.

73.

Which are specific tasks of the working phase of a therapeutic relationship? Select all that apply.

a)

Build trust.

b)

Begin planning for termination.

c)

Promote self-esteem.

d)

Facilitate behavior change.

e)

Encourage expression of feelings.

74.

When can a nurse share information about a client while respecting confidentiality?

a)

The client threatens to harm a family member.

b)

Sharing the information is in the client’s best interest.

c)

The client gives written permission.

d)

The client’s legal guardian asks for information.

75.

What is an appropriate way for a nurse to introduce themselves to a suspicious client who does not want to talk?

a)

Use short direct statements introducing self.

b)

Ignore the client until they are ready to talk.

c)

Ask the client personal questions immediately.

d)

Tell the client they must talk now.

76.

How can a nurse assure a client like R.J. that they do not have to talk immediately?

a)

I will be available if you have any questions or need something.

b)

You must talk to me now.

c)

I don’t have time to wait for you.

d)

You should talk to me whether you want to or not.

77.

What is a good way for a nurse to show interest in a client’s well-being?

a)

Let the client know you are interested by actions as well as words.

b)

Only check on the client if they ask for help.

c)

Avoid following up with the client.

d)

Tell the client you are too busy to check on them.

78.

This is an example of which therapeutic communication technique? Client: “I had an accident.” Nurse: “Tell me about your accident.”

a)

Making observations

b)

Offering self

c)

General lead

d)

Reflection

79.

“Earlier today you said you were concerned that your son was still upset with you. When I stopped by your room about an hour ago, you and your son seemed relaxed and smiling as you spoke to each other. How did things go between the two of you?” This is an example of which therapeutic communication technique?

a)

Consensual validation

b)

Encouraging comparison

c)

Accepting

d)

General lead

80.

“Why do you always complain about the night nurse? She is a nice woman and a fine nurse and has five kids to support. You’re wrong when you say she is noisy and uncaring.” This example reflects which nontherapeutic technique?

a)

Requesting an explanation

b)

Defending

c)

Disagreeing

d)

Advising

81.

“How does T. make you upset?” is a nontherapeutic communication technique because it

a)

gives a literal response.

b)

indicates an external source of the emotion.

c)

interprets what the client is saying.

82.

This is a nontherapeutic response because the nurse has

a)

used testing to evaluate the client’s insight.

b)

changed the topic.

c)

exhibited an egocentric focus.

d)

advised the client what to do.

83.

When the client says, “I met J. at the dance last week,” what is the best way for the nurse to ask the client to describe her relationship with Joe?

a)

“J. who?”

b)

“Tell me about J.”

c)

“Tell me about you and J.”

d)

“J., you mean that blond guy with the dark blue eyes?”

84.

Which of the following is a concrete message?

a)

“Help me put this pile of books on M.’s desk.”

b)

“Get this out of here.”

c)

“When is she coming home?”

d)

“They said it is too early to get in.”

85.

What is one advantage of assertive communication?

a)

all persons’ rights are respected.

b)

only the speaker’s needs are met.

c)

it avoids all types of conflict.

d)

it discourages open dialogue.

86.

Which of the following is a benefit of assertive communication?

a)

it gains approval from others.

b)

it protects the speaker from being exploited.

c)

the speaker can say no to another person’s request.

d)

the speaker can safely express thoughts and feelings.

87.

Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic communication response?

a)

“Don’t worry; everybody has a bad day occasionally.”

b)

“I don’t think your mother will appreciate that behavior.”

c)

“Let’s talk about something else.”

d)

“Tell me more about your discharge plans.”

88.

Which of the following responses encourages a patient to reflect on their feelings?

a)

“That sounds like a great idea.”

b)

“What might you do the next time you’re feeling angry?”

c)

“Don’t worry; everybody has a bad day occasionally.”

d)

“Let’s talk about something else.”