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Cell Biology and Histology Quiz

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The organelle that produces the majority of cellular energy in the form of ATP is the:

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleus

e)

Golgi apparatus

2.

The plasma membrane provides a selective barrier between the intracellular and extracellular environments. Its basic framework is formed by:

a)

A single layer of lipids

b)

A double layer of phospholipids with embedded proteins

c)

A continuous layer of carbohydrates

d)

Cholesterol molecules only

e)

A network of collagen fibers

3.

Proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum are further processed and packaged in the:

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Nucleolus

e)

Peroxisomes

4.

Intracellular digestion and removal of worn-out organelles occur through the activity of:

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Centrioles

e)

Endosomes

5.

Ribosomes are essential for cellular metabolism because they are responsible for:

a)

Synthesis of proteins from messenger RNA

b)

Production of ATP by oxidative reactions

c)

Storage of calcium ions

d)

Breakdown of waste products

e)

Regulation of cell division

6.

The maintenance of a stable internal environment despite external variations is known as:

a)

Adaptation

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Regulation

d)

Transformation

e)

Stabilization

7.

The process by which sweating restores normal body temperature after overheating is an example of:

a)

A negative feedback mechanism

b)

A positive feedback mechanism

c)

A cyclic inhibition

d)

Reflex acceleration

e)

A feed-forward system

8.

Oxygen molecules move from the alveoli of the lungs into pulmonary capillary blood primarily through:

a)

Active transport using ATP

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion through lipid membranes

d)

Endocytosis

e)

Osmotic transport

9.

The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to one of higher solute concentration is termed:

a)

Filtration

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

e)

Pinocytosis

10.

The absorption of glucose in intestinal cells together with sodium ions utilizes the sodium gradient established by ATP, representing:

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Primary active transport

c)

Secondary active transport

d)

Osmotic exchange

e)

Facilitated diffusion

11.

A tissue is best described as:

a)

A group of similar cells performing a specific function

b)

A collection of unrelated cell types

c)

A combination of organs with different structures

d)

A fluid matrix of blood components

e)

An independent system of nerve endings

12.

The four principal tissue types found in the human body are epithelial, connective, muscular, and:

a)

Endocrine

b)

Lymphatic

c)

Nervous

d)

Cartilaginous

e)

Skeletal

13.

The lining of alveoli in the lungs is formed by:

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

d)

Stratified squamous epithelium

e)

Transitional epithelium

14.

The mucosal surface of the trachea is lined by:

a)

Simple columnar epithelium without cilia

b)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

e)

Transitional epithelium

15.

The connective tissue that provides elasticity and supports surrounding organs is:

a)

Areolar connective tissue

b)

Dense regular connective tissue

c)

Reticular connective tissue

d)

Elastic cartilage

e)

Compact bone

16.

The strong attachment between muscles and bones is provided by dense regular connective tissue due to the presence of:

a)

Parallel bundles of collagen fibers

b)

Randomly arranged reticular fibers

c)

Abundant ground substance

d)

Sparse fibroblast distribution

e)

Interlacing elastic networks

17.

Skeletal muscle can be identified under the microscope by:

a)

Long, striated fibers with multiple peripheral nuclei

b)

Short, branched fibers with central nuclei

c)

Spindle-shaped non-striated cells

d)

Randomly arranged collagen bundles

e)

Lack of organized filaments

18.

Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle by the presence of:

a)

Intercalated discs joining branched fibers

b)

Peripheral nuclei and absence of striations

c)

Multiple nuclei in each cell

d)

Smooth non-striated appearance

e)

Voluntary contraction pattern

19.

The functional unit of skeletal muscle responsible for contraction is known as the sarcomere. Which structural boundaries define a single sarcomere?

a)

Z-line to Z-line

b)

M-line to M-line

c)

H-zone to H-zone

d)

A-band to I-band

e)

Endomysium to perimysium

20.

During the process of muscle contraction, specific zones of the sarcomere undergo characteristic changes. Which statement accurately describes these changes?

a)

The A-band shortens while the I-band remains constant.

b)

The I-band and H-zone become narrower as filaments slide.

c)

The M-line disappears completely.

d)

The entire sarcomere lengthens during contraction.

e)

The H-zone widens due to actin detachment.

21.

The initiation of skeletal muscle contraction requires the binding of calcium ions to a regulatory protein complex on the thin filament. This protein complex is the:

a)

Troponin complex

b)

Tropomyosin chain

c)

Myosin head region

d)

Calmodulin protein

e)

Actinin molecule

22.

The intracellular store of calcium that triggers skeletal muscle contraction is located in the:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Nucleus

e)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes

23.

The sliding-filament theory explains muscle shortening as a result of:

a)

Reduction in filament length through ATP hydrolysis

b)

Sliding of actin over myosin without change in individual filament length

c)

Conversion of actin into myosin filaments

d)

Shortening of myosin molecules themselves

e)

Disappearance of A-bands during contraction

24.

The absence of a nucleus in mature human erythrocytes serves to:

a)

Allow active cell division in circulation

b)

Provide greater flexibility and surface area for gas exchange

c)

Increase DNA storage capacity

d)

Facilitate hemoglobin synthesis

e)

Enable self-repair mechanisms

25.

The average life span of circulating red blood cells in humans is approximately:

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

e)

200 days

26.

Under conditions of hypoxia, the hormone that stimulates erythrocyte production is secreted predominantly by the:

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Spleen

d)

Bone marrow

e)

Lung

27.

Platelets are formed in the bone marrow through cytoplasmic fragmentation of large precursor cells known as:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Megakaryocytes

d)

Monocytes

e)

Reticulocytes

28.

The immediate vascular response following injury that helps reduce blood loss is termed:

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vascular spasm

c)

Platelet aggregation

d)

Clot retraction

e)

Fibrinolysis

29.

The primary physiological role of platelets is to:

a)

Transport oxygen to tissues

b)

Release mediators initiating blood clot formation

c)

Carry antibodies in plasma

d)

Regulate osmotic pressure

e)

Synthesize albumin

30.

The majority of plasma clotting factors are synthesized by the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Spleen

d)

Thymus

e)

Bone marrow

31.

Individuals with blood group O can donate red blood cells to all ABO types because their cells:

a)

Lack both A and B antigens on the surface

b)

Contain both A and B antibodies in plasma

c)

Possess the Rh antigen only

d)

Have universal plasma compatibility

e)

Are resistant to hemolysis

32.

Individuals with blood group AB can receive red cells from any ABO donor because their plasma:

a)

Contains only anti-A antibodies

b)

Contains only anti-B antibodies

c)

Lacks both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

d)

Contains complement proteins only

e)

Contains natural hemolysins

33.

Immunity acquired following vaccination is categorized as:

a)

Natural active immunity

b)

Artificial active immunity

c)

Natural passive immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

e)

Innate immunity

34.

Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that it:

a)

Produces long-term memory responses

b)

Develops slowly but lasts indefinitely

c)

Provides immediate short-term protection using pre-formed antibodies

d)

Requires antigen presentation to lymphocytes

e)

Is mediated only by T-cells

35.

The predominant leukocytes involved in the early phagocytic response to bacterial infection are:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Monocytes

36.

An increased eosinophil count is most characteristic of:

a)

Acute bacterial infection

b)

Viral infection

c)

Allergic reaction or parasitic infestation

d)

Autoimmune disorder

e)

Iron deficiency anemia

37.

Basophils contribute to inflammatory and hypersensitivity reactions through release of:

a)

Histamine and heparin

b)

Interferons

c)

Complement proteins

d)

Cytotoxic T-cell factors

e)

Lysozymes

38.

Monocytes that migrate into tissues differentiate into:

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Fibroblasts

39.

Lymphocytes are the principal cells responsible for:

a)

Blood clot formation

b)

Adaptive immune responses

c)

Histamine release

d)

Oxygen transport

e)

Complement activation

40.

Plasma cells are specialized to:

a)

Produce antibodies (immunoglobulins)

b)

Phagocytose bacteria

c)

Release histamine

d)

Transport oxygen

e)

Synthesize hemoglobin

41.

The first immunoglobulin to appear in the primary immune response is:

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

e)

IgD

42.

Immunological memory following infection is mediated by:

a)

Basophils

b)

Memory B and T lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Macrophages

43.

Complement proteins enhance host defense primarily by:

a)

Blocking antibody production

b)

Opsonizing pathogens and promoting cell lysis

c)

Inhibiting inflammation

d)

Preventing phagocytosis

e)

Neutralizing antigens chemically

44.

The rate of simple diffusion across a cell membrane increases when:

a)

The solute has a larger molecular size

b)

The membrane surface area becomes greater

c)

The concentration gradient becomes smaller

d)

The membrane thickness increases

e)

Temperature decreases

45.

The sodium–potassium pump maintains ionic gradients across the plasma membrane by:

a)

Moving three sodium ions into the cell and two potassium ions out

b)

Moving three sodium ions out and two potassium ions into the cell using ATP

c)

Allowing sodium and potassium to diffuse freely

d)

Exchanging ions without energy requirement

e)

Transporting both ions along their gradients

46.

Glucose absorption in intestinal epithelial cells occurs through:

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Sodium-dependent secondary active transport

c)

Primary active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion without sodium involvement

e)

Endocytosis

47.

Facilitated diffusion differs from simple diffusion because it:

a)

Requires ATP for transport

b)

Occurs only in plant cells

c)

Uses specific carrier or channel proteins

d)

Moves molecules against concentration gradient

e)

Is limited only by lipid solubility

48.

When a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, it will:

a)

Shrink due to water loss

b)

Swell and possibly burst

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Lose hemoglobin only

e)

Undergo crenation

49.

Osmotic pressure of plasma is mainly maintained by:

a)

Sodium chloride

b)

Plasma albumin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Glucose

e)

Potassium ions

50.

The plasma membrane allows selective passage of substances because it is:

a)

Fully permeable

b)

Semipermeable with specific protein channels

c)

Impenetrable to all charged molecules

d)

Composed entirely of carbohydrates

e)

Lined with cellulose

51.

Red blood cells are destroyed primarily in the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Liver and spleen

c)

Kidney

d)

Lung capillaries

e)

Intestinal villi

52.

The major function of hemoglobin is to:

a)

Buffer blood pH only

b)

Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between tissues and lungs

c)

Produce energy for the erythrocyte

d)

Activate platelets for clotting

e)

Convert CO₂ into bicarbonate

53.

The lifespan of circulating platelets in human blood is approximately:

a)

2 days

b)

5–9 days

c)

20 days

d)

60 days

e)

120 days

54.

Blood coagulation begins with the activation of:

a)

Plasma albumin

b)

Clotting factors in a cascade reaction

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Lymphocytes

e)

Complement proteins

55.

Blood coagulation begins with the activation of:

a)

Plasma albumin

b)

Clotting factors in a cascade reaction

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Lymphocytes

e)

Complement proteins

56.

The main white blood cells responsible for antibody production are:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

Monocytes

e)

Eosinophils

57.

The complement system assists immune defense by:

a)

Destroying antibodies

b)

Enhancing phagocytosis and cell lysis

c)

Inhibiting inflammation

d)

Blocking cytokine release

e)

Neutralizing oxygen radicals

58.

Monocytes in circulating blood become highly phagocytic when they:

a)

Enter lymph nodes

b)

Migrate into tissues and transform into macrophages

c)

Are activated by antibodies

d)

Multiply within capillaries

e)

Lose their lysosomes

59.

An individual who lacks Rh antigen on red cells is described as:

a)

Rh positive

b)

Rh negative

c)

ABO neutral

d)

Universal recipient

e)

Antigenic carrier

60.

Passive immunity differs from active immunity because it:

a)

Is acquired after vaccination

b)

Involves production of antibodies by the host

c)

Provides immediate but temporary protection

d)

Confers long-term memory

e)

Requires antigen processing by macrophages

61.

A blood sample shows a markedly reduced hematocrit. This finding indicates:

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Thrombocytosis

e)

Hemoconcentration

62.

The lipid bilayer of the cell membrane functions primarily to:

a)

Provide structural rigidity only

b)

Regulate selective permeability to substances

c)

Facilitate energy generation for cellular respiration

d)

Store genetic information

e)

Act as the main source of enzymes

63.

Membrane proteins that allow ions to pass through aqueous pores are called:

a)

Carrier proteins

b)

Channel proteins

c)

Receptor proteins

d)

Structural proteins

e)

Glycolipids

64.

Transport of sodium and glucose together across the intestinal mucosa illustrates:

a)

Primary active transport

b)

Secondary active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Endocytosis

e)

Osmosis

65.

When intracellular potassium concentration decreases, the membrane potential becomes:

a)

More negative (hyperpolarized)

b)

Less negative (depolarized)

c)

Unchanged

d)

Reversed completely

e)

Neutralized

66.

Vesicular transport of materials out of a cell is termed:

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Pinocytosis

d)

Phagocytosis

e)

Facilitated diffusion

67.

In homeostatic regulation, the sensor or receptor detects:

a)

The effector’s response

b)

Changes in the controlled variable

c)

The output from control center

d)

The feedback inhibition only

e)

None of the above

68.

Calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle contraction bind to:

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Troponin

c)

Calmodulin

d)

Myosin

e)

Actinin

69.

The connective tissue that stores fat and acts as an energy reserve is:

a)

Areolar tissue

b)

Reticular tissue

c)

Adipose tissue

d)

Elastic tissue

e)

Cartilage

70.

Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium is typically found in the:

a)

Oral cavity

b)

Esophagus

c)

Epidermis of skin

d)

Trachea

e)

Urinary bladder

71.

The extracellular matrix of bone is hardened by deposition of:

a)

Sodium carbonate

b)

Calcium phosphate crystals

c)

Potassium chloride

d)

Glycoproteins

e)

Collagen type III

72.

The connective tissue that connects muscles to bones and provides unidirectional tensile strength is:

a)

Dense irregular connective tissue

b)

Dense regular connective tissue

c)

Areolar tissue

d)

Reticular tissue

e)

Fibrocartilage

73.

Cardiac muscle fibers differ from skeletal muscle fibers in that they:

a)

Are voluntary and unbranched

b)

Contain intercalated discs and single central nuclei

c)

Lack striations

d)

Have peripheral nuclei only

e)

Are multinucleated

74.

The most abundant plasma protein contributing to colloid osmotic pressure is:

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Albumin

c)

Globulin

d)

Prothrombin

e)

Hemoglobin

75.

The average normal hematocrit value in healthy adult males is approximately:

a)

20%

b)

35%

c)

45%

d)

60%

e)

75%

76.

The main stimulus for erythropoietin secretion from the kidney is:

a)

Low plasma sodium

b)

Increased blood oxygen levels

c)

Decreased oxygen tension in renal tissue

d)

High plasma calcium

e)

Elevated hemoglobin concentration

77.

The primary function of white blood cells is to:

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Provide immune defense against pathogens

c)

Maintain osmotic balance

d)

Control blood pH

e)

Carry carbon dioxide

78.

The lifespan of circulating platelets is about:

a)

1–2 days

b)

5–9 days

c)

20 days

d)

60 days

e)

120 days

79.

The process of clot dissolution after healing is known as:

a)

Coagulation

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

Thrombosis

e)

Erythropoiesis

80.

Neutrophils destroy microorganisms by:

a)

Releasing antibodies

b)

Phagocytosis and enzymatic digestion

c)

Producing histamine

d)

Forming plasma proteins

e)

Activating complement directly

81.

The first antibody produced in a primary immune response is:

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

e)

IgD

82.

The major component of the cytoskeleton that provides structural support and maintains cell shape is:

a)

Microtubules

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Microfilaments

d)

Centrioles

e)

Cilia

83.

The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is termed:

a)

Filtration

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

e)

Pinocytosis

84.

Active transport differs from passive transport because it:

a)

Moves substances along the concentration gradient

b)

Requires carrier proteins and energy expenditure

c)

Occurs only in red blood cells

d)

Is independent of ATP

e)

Occurs faster at equilibrium

85.

The cytoplasmic extensions that increase surface area for absorption in epithelial cells are called:

a)

Microvilli

b)

Cilia

c)

Flagella

d)

Tonofilaments

e)

Desmosomes

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