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Adult Health I Final Exam Review Game

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Which preoperative teaching is most important to reduce the risk of postoperative complications?

a)

Explaining the surgical procedure

b)

Demonstrating incentive spirometry use

c)

Explaining the pain medication schedule

d)

Encouraging the patient to ambulate immediately after surgery

2.

Which medication should the nurse question before administering to a preoperative client scheduled for surgery in 2 hours?

a)

Famotidine

b)

Regular insulin

c)

Warfarin

d)

Cefazolin

3.

A post-op client is 2 hours out from abdominal surgery. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

a)

Absent bowel sounds

b)

Urine output of 20 mL/hr

c)

Pain rating of 7/10

d)

Temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C)

4.

A client post-hip replacement is found confused and restless. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Apply bilateral wrist restraints

b)

Notify the surgeon

c)

Assess oxygen saturation

d)

Administer prescribed analgesic

5.

A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which lab value should the nurse monitor closely?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Creatinine kinase

6.

A client with chest pain is suspected of having a myocardial infarction. Which intervention is the priority?

a)

Insert a Foley catheter

b)

Obtain a 12-lead ECG

c)

Provide teaching on cardiac catheterization

d)

Assess peripheral pulses

7.

The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I'll limit my alcohol intake to one drink per day.

b)

I will use salt substitutes instead of table salt.

c)

I will walk briskly for 30 minutes 5 days a week.

d)

I will take my medications only when my blood pressure is high.

8.

The nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell anemia who reports severe pain. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Encourage ambulation

b)

Administer prescribed opioid analgesic

c)

Apply cold compresses

d)

Educate the patient about non-pharmacological pain control methods

9.

A client with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

Take with milk to reduce GI upset

b)

Expect stools to turn black

c)

Take with antacids

d)

Report dark-colored urine

10.

A client with thrombocytopenia is at greatest risk for which complication?

a)

Infection

b)

Bleeding

c)

Fluid overload

d)

Hypoxia

11.

A client is admitted with community-acquired pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is a priority?

a)

Monitor bowel sounds

b)

Encourage fluid intake to 3 L/day

c)

Place the client in a supine position

d)

Limit ambulation until antibiotics are completed

12.

The nurse is caring for a client with COPD. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

a)

Barrel-shaped chest

b)

Use of accessory muscles

c)

Oxygen saturation of 88%

d)

New-onset confusion and drowsiness

13.

A client with chronic bronchitis has thick secretions and frequent coughing. What is the most helpful nursing intervention?

a)

Encourage rest and limit fluid intake

b)

Administer cough suppressants around the clock

c)

Encourage use of a humidifier and increase fluids

d)

Keep the client NPO until symptoms resolve

14.

A client is in the early stages of ARDS. Which finding would the nurse expect?

a)

Decreased respiratory rate and shallow breathing

b)

Crackles in lung bases and refractory hypoxemia

c)

Productive cough with green sputum

d)

Increased PaCO2 and increased HCO3-

15.

A client with COPD is prescribed home oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client asks to increase it to "help me breathe better." What is the nurse's best response?

a)

That’s fine if you're short of breath.

b)

It’s safe to adjust your oxygen as needed.

c)

You should not increase it because it can reduce your breathing drive.

d)

Let me show you how to increase it slowly.

16.

A client with Type 1 diabetes has the following blood glucose results: fasting 90 mg/dL and bedtime 210 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Increase the morning insulin dose

b)

Check the client's A1C

c)

Add an evening dose of intermediate insulin

d)

Instruct the client to reduce carbohydrate intake at breakfast

17.

A nurse is assessing a client with possible diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding supports this diagnosis?

a)

Bradycardia and low blood pressure

b)

Fruity breath and Kussmaul respirations

c)

Cold, clammy skin and tremors

d)

Shallow breathing and hypernatremia

18.

Which instruction should be included in discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes?

a)

You will not need insulin.

b)

Take your metformin even if you skip a meal.

c)

Check your blood glucose only when feeling ill.

d)

Carry a carbohydrate snack in case of hypoglycemia.

19.

The nurse is reviewing lab results for a diabetic client. Which result indicates poor long-term glucose control?

a)

Fasting glucose 130 mg/dL

b)

Random glucose 175 mg/dL

c)

A1C 9.2%

d)

Postprandial glucose 165 mg/dL

20.

A client with diabetes becomes diaphoretic and confused during a blood draw. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Call the provider

b)

Administer 50% dextrose IV

c)

Check blood glucose

d)

Offer orange juice

21.

A client with a suspected small bowel obstruction reports abdominal pain and vomiting. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

a)

Visible peristaltic waves

b)

Hypoactive bowel sounds

c)

Firm, distended abdomen with fever

d)

High-pitched bowel sounds in all quadrants

22.

A client is diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

a)

Encourage oral fluid intake

b)

Maintain the client NPO and insert NG tube

c)

Administer a laxative as ordered

d)

Position the client in high Fowler’s position

23.

Which assessment finding is most characteristic of Crohn’s disease?

a)

Bloody diarrhea with tenesmus

b)

Pain in the lower left quadrant

c)

Skip lesions throughout the GI tract

d)

Confined to the mucosa of the colon

24.

A client with ulcerative colitis reports 10 loose stools daily, cramping, and fatigue. What is the priority nursing concern?

a)

Skin breakdown

b)

Body image disturbance

c)

Risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalance

d)

Risk for constipation

25.

A client with open-angle glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. Which instruction should the nurse include?

a)

Instill drops directly onto the cornea.

b)

Hold pressure on the inner canthus after instilling the drops.

c)

Take the medication only when your eye feels painful.

d)

Use warm compresses to enhance absorption.

26.

Which symptom would suggest a client is experiencing acute angle-closure glaucoma?

a)

Gradual loss of peripheral vision

b)

Eye pain with halos around lights and nausea

c)

Painless central vision loss

d)

Eye dryness and photophobia

27.

A client with macular degeneration is most likely to report:

a)

Blurred central vision

b)

Tunnel vision

c)

Eye pain and tearing

d)

Loss of peripheral vision only at night

28.

Which symptom indicates a possible retinal detachment?

a)

Gradual loss of central vision

b)

Sudden appearance of floaters and a "curtain" appearance over the visual field

c)

Redness and crusting of eyelids

d)

Sudden eye pain and bilateral peripheral vision loss

29.

A client has a diagnosis of sensorineural hearing loss. Which finding is most consistent with this condition?

a)

Rinne test: bone conduction > air conduction

b)

Reports hearing better in noisy environments

c)

Difficulty hearing high-pitched tones

d)

Temporary hearing loss resolved with cerumen removal

30.

A client with conductive hearing loss in the right ear is undergoing a Weber test. What is the expected result?

a)

Sound lateralizes to the left ear

b)

Sound is not heard in either ear

c)

Sound lateralizes to the right ear

d)

Sound is equally heard in both ears

31.

Which cranial nerve is being tested when the nurse asks the client to smile and puff out their cheeks?

a)

CN V – Trigeminal

b)

CN VII – Facial

c)

CN IX – Glossopharyngeal

d)

CN XII – Hypoglossal

32.

To assess cranial nerve VIII, the nurse should:

a)

Check for hoarseness and gag reflex

b)

Evaluate the sense of taste

c)

Perform a whisper test or tuning fork test

d)

Ask the client to protrude the tongue

33.

The provider orders Heparin 5,000 units subcut every 8 hours. The vial reads 10,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

a)

0.25 mL

b)

0.5 mL

c)

1 mL

d)

1.5 mL

34.

Scenario: An 82-year-old client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and 3+ pitting edema in both lower extremities. Vital signs: BP 152/90, HR 96, RR 24, SpO2 90% on 2L nasal cannula. The nurse notes bilateral crackles at the lung bases. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Administer furosemide as prescribed

b)

Notify the healthcare provider of the client's status

c)

Place the client in high Fowler’s position

d)

Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL/day

35.

Scenario: The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a client with heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will weigh myself every morning before breakfast.

b)

I should report a weight gain of 2 pounds in 1 day.

c)

I will avoid canned soups and salty snacks.

d)

I should skip my diuretic if I haven't gained more than 2 lbs in 24 hours.

36.

A client with emphysema presents with increasing shortness of breath, dry cough, and fatigue. The nurse notes pursed-lip breathing and use of accessory muscles. SpO₂ is 89% on room air.

a)

Increase oxygen to 6 L/min via nasal cannula

b)

Encourage diaphragmatic and pursed-lip breathing

c)

Place the client in supine position for rest

d)

Administer cough suppressant as prescribed

37.

The nurse is teaching a client with emphysema about home management. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

a)

I will use a humidifier to reduce my oxygen level.

b)

I will avoid getting the flu vaccine to reduce congestion.

c)

I will eat small, frequent meals high in protein and calories.

d)

I should lie flat at night to sleep better.

38.

Scenario: A client is 6 hours post-op from abdominal surgery. The nurse notes the client is drowsy, SpO2 86% on 2L oxygen, RR 10, and the client hasn't ambulated. Breath sounds are diminished in the lower lobes. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Apply a non-rebreather mask

b)

Administer prescribed opioid analgesic

c)

Encourage incentive spirometry use and deep breathing

d)

Increase IV fluid rate

39.

A client is post-op day 1 after hip replacement surgery. The nurse notes redness, warmth, and tenderness in the left calf. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Massage the calf to relieve discomfort

b)

Notify the healthcare provider

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Apply compression stockings

40.

A client is 1 day post-op following bowel surgery. The nurse auscultates no bowel sounds in any quadrant and the client complains of nausea. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Offer clear liquids to stimulate peristalsis

b)

Document the finding and continue monitoring

c)

Administer antiemetic and notify the provider

d)

Encourage the client to eat small frequent meals