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Tax Quiz 4

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which tax was introduced by the British government in 1935 as a source of revenue?

a)

Income Tax

b)

Sales Tax

c)

Corporate Tax

d)

Excise Duty

2.

Who is regarded as the father of modern taxation and contributed significantly to tax theories?

a)

Karl Marx

b)

Adam Smith

c)

David Ricardo

d)

John Keynes

3.

Which Mauryan ruler is credited with implementing an efficient tax collection system?

a)

Ashoka

b)

Chandragupta Maurya

c)

Bindusara

d)

Brihadratha

4.

Which British-era tax was abolished post-independence in India?

a)

Salt Tax

b)

Land Revenue Tax

c)

Excise Duty

d)

Customs Duty

5.

Which of the following tax-related policies of the British contributed to agrarian distress and became a factor in the Revolt of 1857?

a)

Introduction of Income Tax Act, 1860

b)

Increase in land revenue under the British system

c)

Reduction of tariffs on Indian goods

d)

Exemption of British officials from taxation

6.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of direct tax?

a)

It is progressive in nature

b)

It is levied on individuals or organizations

c)

It is passed on to consumers

d)

It is governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961

7.

Which of the following is a characteristic of indirect taxes?

a)

Burden of tax falls on the person who earns income

b)

It is collected directly from individuals

c)

It is transferable from one person to another

d)

It is levied on property ownership

8.

What is the main purpose of levying direct taxes in an economy?

a)

To encourage inflation

b)

To redistribute wealth and reduce income inequality

c)

To increase indirect tax collection

d)

To increase exports

9.

Under which section of the Income Tax Act is 'Income from Other Sources' taxed?

a)

Section 50

b)

Section 56

c)

Section 80

d)

Section 90

10.

Which of the following incomes is taxable under 'Income from Other Sources'?

a)

Salary income

b)

Capital gains

c)

Dividend income

d)

Business income

11.

Which of the following incomes is NOT classified under 'Income from Other Sources'?

a)

Interest earned on bank fixed deposits

b)

Rental income from property

c)

Winning from lotteries

d)

Gift received from a non-relative above ₹50,000

12.

Interest received on which of the following is taxable under 'Income from Other Sources'?

a)

Savings account

b)

Fixed deposits

c)

Post office savings

d)

All of the above

13.

Which of the following is NOT taxable under 'Income from Other Sources'?

a)

Agricultural income

b)

Lottery winnings

c)

Dividend from foreign companies

d)

Interest from unsecured loans

14.

Which of the following statements is true about 'Income from Other Sources'?

a)

It includes all sources of income not covered under other heads

b)

Only business income is taxed under this head

c)

Agricultural income is taxed under this head

d)

It does not include dividend income

15.

Which of the following expenses can an advocate claim as a deduction?

a)

Rent of office space

b)

Salaries paid to employees

c)

Legal research expenses

d)

All of the above

16.

Which of the following incomes earned by an advocate is NOT taxable under 'Profits and Gains from Business or Profession'?

a)

Consultation fees

b)

Legal opinion fees

c)

Rental income from house property

d)

Appearance fees in courts

17.

Which of the following incomes of an advocate is taxable under 'Income from Other Sources'?

a)

Interest on Fixed Deposits (FDs)

b)

Fees for legal opinions

c)

Court appearance charges

d)

Consultation fees from clients

18.

Which of the following expenses can be claimed as a deduction by an advocate under Section 37?

a)

Fees for legal journals and professional books

b)

Traveling expenses for court visits

c)

Telephone and internet expenses for professional use

d)

All of the above

19.

What is the primary difference between tax evasion and tax avoidance?

a)

Tax evasion is legal; tax avoidance is illegal

b)

Tax evasion involves hiding income; tax avoidance involves planning to reduce tax

c)

Tax avoidance involves cash transactions; tax evasion is only online

d)

There is no difference

20.

Which of the following is an example of tax evasion?

a)

Investing in tax-saving instruments under Section 80C

b)

Not reporting rental income in tax returns

c)

Claiming deduction for home loan interest

d)

Setting up a trust to reduce tax liability

21.

Tax avoidance is:

a)

A criminal offence under Indian law

b)

Ethically questionable but legal

c)

Always illegal

d)

A form of tax theft

22.

Under which section of the Income Tax Act, 1961 are penalties for tax evasion imposed?

a)

Section 80C

b)

Section 23A

c)

Section 270A

d)

Section 10

23.

Which of the following best defines tax evasion?

a)

Paying taxes before the due date

b)

Avoiding taxes through lawful means

c)

Illegally not paying or underreporting taxes

d)

Investing in foreign securities

24.

Which case is considered a recent landmark tax case in India?

a)

Vodafone International Holdings v. Union of India

b)

McDowell & Co. Ltd. v. CTO

c)

Union of India v. Azadi Bachao Andolan

d)

CIT v. B.C. Srinivasa Setty

25.

Which governmental body in India investigates serious cases of tax evasion?

a)

NITI Aayog

b)

Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

c)

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

d)

Enforcement Directorate (ED)

26.

Which of the following is an acceptable form of tax planning?

a)

Hiding income to reduce tax

b)

Creating fictitious expenses

c)

Using deductions provided under law

d)

Not filing a tax return

27.

The penalty for under-reporting of income under Section 270A can be up to:

a)

50% of the tax payable

b)

20% of the tax payable

c)

200% of the tax payable

d)

10% of the tax payable

28.

Which of the following best defines a sale in legal terms?

a)

Temporary transfer of goods for free

b)

Permanent transfer of ownership in exchange for money

c)

Lease of goods for fixed time

d)

Exchange of goods without money

29.

Under Section 71B, loss from house property can be carried forward for:

a)

20 years

b)

8 years

c)

Infinite

d)

22 years

30.

Long-term capital loss can be carried forward for how many years?

a)

12 years

b)

6 years

c)

8 years

d)

10 years

31.

Which of the following losses has infinite carry forward period?

a)

Normal business loss

b)

Capital loss

c)

Specified business Loss u/s 35AD

d)

Speculative loss

32.

What does the abbreviation 'OECD' stand for?

a)

Organization for Economic Coordination and Development

b)

Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development

c)

Office of Economic Co-operation and Development

d)

Organization of European Countries for Development

33.

Which of the following is the primary legislation enacted in India to deal with undisclosed foreign income and assets?

a)

Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002

b)

Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015

c)

Income Tax Act, 1961

d)

Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988

34.

Black money refers to income:

a)

Reported to the government and taxed

b)

Earned through legal means and fully disclosed

c)

Earned through legal or illegal means but not disclosed to tax authorities

d)

Earned only from illegal sources

35.

Under the CGST Act, 2017, what is the maximum imprisonment for committing certain specified offences involving tax evasion exceeding ₹5 crore?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

36.

Under the Income Tax Act, 1961, what is the maximum punishment for willful attempt to evade tax under Section 276C(1)?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

37.

Under the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) Act, 2015, what is the maximum punishment for wilful failure to disclose foreign assets?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

38.

Punishment for wilful failure to disclose foreign assets?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

10 years

39.

Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, what is the maximum imprisonment prescribed for the offence of money laundering?

a)

5 years

b)

7 years

c)

10 years

d)

14 years

40.

What does the abbreviation 'SCN' stand for in tax and legal proceedings?

a)

Special Case Notification

b)

Show Cause Notice

c)

Statutory Compliance Notice

d)

Standard Compliance Notice

41.

Arrests under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) are made by:

a)

GST Officers

b)

Income Tax Department

c)

Enforcement Directorate

d)

Reserve Bank of India

42.

Under the CGST Act, who is empowered to authorize the arrest of a person for offences under GST?

a)

Income Tax Officer

b)

Central Bureau of Investigation

c)

Commissioner of GST

d)

Enforcement Directorate

43.

In Income Tax, an arrest for willful attempt to evade tax may result in prosecution under which court?

a)

Civil Court

b)

High Court

c)

Magistrate's Court

d)

Special Economic Offences Court

44.

Which of the following agencies does not have power to arrest in tax-related cases?

a)

GST Intelligence Wing

b)

Enforcement Directorate

c)

Income Tax Department (in certain cases)

d)

National Company Law Tribunal

45.

Under GST law, arrest without a warrant is permissible when the offence is classified as:

a)

Compoundable offence

b)

Civil wrong

c)

Cognizable offence

d)

Non-cognizable offence

46.

In case of arrest under the Income Tax Act, who can grant bail to the arrested person?

a)

Income Tax Officer

b)

Civil Court only

c)

Magistrate having jurisdiction

d)

GST Commissioner

47.

Under the Black Money Act, the offence of willfully attempting to evade tax is:

a)

Cognizable and bailable

b)

Non-cognizable and bailable

c)

Cognizable and non-bailable

d)

Non-cognizable and non-bailable

48.

What was one of the major objectives of the 2016 demonetization policy?

a)

Introduce new taxes

b)

Promote cash-based economy

c)

Eliminate black money, counterfeit currency, and curb terrorism financing

d)

Increase interest rates

49.

During a tax raid by authorities under the GST Act, a businessman is arrested for allegedly issuing fake invoices. He is not informed of the grounds of arrest, his family is not informed, and he is denied access to legal counsel. Which Supreme Court case ensures protection of his fundamental rights in such a situation?

a)

D.K. Basu vs State of West Bengal

b)

Vodafone vs Union of India

c)

Puttaswamy vs Union of India

d)

Lalita Kumari vs Govt. of U.P.

50.

A GST officer receives credible information that a trader is issuing fake invoices without actual supply of goods. A surprise inspection is conducted, and incriminating documents are found. What legal action can the officer take?

a)

Only impose penalty

b)

Arrest the trader under Section 69 of CGST Act

c)

Ignore the issue

d)

Send notice only

51.

A businessman conceals ₹5 crore in sales in his GST return. After investigation, it's found he intentionally evaded tax. What is the maximum imprisonment under CGST Act?

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

7 years

d)

1 year

52.

An Income Tax officer finds ₹2 crore unaccounted cash during a search. The assessee fails to explain the source. What is the likely next step?

a)

Confiscation and penalty

b)

Seizure of cash and arrest

c)

Immediate bail

d)

No action required

53.

A person obstructs tax officers during a GST raid and refuses to allow access to business records. What can the officers do legally?

a)

File a civil suit

b)

Arrest under Section 132 of CGST Act

c)

Dismiss the search

d)

Hand over case to SEBI

54.

During an Income Tax raid, officers seize gold jewellery. The taxpayer fails to produce supporting documents. What does this amount to?

a)

Routine audit

b)

Tax evasion and undisclosed asset

c)

Legal transfer

d)

No consequence

55.

A company books fake purchases to claim Input Tax Credit under GST. After inquiry, it is proven false. What is the possible consequence?

a)

Refund of GST

b)

Arrest and penalty under Section 132

c)

Suspension of GSTIN only

d)

Audit notice

56.

A businessman is issued an arrest warrant under the Income Tax Act for willful evasion. Who can issue such a warrant?

a)

Police Inspector

b)

Income Tax Commissioner

c)

GST Superintendent

d)

Finance Minister

57.

A person is found using a fake GST registration number and collecting tax fraudulently. What can be the consequence?

a)

Compulsory registration

b)

Fine only

c)

Arrest and prosecution under Section 132

d)

No action

58.

During a GST investigation, a taxpayer absconds and avoids summons. What can the department do?

a)

Ignore the case

b)

Seek arrest warrant from Magistrate

c)

Summon again only

d)

Cancel PAN

59.

A tax officer arrests someone under GST, but no arrest memo is prepared. Which constitutional principle is violated?

a)

Article 370

b)

Article 14

c)

Article 21

d)

Article 324

60.

Which of the following is an essential condition before conducting a search under Section 67 of CGST Act?

a)

Approval from High Court

b)

Reason to believe that goods or documents are hidden

c)

Newspaper notice

d)

FIR from police

61.

What is the maximum time an arrested person can be detained without being produced before a magistrate?

a)

48 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

72 hours

d)

96 hours

62.

A taxpayer is arrested under GST and demands bail. Which court will hear his bail application if the offence is non-bailable?

a)

Civil Court

b)

Magistrate's Court

c)

CIT

d)

Income Tax Tribunal

63.

What does 'Set-Off' refer to in the context of income tax?

a)

Deducting income from tax

b)

Adjusting losses against income within the same head

c)

Carrying forward losses to the next year

d)

Exempting certain types of income

64.

Inter-head adjustments involve:

a)

Adjusting losses from one head against income from another head

b)

Carrying forward losses to the next year

c)

Clubbing income from different heads

d)

Exempting certain heads from tax

65.

Which type of loss cannot be set off against income under the head 'Salaries'?

a)

Loss from house property

b)

Short-term capital loss

c)

Long-term capital loss

d)

Loss from business

66.

Which section provides for the set-off of losses against income under the same head?

a)

Section 70

b)

Section 171

c)

Section 172

d)

Section 173

67.

What does intra-head adjustment refer to?

a)

Adjusting losses from one head of income against income from another head

b)

Adjusting losses within the same head of income

c)

Adjusting current year's income against previous year's losses

d)

Carrying forward losses to future years

68.

Which of the following is an example of intra-head adjustment?

a)

Adjusting a loss from business against salary income

b)

Setting off a short-term capital loss against a short-term capital gain

c)

Carrying forward a loss from house property to the next year

d)

Setting off a loss from speculative business against business income

69.

Which section of the Income Tax Act provides for deductions for donations made to charitable institutions?

a)

Section 80C

b)

Section 80D

c)

Section 80G

d)

Section 80E

70.

For FY 2025-26, what is the tax rate applicable to income between Rs 0 and Rs 4,00,000 in the new tax regime?

a)

0%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

15%

71.

For FY 2025-26, what is the tax rate applicable to income above Rs 24,00,000 in the new tax regime?

a)

0%

b)

5%

c)

20%

d)

30%

72.

What is the exemption limit under the new tax regime for all individual taxpayer is not liable to pay tax in FY 2025-26, AY 2026-2027?

a)

Rs 2,50,000

b)

Rs 12,00,000

c)

Rs 5,00,000

d)

Rs 7,00,000

73.

What is the exemption limit under the new tax regime for all individual taxpayer is not liable to pay tax in FY 2024-25, AY 2025-2026?

a)

Rs 2,50,000

b)

Rs 12,00,000

c)

Rs 5,00,000

d)

Rs 7,00,000

74.

For FY 2025-26, the highest surcharge rate under the new tax regime is applicable to individuals earning above Rs:

a)

50 lakh

b)

1 crore

c)

2 crore

d)

5 crore

75.

Calculate the Gross Annual Value from the following details: Municipal Value ₹ 45,000 Fair rental value ₹ 50,000 Standard Rent ₹ 48,000 Actual Rent ₹ 42,000.

a)

45000

b)

50000

c)

48000

d)

42000

76.

Mr. Shushant is the owner of a house, the details of which are given below the gross annual value would be _______. Municipal value ₹ 36,000 Actual rent ₹ 32,000 Fair Rent ₹ 36,000 Standard Rent ₹ 40,000

a)

40000

b)

32000

c)

36000

d)

None of the above

77.

Who was the chairman of the Direct Tax Administration Committee?

a)

Shri K.C. Neogi

b)

Shri N.N. Mehta

c)

Shri Mahavir Tyagi

d)

Shri A.K. Roy

78.

Hostel expenditure allowance exemption limit is up to?

a)

Rs. 500 per month per child for a maximum of 3 children

b)

Rs. 300 per month per child for a maximum of 2 children

c)

Rs. 1,000 per month per child for a maximum of 2 children

d)

Rs. 500 per month per child for a maximum of 2 children

79.

Income from agriculture in Bangladesh amounting to Rs.5,00,000, and received in India, is:

a)

Exempt from tax in India.

b)

Taxable in Bangladesh.

c)

Taxable in India.

d)

Exempt

80.

What is the fine for failing to deduct TDS as per Section 271C?

a)

₹10,000

b)

100% of the tax not deducted

c)

₹50,000

d)

₹25,000

81.

The Settlement Commission has the power to grant:

a)

Tax refunds

b)

Immunity from penalties and prosecution

c)

Lower tax rates

d)

Advance rulings

82.

Hazlewood, an Australian cricketer, earned ₹10,000,000 from playing in the Indian Premier League (IPL) during FY 2023-24. How is this income treated for tax purposes in India?

a)

Taxable in India

b)

Taxable in Australia

c)

Exempt from Tax under Income Tax Act

d)

None of the above

83.

Hazlewood, an Australian cricketer, earned ₹20,000,000 from playing for Australian Cricket board during FY 2023-24. How is this income treated for tax purposes?

a)

Taxable in India because he is an IPL Player

b)

Taxable in Australia

c)

Exempt from Tax under Income Tax Act

d)

None of the above

84.

Which type of receipt is taxable under the Income Tax Act, 1961?

a)

Capital Receipt

b)

Revenue Receipt

c)

Both Capital and Revenue Receipts

d)

Neither Capital nor Revenue Receipts

85.

Which article of the Indian Constitution states that no tax shall be levied or collected except by the authority of law?

a)

Article 256

b)

Article 265

c)

Article 270

d)

Article 280

86.

Which schedule of the Indian Constitution distributes the power of taxation between the Union and the States?

a)

Fifth Schedule

b)

Sixth Schedule

c)

Seventh Schedule

d)

Eighth Schedule

87.

Under which list of the Seventh Schedule does the power to levy income tax (except on agricultural income) fall?

a)

Union List

b)

State List

c)

Concurrent List

d)

Residuary Powers

88.

Which article allows the Parliament to levy surcharge on certain duties and taxes for purposes of the Union?

a)

Article 268

b)

Article 269

c)

Article 270

d)

Article 271

89.

Which type of tax is characterized by its impact and incidence falling on the same person?

a)

Indirect Tax

b)

Direct Tax

c)

Service Tax

d)

Excise Duty

90.

Which of the following is an example of an indirect tax?

a)

Income Tax

b)

Wealth Tax

c)

Goods and Services Tax (GST)

d)

Corporate Tax

91.

Which article provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission?

a)

Article 270

b)

Article 275

c)

Article 280

d)

Article 282

92.

Which tax was subsumed into GST upon its introduction?

a)

Income Tax

b)

Wealth Tax

c)

Service Tax

d)

Corporate Tax

93.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good tax system?

a)

Equity

b)

Certainty

c)

Complexity

d)

Convenience

94.

Which article allows the imposition of taxes on professions, trades, callings, and employments?

a)

Article 265

b)

Article 276

c)

Article 286

d)

Article 289

95.

Which body is responsible for recommending the distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States?

a)

Planning Commission

b)

Finance Commission

c)

NITI Aayog

d)

GST Council

96.

Which tax is levied on the manufacture of goods within the country?

a)

Customs Duty

b)

Excise Duty

c)

Service Tax

d)

Sales Tax

97.

Which article defines the term 'taxation' in the Indian Constitution?

a)

Article 215

b)

Article 366(28)

c)

Article 280

d)

Article 275

98.

Which list in the Seventh Schedule contains subjects on which only the State Governments can levy taxes?

a)

Union List

b)

State List

c)

Concurrent List

d)

Residuary List

99.

Which of the following is a direct tax?

a)

Excise Duty

b)

Customs Duty

c)

Income Tax

d)

Service Tax

100.

Which tax is levied on the final consumption of goods and services?

a)

Income Tax

b)

Wealth Tax

c)

Goods and Services Tax (GST)

d)

Corporate Tax

101.

Which article empowers the Parliament to levy taxes for the purpose of the Union?

a)

Article 265

b)

Article 270

c)

Article 275

d)

Article 282

102.

Which article mandates that a Money Bill, including taxation laws, can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha?

a)

Article 109

b)

Article 110

c)

Article 111

d)

Article 112

103.

What is the tax rate applicable under the Composition Scheme for manufacturers?

a)

20 %

b)

1%

c)

22%

d)

55%

104.

As per the amendment to Section 22 of the CGST Act, what is the threshold turnover for a supplier in special category States to be liable for registration?

a)

20 lakh rupees

b)

10 lakh rupees

c)

40 lakh rupees

d)

50 lakh rupees

105.

What does HSN stand for in the context of GST?

a)

Harmonized System Number

b)

Harmonized Sales Number

c)

Harmonized System of Nomenclature

d)

High Security Number

106.

Under which section is the clubbing of income of a spouse covered?

a)

Section 60

b)

Section 64(1)(iv)

c)

Section 61

d)

Section 65

107.

If a father transfers an asset to his minor child, income from it is clubbed in:

a)

Minor child's income

b)

Grandfather's income

c)

Father's income

d)

None

108.

Clubbing of income provisions are applicable when:

a)

There is an intention to transfer income without transferring the asset

b)

Transfer of income is revocable

c)

Transfer is made to spouse/minor child

d)

All of the above

109.

Income of a minor child is not clubbed with parents if:

a)

Child earns through own skill/talent

b)

Income is less than ₹1,500

c)

Child is married

d)

Income is from mutual funds

110.

Which of the following is not a case of clubbing of income?

a)

Transfer to minor married daughter

b)

Transfer to major son

c)

Transfer to spouse without consideration

d)

Transfer to HUF by karta

111.

Clubbing provisions are laid down under which sections of the Income Tax Act?

a)

Sections 60 to 64

b)

Sections 50 to 59

c)

Sections 65 to 69

d)

Sections 10 to 20

112.

What does the abbreviation CII stand for in the context of Indian taxation?

a)

Central Investment Index

b)

Cost Inflation Index

c)

Consumer Income Indicator

d)

Capital Income Identifier

113.

What does 'Income Escaping Assessment' refer to?

a)

Income that is exempt from tax

b)

Income declared by the taxpayer

c)

Income that has not been assessed earlier by mistake or omission

d)

Refund not claimed

114.

What is meant by 'Best Judgment Assessment'?

a)

Assessment based on court orders

b)

Assessment when a taxpayer hides income

c)

Assessment made by the officer using their judgment when the taxpayer does not cooperate

d)

Final assessment after audit

115.

What does a summary assessment check for?

a)

Fraud

b)

Mathematical errors and mismatches

c)

Investment plans

d)

Physical