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Pharm Final Quiz 2 (Endocrine: DM+GH)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the normal blood glucose range?

a)

60-100 mg/dL

b)

70-110 mg/dL

c)

80-120 mg/dL

d)

90-130 mg/dL

2.

What are the S/S (signs and symptoms) of hyperglycemia?

a)

Sweating, trembling, dizziness

b)

Dry mouth, extreme thirst, frequent urge to urinate

c)

Mood changes, hunger, headaches

d)

Blurred vision, extreme fatigue, paleness

3.

What are the S/S (signs and symptoms) of hypoglycemia?

a)

Sweating, trembling, dizziness, extreme fatigue and paleness

b)

Dry mouth, extreme thirst, frequent urge to urinate

c)

Stomach pain, coma in extreme cases

d)

None of the above

4.

List one benefit of administering high doses of glucocorticoids.

a)

Benefit as an anti-inflammatory agent

b)

Causes increased bone density

c)

Promotes rapid wound healing

d)

Enhances insulin sensitivity

5.

SATA: Select all of the following endocrine disorders.

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Diabetes insipidus

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Growth hormone excess/deficiency

e)

Hyper/hypothyroidism

6.

Which gland secretes growth hormone (GH)?

a)

Anterior pituitary gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Adrenal gland

d)

Pineal gland

e)

Posterior pituitary gland

7.

What does the hypothalamus regulate the release of?

a)

Growth and somatotropin hormones

b)

Digestive enzymes

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Insulin

8.

What is the first step in therapeutic management of growth hormone deficiency if the cause is known?

a)

Treat the cause first

b)

Start growth hormone therapy immediately

c)

Monitor the patient without intervention

d)

Refer to a nutritionist

9.

What must be done if tumors are present in growth hormone deficiency?

a)

Tumors must be removed

b)

Increase growth hormone dosage

c)

No treatment is necessary

d)

Monitor only with imaging

10.

What is used to replace growth hormone in cases of deficiency?

a)

Biosynthetic growth hormone

b)

Insulin

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Cortisol

11.

What percentage of cases is GH replacement successful in?

a)

80%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

95%

12.

Which of the following factors does the response to GH treatment depend on?

a)

Age

b)

Length of treatment

c)

Frequency of treatment

d)

Dosage

e)

All of the above

13.

In non-GH deficient children, what is the typical growth after FDA approved treatment in 2003?

a)

Most will grow an extra 1-3 inches over 4-6 years of time at 6-7 injections a week

b)

Most will grow an extra 6-8 inches in the first year alone

c)

There is no significant growth observed after treatment

d)

Most will grow an extra 10-12 inches over 2 years

14.

When is GH normally administered?

a)

At night

b)

In the morning

c)

In the afternoon

d)

After meals

15.

GH release increases during sleeping hours.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Why can't GH be given PO (orally)?

a)

Due to inactivation in the GI tract

b)

Because it causes severe gastric irritation

c)

Because it is too rapidly absorbed

d)

Because it interacts with dietary fats

17.

How many injections per week are usually given for GH therapy?

a)

6-7 injections per week

b)

1 injection per week

c)

2-3 injections per week

d)

10 injections per week

18.

What should be assessed annually before administering GH to ensure growth plates have not closed?

a)

Epiphyseal status

b)

Blood glucose level

c)

Liver function tests

d)

Thyroid hormone levels

e)

Fontanel status

19.

Prolonged GH administration can antagonize which hormone and lead to which disease?

a)

Insulin; Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Cortisol; Addison's Disease

c)

Thyroxine; Myxedema

d)

Aldosterone; Conn's Syndrome

20.

Which of the following relates to growth hormone?

a)

Somatropin/Humatrope

b)

Insulin/Novolog

c)

Levothyroxine/Synthroid

d)

Metformin/Glucophage

21.

What are two adverse effects and monitoring parameters for GH agent therapy?

a)

Pancreatitis, diabetogenic;

Lab monitoring: BG, A1C

b)

Hypertension, hyperkalemia;

Lab monitoring: serum sodium, potassium

c)

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity;

Lab monitoring: BUN, creatinine

d)

Bradycardia, hypotension;

Lab monitoring: ECG, heart rate

22.

SATA: What conditions below are associated with growth hormone excess?

a)

Gigantism

b)

Dwarfism

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Addison's disease

e)

Acromegaly

23.

What condition occurs if there is an excess of growth hormone (GH) during childhood?

a)

Acromegaly

b)

Gigantism

c)

Dwarfism

d)

Diabetes Mellitus

24.

If excess growth hormone (GH) occurs after puberty, what condition develops?

a)

Gigantism

b)

Acromegaly

c)

Dwarfism

d)

Hyperthyroidism

25.

Name two physical features that may enlarge in acromegaly.

a)

Large hands and skull

b)

Small ears and nose

c)

Short fingers and toes

d)

Thin lips and narrow jaw

26.

Both gigantism and acromegaly are caused by ______ tumors.

a)

pituitary

b)

thyroid

c)

adrenal

d)

pancreatic

27.

Excess growth hormone (GH) will antagonize insulin and lead to ______ and DM.

a)

hyperglycemia

b)

hypoglycemia

c)

anemia

d)

leukopenia

28.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for excess growth hormone (GH)?

a)

Surgery to remove tumor

b)

Radiation therapy

c)

Insulin therapy

d)

Pharmacotherapy

29.

If the entire pituitary is removed, what will the patient need for life?

a)

Hormonal replacement

b)

Antibiotic therapy

c)

Physical therapy only

d)

PT and OT

30.

Which medication is described as the most effective drug for acromegaly?

a)

Octreotide

b)

Lanreotide

c)

Pegvisomant

d)

Insulin

31.

Which of the following is the problem in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

Pancreas is unable to make any insulin

b)

Pancreas can only make a small amount of insulin

c)

Body is sensitive to its own insulin

d)

Body is insensitive to it's own insulin

32.

What is the priority problem in Diabetes Mellitus, for both T1 and T2?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

High blood glucose levels

c)

High insulin levels

d)

Low endocrine levels

33.

A glycated hemoglobin/A1C test result of 6.5% or higher (on 2 separate tests) indicates _______.

a)

diabetes

b)

acromegaly

c)

increased serum insulin levels

d)

hypertension

34.

A glycated hemoglobin/A1C test result between 5.7-6.4% indicates _______.

a)

prediabetes

b)

normal pancreatic function

c)

type 1 diabetes

d)

gestational diabetes

e)

type 2 diabetes

35.

Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?

a)

Moves glucose from bloodstream to muscle, liver, and fat cells

b)

Stimulates storage of glucose in liver and muscle

c)

Enhances storage of dietary fats in adipose tissue

d)

Inhibits transport of amino acids into cells

36.

T1DM (Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus) is due to _______.

a)

Excess insulin secretion

b)

Lack of insulin secretion

c)

Insulin resistance

d)

High blood pressure

37.

In T2DM (Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus), insulin receptors have become _______ or resistant to the hormone.

a)

insensitive

b)

hyperactive

c)

overstimulated

d)

deficient

38.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Diabetes Mellitus (DM)?

a)

Feeling hungry/thirsty

b)

Tingling limbs

c)

Blurry vision

d)

Sudden weight gain

e)

Frequent urination

39.

Over time, high blood glucose (BG) levels can damage blood vessels, which can in turn lead to _________

a)

multi-organ complications

b)

vascular complications only

c)

neuromuscular degeneration only

d)

hepatic insufficiency only

40.

What is the goal for Hgb A1C in antidiabetic therapy?

a)

Less than 5%

b)

Less than 6%

c)

Less than 7%

d)

Less than 8%

41.

Fasting glucose should be maintained at less than ______ mg/dL according to antidiabetic therapy goals.

a)

110

b)

90

c)

130

d)

150

42.

Postprandial glucose should be less than ______ mg/dL as a goal of antidiabetic therapy.

a)

140

b)

180

c)

200

d)

160

43.

Which of the following antidiabetic drugs CANNOT be used for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)?

a)

Insulin

b)

Other antidiabetics (PO or SQ)

44.

Regular insulin can be administered by which route(s)?

a)

Only SQ

b)

Only IV

c)

Both SQ and IV

d)

Only PO

e)

Both PO and IV

45.

Why is insulin not given orally?

a)

It would be destroyed by gastric enzymes.

b)

It is too expensive to be taken orally.

c)

It causes severe tooth decay if taken orally.

d)

It is absorbed too quickly in the mouth.

46.

All modern insulin is produced using ______ technology.

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Protein

d)

Lipid

47.

Human insulin analogs are ______ variations of human insulin.

a)

synthetic

b)

natural

c)

herbal

d)

bacterial

48.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of genetically altered insulin?

a)

Can be fast acting or long acting

b)

Designed to mimic normal insulin as closely as possible

c)

Can be engineered to produce effects instantly after administration

d)

Genetically altered to change how they act in the body

49.

Which of the following is NOT a type of insulin?

a)

Rapid acting

b)

Short acting

c)

Intermediate acting

d)

Ultra long acting

50.

List the types of insulin mentioned in the notes.

a)

Rapid acting, Short acting, Intermediate acting, Long acting

b)

Only Rapid acting and Long acting

c)

Short acting, Long acting, Ultra-long acting

d)

Intermediate acting, Ultra-short acting, Long acting

51.

Which of the following is a rapid acting insulin?

a)

A) lispro/Humalog

b)

B) Humulin R

c)

C) Novolin R

d)

D) NPH

52.

Rapid acting insulin is administered _______.

a)

SQ (subcutaneously)

b)

IV (intravenously)

c)

IM (intramuscularly)

d)

PO (orally)

53.

What is the onset time for rapid acting insulin?

a)

Within 15 minutes

b)

30-60 minutes

c)

2-4 hours

d)

6-8 hours

54.

Short acting insulin includes which of the following?

a)

lispro/Humalog

b)

Humulin R

c)

glulisine/Apidra

d)

aspart/Novolog

55.

Short acting insulin is available in U 100 and U 500 strength.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which type of insulin is reserved for patients with insulin resistance?

a)

U 100

b)

U 200

c)

U 500

d)

U 300

57.

U 500 insulin is NEVER given IV.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

When regular insulin is given subcutaneously (SQ), what is the typical onset time?

a)

5-10 mins

b)

30-60 mins

c)

2-4 hrs

d)

10-16 hrs

59.

Fill in the blank: The peak time for regular insulin given SQ is _________.

a)

2-4 hrs

b)

30-60 min

c)

6-8 hrs

d)

10-12 hrs

60.

What is the duration of action for regular insulin given SQ?

a)

2-4 hrs

b)

4-10 hrs

c)

5-7 hrs

d)

10-16 hrs

61.

Which of the following is an intermediate acting insulin?

a)

Insulin glargine

b)

NPH/Humulin N

c)

Regular insulin

d)

Insulin lispro

62.

Intermediate acting insulin is a cloudy solution.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Fill in the blank: The only insulin that can be mixed with short acting or rapid acting insulin in the same syringe is _________

a)

Intermediate acting insulin (NPH)

b)

Long acting insulin (glargine)

c)

Ultra-long acting insulin (degludec)

d)

Premixed insulin

64.

When mixing regular insulin with NPH human insulin, which insulin should be drawn into the syringe first?

a)

Regular insulin (clear before cloudy)

b)

NPH insulin (cloudy before clear)

c)

Both insulins at the same time

d)

It does not matter which is drawn first

65.

What is the recommended time for administering long acting insulin such as glargine or Toujeo?

a)

Morning

b)

Afternoon

c)

Night

d)

Any time, but needs consistency

66.

What is the onset time for long acting insulin?

a)

3-4 hrs

b)

10-20 min

c)

30-60 min

d)

1-2 hrs

67.

What is the peak time for long acting insulin?

a)

None

b)

1-2 hours

c)

4-6 hours

d)

8-10 hours

68.

What is the duration of action for long acting insulin?

a)

24 hrs

b)

4-6 hrs

c)

8-12 hrs

d)

16-18 hrs

69.

Which of the following is NOT a premixed combination of short acting (regular) insulin and intermediate acting (NPH) insulin?

a)

Humulin 70/30

b)

Humulin 50/50

c)

Humalog 75/25

d)

All of the above

70.

What is the intent of using premixed combinations of short acting (regular) insulin and intermediate acting (NPH) insulin?

a)

To give longer insulin coverage and mimic what the pancreas does more efficiently

b)

To increase the risk of hypoglycemia significantly

c)

To eliminate the need for dietary management in diabetes

d)

To provide only rapid correction of high blood sugar levels

71.

Coverage of premixed insulin combinations is up to how many hours?

a)

24 hrs

b)

12 hrs

c)

36 hrs

d)

48 hrs

72.

Which of the following is NOT a method of SQ injection for insulin administration?

a)

Syringe and needle

b)

Pen injectors

c)

Jet injectors

d)

Oral tablets

73.

Which of the following is an oral antidiabetic agent for T2DM?

a)

Biguanides

b)

Sulfonylureas

c)

Thiazolidinediones/Glitazones

d)

All of the above

74.

Which of the following is NOT an oral agent for diabetes management?

a)

Metaglitinides

b)

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

c)

GLP-1 Agonists

d)

Gliptins

75.

Which class of injectable agents is NOT to be confused with insulin?

a)

GLP-1 Agonists

b)

Incretin Mimetics

c)

SGLT-2 Inhibitors

d)

All of the above

76.

What is the mechanism of action (MoA) of metformin/Glucophage?

a)

Decreases hepatic production of glucose

b)

Stimulates insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells

c)

Inhibits intestinal absorption of carbohydrates

d)

Increases glucagon secretion

77.

Metformin promotes insulin release from the pancreas.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Metformin is SAFE to use with patients who occasionally ________.

a)

skip meals

b)

drink alcohol heavily

c)

have severe kidney disease

d)

are pregnant

79.

Which of the following is NOT a major adverse effect of metformin?

a)

Decreased appetite

b)

Nausea and diarrhea

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Lactic acidosis

80.

Alcohol intake with metformin can lead to ________.

a)

lactic acidosis

b)

hypoglycemia

c)

hypertension

d)

hyperkalemia

81.

What does the 'V' in the mnemonic VOMIT BAG for metformin stand for?

a)

vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

vomiting

c)

vasculitis

d)

visual disturbance

82.

Which condition is metformin used to treat in women, as indicated by the 'O' in VOMIT BAG?

a)

A) Osteoporosis

b)

B) Ovarian cancer

c)

C) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

d)

D) Obesity

83.

Metformin is considered the first line agent for which type of diabetes?

a)

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM)

b)

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)

c)

Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

d)

Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)

84.

What is the major adverse effect (AE) associated with Metformin?

a)

Lactic acidosis

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Weight gain

d)

Pancreatitis

85.

Complication of lactic acidosis with Metformin is extremely rare if kidneys are well functioning.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Which of the following increases the risk of lactic acidosis with Metformin use?

a)

Alcohol intake

b)

High protein diet

c)

Exercise

d)

Vitamin supplements

87.

Metformin should be avoided in patients with ________.

a)

renal insufficiency

b)

hypertension

c)

hyperthyroidism

d)

migraine

88.

IV contrast media that contains ______ may lead to lactic acidosis when used with Metformin.

a)

iodine

b)

barium

c)

calcium

d)

magnesium

89.

How long before and after administration of contrast media should Metformin be stopped?

a)

48 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

72 hours

90.

Which class of oral antidiabetic drugs stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreas?

a)

Sulfonylureas

b)

Biguanides

c)

Thiazolidinediones

d)

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

91.

1st generation sulfonylurea agents have largely been replaced by 2nd generation agents.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Sulfonylureas can increase cellular sensitivity to insulin.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, cannot induce hypoglycemia.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Which of the following diabetes medications can increase risk of bladder cancer and is contraindicated in heart failure patients?

a)

Thiazolidinediones

b)

Meglitinides

c)

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

d)

Injectable T2DM Agents

95.

Which category of diabetic medications can patients safely take after skipping a meal, but carries the risk of hypoglycemia due to it's mechanism of action?

a)

Thiazolidinediones

b)

Meglitinides

c)

Sulfonylureas

d)

Metformin

96.

What is the mechanism of action for Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors such as acarbose?

a)

delays absorption of carbohydrates

b)

increases absorption of carbohydrates

c)

increases secretion of insulin from the pancreas

d)

increases bodily sensitivity to insulin

97.

Injectable T2DM agents, such as Victoza, can be used in conjunction with insulin.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Injectable T2DM agents, such as Byetta, can be used in conjunction with metformin or a sulfonylurea.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

SATA: Select all of the following treatments for moderate to severe hypoglycemia.

a)

IV dextrose

b)

IV sucrose

c)

SQ glucagon

d)

IM glucagon

e)

PO glucagon

100.

Glucagon can cause hypotension.

a)

True

b)

False