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PART 2 TEST 2

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After an amniotomy, which finding indicates possible infection?

a)

A. Clear, odorless fluid

b)

B. Maternal temperature of 100.6°F

c)

C. Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm

d)

D. Contractions every 5 minutes

2.

What is an amniotomy?

a)

A. Surgical removal of the amniotic sac

b)

B. Artificial rupture of membranes using a sterile instrument

c)

C. Natural rupture of membranes during active labor

d)

D. Drainage of amniotic fluid with ultrasound guidance

3.

Which finding is consistent with hypertonic labor?

a)

A. Weak contractions during the active phase

b)

B. Frequent, cramp-like, poorly coordinated contractions in latent phase

c)

C. Overdistended uterus with decreased tone

d)

D. Soft uterus between contractions

4.

How is the Apgar score assessed?

a)

A. By evaluating heart rate, respirations, muscle tone, reflexes, and color

b)

B. By measuring weight, length, and head circumference

c)

C. By assessing blood glucose, temperature, and heart rate

d)

D. By checking cord blood gases and bilirubin

5.

Which is a common early cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

A. Retained placental fragments

b)

B. Subinvolution

c)

C. Uterine atony

d)

D. Infection

6.

What is the first nursing intervention for postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

A. Notify the provider

b)

B. Administer antibiotics

c)

C. Massage the fundus

d)

D. Prepare for surgery

7.

Which is a sign of hypoglycemia in a term newborn?

a)

A. Hyperactive reflexes

b)

B. High-pitched cry

c)

C. Flushed skin

d)

D. Bradycardia

8.

Where should the uterus be immediately after delivery?

a)

A. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, boggy

b)

B. Midline at the umbilicus, firm

c)

C. To the right of the umbilicus, firm

d)

D. Midline below the umbilicus, soft

9.

Which medication is used to ripen the cervix?

a)

A. Oxytocin

b)

B. Magnesium sulfate

c)

C. Prostaglandin

d)

D. Betamethasone

10.

What medication increases fetal lung maturity?

a)

A. Oxytocin

b)

B. Betamethasone

c)

C. Magnesium sulfate

d)

D. Erythromycin

11.

fter a forceps delivery, the nurse should assess for:

a)

A. Umbilical cord prolapse

b)

B. Scalp bruising and lacerations

c)

C. Absent Moro reflex

d)

D. Low blood glucose

12.

For the first 12 hours after an episiotomy, which intervention is best?

a)

Warm compresses

b)

Sitz bath

c)

Topical antibiotics

d)

Cold packs

13.

Tachysystole is most associated with which fetal complication?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Shoulder dystocia

c)

Hyperbilirubinemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

14.

Which is a contraindication for induction?

a)

Fetal demise

b)

Gestational hypertension

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Placental insufficiency

15.

For mastitis, the nurse should recommend:

a)

Complete cessation of breastfeeding

b)

Warm compresses before feeding

c)

Pumping only once a day

d)

Cold packs at all times

16.

Stroking a newborn’s cheek causes them to turn toward the stimulus. This is which reflex?

a)

Rooting

b)

Moro

c)

Sucking

d)

Stepping

17.

Normal weight loss for a newborn in the hospital is:

a)

10–15%

b)

1–3%

c)

None

d)

5–10%

18.

In hypovolemic shock postpartum, which intervention is priority?

a)

Monitor urine output

b)

Provide emotional support

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Stop blood loss

19.

Uterine atony is defined as:

a)

Weak contractions during labor

b)

Uterine overdistension during pregnancy

c)

Lack of normal uterine muscle tone postpartum

d)

Prolonged contractions postpartum

20.

Which is a manifestation of respiratory distress in a newborn?

a)

A. Nasal flaring and grunting

b)

B. Strong cry and pink skin

c)

C. Regular respirations

d)

D. HR 120 bpm

21.

Which is a priority intervention for apnea in a preterm infant lasting more than 20 seconds?

a)

Stimulate the infant and monitor

b)

Call a code

c)

Administer antibiotics

d)

Increase feeding frequency

22.

Normal temperature for a newborn is:

a)

95–96°F (35–35.5°C)

b)

96–97°F (35.5–36.1°C)

c)

97–99.5°F (36.1–37.5°C)

d)

99.6–101°F (37.6–38.3°C)

23.

Which is the primary reason for respiratory distress in a preterm baby?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Meconium aspiration

c)

Surfactant deficiency due to lung immaturity

d)

Heart murmur

24.

Which manifestation is expected in neonatal abstinence syndrome?

a)

A. Hypotonia and poor reflexes

b)

B. Tremors and hyperirritability

c)

C. Hypothermia

d)

D. Bradycardia

25.

A newborn of a mother with gestational diabetes is at risk for:

a)

A. Low blood glucose

b)

B. Polycythemia

c)

C. Vitamin K deficiency

d)

D. Hyperbilirubinemia

26.

Correct bulb syringe use includes:

a)

Insert deep into throat

b)

Use only after feeding

c)

Suction nose first, then mouth

d)

Compress bulb before inserting into mouth

27.

A breastfeeding woman asks when her menses will return. You respond:

a)

A. About 2 weeks postpartum

b)

B. About 8 weeks postpartum

c)

C. About 3 months postpartum

d)

D. About 1 year postpartum

28.

Before initiating gavage feeding, the nurse should:

a)

Aspirate gastric contents

b)

Check diaper

c)

Check bowel sounds

d)

Obtain a blood glucose

29.

Pseudomenstruation in a newborn is caused by:

a)

Vaginal infection

b)

Dehydration

c)

Maternal hormone withdrawal

d)

Birth trauma

30.

Which is a noninvasive pain control method for newborns?

a)

Swaddling

b)

Morphine

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Lidocaine

31.

Bright red, continuous trickle of blood postpartum with a firm uterus indicates:

a)

Normal lochia

b)

Laceration

c)

Retained placenta

d)

Uterine atony

32.

Macrosomia is defined as:

a)

A. Birth weight >90th percentile for gestational age

b)

B. Birth weight <10th percentile

c)

C. Any birth weight over 3000 g

d)

D. Birth weight between 10th–90th percentile

33.

Which wound assessment acronym is used for perineal healing?

a)

BUBBLEHE

b)

APGAR

c)

REEDA

d)

ROM

34.

Hypothermia in a newborn can cause:

a)

A. Hypoglycemia and respiratory distress

b)

B. Hyperbilirubinemia

c)

C. Fever and seizures

d)

D. Hypotension

35.

Spina bifida is:

a)

Inflammation of spinal meninges

b)

Premature fusion of skull sutures

c)

Failure of the brain to develop normally

d)

Neural tube defect with imperfect closure of vertebrae

36.

Which finding suggests postpartum depression rather than baby blues?

a)

A. Crying easily for two days

b)

B. Persistent feelings of inadequacy and inability to cope

c)

C. Sleep disturbance in first week

d)

D. Mild anxiety relieved by rest

37.

Which is most concerning for postpartum psychosis?

a)

A. Tearfulness and insomnia

b)

B. Paranoia and hallucinations

c)

C. Mild anxiety about newborn care

d)

D. Sleep pattern disturbance

38.

Why do breastfed babies feed more often than formula-fed babies?

a)

A. Breast milk is digested more quickly

b)

B. Formula is harder to prepare

c)

C. Breast milk has fewer calories

d)

D. Breast milk is less palatable

39.

In the postpartum acronym BUBBLEHE, the “E” after Lochia stands for:

a)

Elimination

b)

Edema

c)

Emotional status

d)

Episiotomy

40.

RhoGAM is given at:

a)

36 weeks

b)

After delivery only

c)

28 weeks

d)

20 weeks

41.

Group B strep is treated during labor with:

a)

Penicillin

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Erythromycin

42.

Newborn vitamin K is given to:

a)

Aid digestion

b)

Prevent jaundice

c)

Prevent hemorrhage

d)

Prevent infection

43.

Heat loss when air currents blow across the newborn is:

a)

A. Evaporation

b)

B. Conduction

c)

C. Convection

d)

D. Radiation

44.

For an infant with spina bifida, the nurse should:

a)

A. Place supine

b)

B. Cover sac with dry dressing

c)

C. Place prone with moist sterile dressing over sac

d)

D. Delay surgery until school age

45.

The antidote for narcotic-induced respiratory depression is:

a)

A. Flumazenil

b)

B. Naloxone

c)

C. Epinephrine

d)

D. Atropine

46.

Induction of labor is defined as:

a)

Emergency C-section

b)

Strengthening existing contractions

c)

Initiating labor before it begins naturally

d)

Artificial rupture of membranes only

47.

Phototherapy for jaundice works by:

a)

Breaking down bilirubin in the skin

b)

Preventing bilirubin absorption

c)

Increasing bilirubin production

d)

Increasing hemoglobin

48.

Which is a benefit of breastfeeding for the baby?

a)

Decreases oxytocin release

b)

Increases jaundice risk

c)

Maintains infant temperature

d)

Delays bonding

49.

Which is a risk factor for preterm labor?

a)

A. Maternal age 25 years

b)

B. Previous preterm birth

c)

C. Term pregnancy with normal fluid

d)

D. Normal BMI

50.

Caput succedaneum differs from cephalohematoma because:

a)

Caput takes weeks to resolve

b)

Caput does not cross suture lines

c)

Cephalohematoma occurs at birth only

d)

Caput crosses suture lines; cephalohematoma does not

51.

Which is correct teaching for circumcision care?

a)

Apply tight diaper

b)

Remove yellow crust daily

c)

Wash with warm water only

d)

Expect no redness

52.

A finding suggesting developmental hip dysplasia is:

a)

Equal leg length

b)

Equal knee height

c)

Symmetrical thigh creases

d)

Asymmetrical gluteal folds

53.

Hypoglycemia in a term newborn is defined as:

a)

Glucose <50 mg/dL

b)

Glucose <30 mg/dL

c)

Glucose <40 mg/dL

d)

Glucose <45 mg/dL

54.

An infant weighing above the 90th percentile for gestational age is:

a)

A. SGA

b)

B. AGA

c)

C. LGA

d)

D. LBW

55.

A newborn weighing 2400 g at term is:

a)

A. LBW

b)

B. AGA

c)

C. LGA

d)

D. SGA

56.

Which newborn classification is between the 10th and 90th percentile for gestational age?

a)

A. SGA

b)

B. LGA

c)

C. AGA

d)

D. LBW

57.

Which statement correctly differentiates induction from augmentation of labor?

a)

A. Induction strengthens existing contractions; augmentation initiates contractions before labor begins naturally.

b)

B. Induction and augmentation both start labor before term.

c)

C. Induction starts labor before it begins naturally; augmentation stimulates contractions that have already begun

d)

D. Induction is only used in post-term pregnancy; augmentation is used only in preterm labor.

58.


Q: Which finding is consistent with hypotonic labor?

a)

A. Increased uterine muscle tone with frequent, cramp-like contractions

b)

B. Labor that begins normally but contractions diminish during the active phase

c)

C. A tense uterus even between contractions

d)

D. Contractions that are frequent and nonproductive in the latent phase

59.

Q: Which is a late cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

A. Uterine atony

b)

B. Perineal laceration

c)

C. Retained placental fragments

d)

D. Hematoma in the reproductive tract

60.

Q: Which of the following is an indication for induction of labor according to the document?

a)

Gestational hypertension

b)

Active herpes infection in the birth canal

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Abnormal fetal presentation

61.

Q: Which statement correctly differentiates induction from augmentation of labor?

a)

A. Induction strengthens existing contractions; augmentation initiates labor before it begins.

b)

B. Induction starts labor before it begins naturally; augmentation stimulates contractions that have already begun.

c)

C. Both induction and augmentation always require prostaglandins.

d)

D. Induction is used only for post-term pregnancies.