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WorksheetsPerf Check Agustus 2025 TWR
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Correct definition of Runway Incursion is
a)
A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft
b)
Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft
c)
Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person outside the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft (runway)
d)
A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower
2.
Width of taxiway Charlie is
a)
23 M
b)
24 M
c)
25 M
d)
26 M
3.
In METAR, letter ‘BR’ means..
a)
Fog
b)
Smoke
c)
Drizzle
d)
Mist
4.
Choose the correct order of cloud coverage from lowest to highest from list below
a)
Few scattered broken overcast
b)
Few broken scattered overcast
c)
Broken few scattered overcast
d)
Scattered few broken overcast
5.
Frequency of CTAF is..
a)
126.55
b)
122.6
c)
122.25
d)
128.1
6.
Below are included in 5 objectives of ATS, except..
a)
Prevent collision between aircraft
b)
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
c)
Prevent collision between aircraft and terrain
d)
Notify appropriate organization regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organization as required
7.
Location indicator of Pohuwato is
a)
WAFZ
b)
WAFY
c)
WAFW
d)
WAMI
8.
Which one below is the correct SID of GTO
a)
MWB ONE CHARLIE
b)
PAL ONE ECHO
c)
ENTEG ONE DELTA
d)
OBDEX ONE BRAVO
9.
An aircraft may be permitted to enter RWY 27 with condition an arriving aircraft is cleared for approach and has not yet ..
a)
Leaving PIPOK
b)
Final Runway 27
c)
Approaching PIPOK
d)
Outbond holding PIPOK
10.
Strength of RUNWAY 27/09 in gorontalo is..
a)
PCN 62 F/D/W/T
b)
PCN 56 R/C/W/T
c)
PCN 50 F/A/W/T
d)
PCN 54 R/C/W/T
11.
Localizer is a part of Instrument Landing System (ILS) that will provide aircraft with information regarding
a)
Vertical guidance
b)
Distance
c)
Existing Obstacle
d)
Lateral Guidance
12.
Which one is NOT categorize as maneuvering area?
a)
Rapid exit taxiway
b)
Runway
c)
Apron
d)
Taxiway
13.
Airspace classification of Gorontalo CTR is..
a)
Class D
b)
Class C
c)
Class B
d)
Class A
14.
Dimension of Runway 27 is
a)
2500 x 60
b)
2450 x 60
c)
2500 x 45
d)
2400 x 55
15.
Flight WAMG-WAFL, following VRF route below, except..
a)
Banagan
b)
Pontolo
c)
Santigi
d)
Paleleh
16.
Gun light signal ‘Steady Red’ for aircraft on the ground means..
a)
Stop
b)
Taxi clear of runway
c)
Return to starting point
d)
Cleared to taxi
17.
Position of GONTA from GTL VOR is..
a)
R070, 30NM
b)
R070, 35NM
c)
R072, 31NM
d)
R072, 33NM
18.
Alert Phase is a situation when an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within …. of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft
a)
10 Minutes
b)
5 Minutes
c)
15 Minutes
d)
2 Minutes
19.
A minimum separation of 2 minutes shall be applied between ……… aircraft taking off behind a ….. aircraft, when using the same runway
a)
LIGHT - MEDIUM
b)
MEDIUM - LIGHT
c)
MEDIUM/HEAVY - LIGHT
d)
MEDIUM- MEDIUM
20.
Elevation of THR RWY 09 is…..
a)
98 ft
b)
124 ft
c)
125 ft
d)
88 ft
21.
For departure aircraft, route WAMG to WAWW, with alternate aerodrome WAAA and WAFF, below are the addresses we need to send FPL to, except..
a)
WAMGZPZX
b)
WAAAZQZX
c)
WAWWZPZX
d)
WIIIZPZX
22.
Frequency and identifier for gorontalo VOR is…
a)
113.5 MHz and GTO
b)
113.5 MHz and GTL
c)
113.3 MHz and GTL
d)
113.3 MHz and GTO
23.
MSA 25 NM for traffic arriving from R190 is
a)
8400
b)
8900
c)
3800
d)
5500
24.
Lateral limit of Gorontalo CTR is..
a)
A circle with radius 25 NM centered on GTL VOR
b)
A circle with radius 25 NM centered on GTO VOR
c)
A circle with radius 30 NM centered on GTO VOR
d)
A circle with radius 30 NM centered on GTL VOR
25.
Aircraft in an emergency, who are NOT receiving an air traffic service should set the transponder to…
a)
7500
b)
7600
c)
7700
d)
4501
26.
Based on SOP High-Intensity setting for approach, Runway edge, Runway centerline, and Touch
down zone lighting systems, at night when the visibility is >5km is step..
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
27.
The minimum radial for departing aircraft, when there is an aircraft holding on point PIPOK is..
a)
R121
b)
R130
c)
R188
d)
R140
28.
Heading Outbond PIPOK Point is
a)
316
b)
136
c)
315
d)
135
29.
An aircraft that weigh less than 136.000 kg but more than 7000 kg, categorized as…
a)
SUPER HEAVY
b)
LIGHT
c)
MEDIUM
d)
HEAVY
30.
Take off RWY 27, maintain RWY heading until 3000 ft turn LEFT Direct to GTL VOR/DME to intercept RDL 072 GTL to GONTA join W51 proceed to MWB VOR/DME, is SID?
a)
MWB ONE ALPHA
b)
MWB ONE CHARLIE
c)
MWB ONE BRAVO
d)
MWB ONE DELTA
31.
Position of point UDEVA from GTL VOR is…
a)
R315, 19.7D
b)
R316, 19.7D
c)
R315, 19D
d)
R316, 19D
32.
Coordinates of MG602 is..
a)
00°37'17.8''N 122°58'15.3''E
b)
00°36'37.6''N 123°03'30.2''E
c)
00°24'11.1'N 123°04'44.2''E
d)
00°38'08.69''N 122°51'37.04"E
33.
A unit established to provide air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic is the definition of..
a)
Aerodrome control service
b)
Approach control service
c)
Approach control tower
d)
Aerodrome control tower
34.
A special series of NOTAMs (Notice to Airmen) notifying by means of a specific format about changes in volcanic activity that are significant to aircraft operations is called..
a)
NOTAM
b)
SNOWTAM
c)
ASHTAM
d)
SPECI
35.
To maintain rating, a ATC requires to at least hold …….. of IELP
a)
Level 3
b)
Level 4
c)
Level 5
d)
Level 6
36.
Terms MG601 and MG602 are used when an aircraft is making an approach with…
a)
VOR
b)
RNP
c)
ILS/LOC
d)
Visual
37.
“I request verification of (clearance, instruction, action, information)” is definition of?
a)
SAY AGAIN
b)
AFFIRM
c)
CORRECTION
d)
CONFIRM
38.
The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement associated with departure, is definition of
a)
Estimated elapsed time
b)
Expected approach time
c)
Estimated off-block time
d)
Estimated time of arrival
39.
Based on quadrantal rules, Traffic from WAMG to WAFZ using Altitude…
a)
7000 Fft
b)
7500 ft
c)
6000 ft
d)
6500 ft
40.
Dimension of apron B is
a)
230 x 80
b)
200 x 80
c)
130 x 300
d)
130 x 291
41.
You have traffic :
a. SQS6314 is on final, you gave landing clearance (parking stand B2)
b. LNI793 is hold short of taxiway charlie
SQS6314 landed and passed taxiway charlie, what would you do?
4 lines
42.
Explain the definition of TORA, TODA, ASDA, LDA, and state the length (if any) in GTO
4 lines
43.
You have traffic :
a. OEY310 position short final, cleared to land, from AMC given parking stand B5
b. LNI793 on parking stand B3 request push back
You instruct LNI793 to standby for pushback, but LNI793 misheard the instruction and commencing pushback anyway while you are focusing on OEY310, what would you do?
4 lines
44.
What is the consequence for the aircraft, if you gave wrong QNH to them?
4 lines
45.
State the contents of the following letter : I, J, K, L, M, N, O, and O*
4 lines
46.
Mention everything that you know and understand about “Aerodrome Traffic Circuit” also mention about the circuit in Gorontalo
4 lines
47.
In Emergency Phase, explain when and in what kind of situation an Uncertainty Phase will escalate to Alerting Phase
4 lines
48.
When you are on duty and there is an aircraft, position on short final and you already gave it landing clearance, but suddenly you spot 3 dogs running from apron A toward runway 27, what would you do?
4 lines
49.
Mention factors that will affect selection of runway in use
4 lines
50.
If an aircraft indicated to experience total communication failure while taxiing, what would you do? (explain the reason)
4 lines
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