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IMS Final Exam Review Part 2

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Nora, a nurse, is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with Addison disease. Which laboratory finding should Nora expect to find in this client?

a)

Elevated blood glucose

b)

Increased sodium levels

c)

Decreased cortisol levels

d)

High aldosterone levels

2.

Maya, a nurse on an endocrine floor, is beginning her morning rounds. She is assigned four patients. Which patient should Maya prioritize for assessment?

a)

The patient with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus who is reporting increased thirst and urination.

b)

The patient who is two days post-parathyroidectomy and is experiencing tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips.

c)

The patient with Cushing's syndrome who has mild hypertension and facial puffiness.

d)

The patient with hyperthyroidism who is anxious and has a rapid heart rate.

3.

Ava, a client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), arrives at the emergency department for treatment. Which findings support this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

a)

Increase in pH

b)

Comatose state

c)

Deep, rapid breathing

d)

Decreased urine output

e)

Elevated blood glucose level

4.

Charlotte, who has diabetes, calls the nurse and says, 'I have been vomiting all day. Should I stop my insulin injections?' What is the nurse's best response?

a)

Stop insulin until you are consuming food again

b)

Continue normal insulin dosage and monitor blood sugar every 3 to 4 hours

c)

Decrease each dose by 2 units

d)

Increase each dose by 2 units

5.

Nora has a condition where her body cannot produce insulin. When her blood sugar is low and there is no insulin available, what does her body primarily use for energy?

a)

fats

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

vitamins

6.

Ava, who has diabetes, is concerned about the effects of drinking alcohol. What adverse effect is she at increased risk for?

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

hyperglycemia

7.

James is at a clinic for a routine check-up. His blood sugar is measured at 70 mg/dL, and he is alert and orientated. What is the best treatment for James?

a)

15 grams of a fast acting carbohydrate

b)

30 grams of a short acting carbohydrate

c)

snickers bar

d)

table sugar packets

8.

During a physical assessment, Charlotte, a nurse, percusses the suprapubic area of a client who has not voided for several hours and notes a dull sound. What does this finding most likely indicate?

a)

The client's bladder is distended with urine.

b)

The client has a normal bladder volume.

c)

The client is experiencing dehydration.

d)

The client has a bowel obstruction.

9.

Zoe has been admitted to the hospital for a urinary tract infection and dehydration. After receiving treatment, the nurse checks Zoe's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level to determine if she has received adequate volume replacement. To which value should Zoe's BUN level drop to indicate adequate hydration?

a)

3 mg/dL (1.05 mmol/L)

b)

15 mg/dL (5.25 mmol/L)

c)

29 mg/dL (10.15 mmol/L)

d)

35 mg/dL (12.25 mmol/L)

10.

During a biology class, Daniel learns that a certain hormone helps the body retain 1 and excrete 2 . Which substances is this hormone affecting?

(a)   ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
sodium
potassium
11.

Sophia is a client undergoing hemodialysis and is at risk for bleeding due to the heparin used during her treatment. As her nurse, you want to monitor for this risk by periodically checking the results of which laboratory test?

a)

Bleeding time

b)

Thrombin time

c)

Prothrombin time (PT)

d)

Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

12.

Ten days after receiving a kidney transplant, a patient presents with a low-grade fever, decreased urine output, elevated blood pressure, and pain at the transplant site. Laboratory results show increased serum creatinine, and imaging reveals swelling of the transplanted kidney. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

a)

Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Start hemodialysis

c)

Schedule surgical removal of the graft

d)

Administer higher doses of immunosuppressive medications

13.

Maya is receiving education about her recent diagnosis of oxalate kidney stones. Which of the following foods should she be instructed to eliminate from her diet?

a)

Breads

b)

Poultry

c)

Chocolate

d)

Prune juice

14.

Michael has been advised to follow a low-purine diet due to his history of gout. As his nurse, which of the following foods should you recommend he avoids?

a)

Sardines

b)

Apple juice

c)

Orange juice

d)

Blueberries

15.

Benjamin, a client admitted to the hospital, is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI). The culture report reveals the presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be prescribed to treat Benjamin's infection?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Rifampin

c)

Ethambutol

d)

Ciprofloxacin

16.

Jackson, who has human immune deficiency virus (HIV), visits the clinic after noticing the recent development of new skin lesions. The nurse should interpret these lesions as most likely suggestive of what situation?

a)

A reduction in the client's CD4 count

b)

A reduction in the client's viral load

c)

An adverse effect of antiretroviral therapy

d)

Virus-induced changes in allergy status

17.

Evelyn, a nurse, is assessing the skin of a client who has been diagnosed with bacterial cellulitis on the dorsal portion of the great toe. When reviewing the client's health history, the nurse should identify what comorbidity as increasing the client's vulnerability to skin infections?

a)

COPD

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Diabetes

18.

Ava, a nurse practitioner working in a busy dermatology clinic, is assessing a client when she discovers an open lesion on the client's skin. What should Ava do next?

a)

Obtain a swab for culture

b)

Assess the characteristics of the lesion

c)

Obtain a swab for pH testing

d)

Apply a test dose of broad-spectrum topical antibiotic

19.

Arjun visits the clinic with a raised, pruritic rash. He tells the nurse that he hasn't taken any prescription medication and has no known allergies. What would be an appropriate question for the nurse to ask Arjun at this time?

a)

Is anyone in your family allergic to anything?

b)

How long have you had this abrasion?

c)

Do you take any OTC drugs or herbal preparations?

d)

What do you do for a living?

20.

Aria visits a dermatology clinic for a routine check-up. The nurse reviews Aria's electronic health record and sees a note about a primary skin lesion. Based on this information, what type of skin lesion might Aria have?

a)

Crust

b)

Keloid

c)

Pustule

d)

Ulcer

21.

Sophia visits the dermatology clinic with a reddened rash on her abdomen. The nurse needs to identify the causative allergen. For what diagnostic test should the nurse prepare Sophia?

a)

Skin scrapings

b)

Skin biopsy

c)

Patch Testing

d)

Tzanck smear

22.

While caring for Mia, a client with decreased mobility, the nurse is planning her skin care and considers the varying thickness of the epidermis. At what location is the epidermal layer thickest?

a)

Scalp

b)

Elbows

c)

Palms of hands

d)

Knees

23.

A patient visits the clinic with a rough, raised lesion on her back. She is concerned it might be cancerous. After assessment and diagnostic tests, the lesion is identified as seborrheic keratosis. What should the nurse explain to the patient about this condition?

a)

Treatment is not necessary unless the lesion causes discomfort or cosmetic concern.

b)

The lesion should be biopsied every year to monitor for changes.

c)

This type of lesion is usually treated with radiation therapy.

d)

Immediate surgical removal is required to prevent malignancy.

24.

Olivia, a nurse, is caring for a client who has developed Kaposi sarcoma as a complication of HIV infection. Olivia needs to understand that this form of malignancy originates in what part of the body?

a)

Connective tissue cells in diffuse locations

b)

Smooth muscle cells of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract

c)

Neural tissue of the brain and spinal cord

d)

Endothelial cells lining small blood vessels

25.

David, a nurse, is performing an initial assessment of a client admitted with appendicitis. During the assessment, David observes an elevated blue-black lesion on the client's ear. The nurse knows that this lesion is consistent with what type of skin cancer?

a)

Basal cell carcinoma

b)

Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

Dermatofibroma

d)

Malignant melanoma

26.

Scarlett, a nurse, is caring for a client who has just developed the initial eruption of herpes zoster. She is planning the client's care and wants to know which medication, if given within the first 24 hours of the initial eruption, can arrest herpes zoster?

a)

Prednisone

b)

Azathioprine

c)

Triamcinolone

d)

Acyclovir

27.

Maya visits the clinic and shows the nurse a mole she is concerned about. To help Maya understand how to distinguish a normal mole from melanoma, the nurse explains the ABCDEs of moles. What does this stand for?

a)

Asymmetry, border irregular, color variegated, diameter, evolving

b)

Asymmetry, bleeding, cratering, darkened, evolving

c)

Alignment, border irregular, cratering, diameter, evolving

d)

Alignment, bleeding, color variegated, darkened, evolving

28.

During a biology class, Emma is asked by her teacher, "Can you tell us what the largest artery in the body is?" What should Emma answer?

a)

aorta

b)

left anterior descending artery

c)

right coronary artery

d)

superior vena cava

29.

During a medical checkup, Luna's doctor explains that the valve between the right atrium and right ventricle of her heart is functioning normally. What is the name of this heart valve?

a)

tricuspid

b)

mitral

c)

pulmonary

d)

aortic

30.

Priya, a nurse, is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment component would elicit specific information regarding the client's left-sided heart function?

a)

Listening to lung sounds

b)

Palpating for organomegaly

c)

Assessing for jugular vein distention

d)

Assessing for peripheral and sacral edema

31.

Noah is experiencing chest pain and his doctor suspects he may have coronary artery disease. What procedure is ordered to diagnose coronary artery disease and the extent of coronary artery occlusion?

a)

Cardiac catheterization

b)

Cardiac stress test

c)

Echocardiogram

d)

Electrocardiogram

32.

Grace is being treated for atrial fibrillation and her doctor prescribes warfarin (Coumadin). What is the therapeutic level for warfarin in this situation?

a)

2-3

b)

4-5

c)

less than 1

d)

3-4

33.

Lily is a nursing student practicing her clinical skills. Her instructor asks her to auscultate the apical pulse on a patient. Where should Lily place her stethoscope?

a)

fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

b)

second intercostal space just left of the sternum

c)

fifth intercostal space at the right of the sternum

d)

fourth intercostal space

34.

A client with a history of hypertension suddenly develops atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate of 150 bpm. Blood pressure is 158/80 mm Hg, and the client is alert with no signs of respiratory distress. The provider prescribes IV diltiazem and heparin. What is the primary purpose of this treatment?

a)

Restore sinus rhythm

b)

Control ventricular heart rate

c)

Increase cardiac output

d)

Prevent pulmonary edema

35.

Evelyn, who is being considered for an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD), asks the nurse about the purpose of this device during her hospital visit. What would be the nurse's best response?

a)

"To detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia."

b)

"To detect and treat bradycardia, which is an excessively slow heart rate."

c)

"To detect and treat atrial fibrillation, in which your heart beats too quickly and inefficiently."

d)

"To shock your heart if you have a heart attack at home."

36.

William has just returned to the cardiac care unit after having a permanent pacemaker implantation. For which potential complication should the nurse most closely assess William?

a)

Chest pain

b)

Bleeding at the implantation site

c)

Malignant hyperthermia

d)

Bradycardia

37.

While analyzing an ECG, Hannah wants to determine which part of the tracing represents the heart's recovery phase after ventricular contraction. Which component should she focus on?

a)

P wave

b)

T wave

c)

U wave

d)

QRS Complex

38.

Abigail, a nurse in the medical unit, is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client who has been transferred from the intensive care unit (ICU). Abigail notes that cardiac troponin T assay was performed while the client was in the ICU. Abigail determines that this test was performed to assist in diagnosing which condition?

a)

Heart failure

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

39.

Mason, a 58-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain. The doctor suspects a myocardial infarction. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of what is happening in Mason's heart?

a)

accumulation of plaque that ruptures producing a thrombus causing complete occlusion of the artery leading to necrosis of the myocardium supplied by that specific artery

b)

accumulation of plaque that ruptures producing a thrombus that decreases blood flow through the artery

c)

insufficient coronary blood flow resulting in a decreased oxygen supply when there is increased myocardial demand for oxygen in response to physical exertion or emotional stress

d)

inflammatory response from an injury to the vascular endothelium resulting in atheroma formation decreasing blood flow through the artery

40.

Abigail is rushed to the emergency room with severe chest pain and is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. Which of the following are used for the treatment of a myocardial infarction? Select all that apply.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitroglycerine

c)

Aspirin

d)

Morphine

e)

Coumadin

41.

The home health nurse is visiting a client who has had a mechanical valve replacement for severe mitral valve stenosis. Which statement by the client reflects an understanding of specific postoperative care after this surgery?

a)

"I need to count my pulse every day."

b)

"I have to do deep-breathing exercises every 2 hours."

c)

"I need to throw away my straight razor and buy an electric razor."

d)

"I have to go to the bathroom frequently because of my medication."

42.

During a shift at the hospital, Grace, a registered nurse (RN), is mentoring a new nurse about cardiac conditions. She asks, "Can you tell me which heart valve narrowing would impede the flow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle?" Which response by the new nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective?

a)

"Left ventricle to aorta narrowing will impede flow of blood."

b)

"Left atrium to left ventricle narrowing will impede flow of blood."

c)

"Right atrium to right ventricle narrowing will impede flow of blood."

d)

"Right ventricle to pulmonary artery narrowing will impede flow of blood."

43.

While working in the emergency room, Jackson encounters a patient who suddenly becomes unresponsive and pulseless. Which medication should Jackson typically administer first during the initial management of this patient?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Amiodarone

d)

Epinephrine

44.

Daniel, a 68-year-old patient, has been taking digitalis for his heart condition. Recently, he has started experiencing some new symptoms. What are clinical manifestations of digitalis toxicity that Daniel might be experiencing? Select all that apply.

a)

Visual disturbances

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Tachycardia

e)

Confusion

45.

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports being comfortable only when at rest and experiences shortness of breath, fatigue, and palpitations with minimal activity, such as walking to the bathroom. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, which class does this patient's heart failure most likely fall under?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

46.

Jackson, a 65-year-old man, visits the clinic with complaints of swelling in his legs and difficulty breathing. On examination, you notice some physical findings. Which of the following are symptoms of right-sided heart failure in Jackson? Select all that apply.

a)

Dependent edema

b)

Pulmonary congestion

c)

Cough with frothy, pink sputum

d)

Jugular venous distention

e)

Dependent edema

47.

Emma, a 70-year-old woman, presents to the emergency room with sudden onset of intense abdominal pain radiating to her back. She is pale and her blood pressure is low. Which of the following symptoms are most suggestive of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a)

intense abdominal pain

b)

pain radiating to the back

c)

pallor

d)

hypertension

e)

tachycardia

48.

While monitoring a client in the cardiac care unit, the nurse observes that the cardiac monitor suddenly displays a flat line. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

b)

Notify the rapid response team

c)

Assess the client and verify the monitor leads

d)

Document the event in the medical record

49.

Hannah, a client newly diagnosed with mild hypertension, comes in for an assessment. Which finding should the nurse expect during the assessment?

a)

Asymptomatic

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Visual disturbances

d)

Frequent nosebleeds

50.

Evelyn has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and her doctor has advised her to follow a diet low in sodium. During a nutrition class, the nurse is helping Evelyn choose foods that fit her new dietary needs. Which food item should the nurse include in a list of foods that Evelyn is allowed to eat?

a)

Tomato soup

b)

Boiled shrimp

c)

Instant oatmeal

d)

Summer squash

51.

Which factors influence blood pressure measurement? Select all that apply.

a)

drinking caffeine

b)

level of the arm

c)

size of cuff

d)

position of feet

e)

temperature

52.

What is the risk of abruptly discontinuing anti-hypertensive medications?

a)

rebound hypertension

b)

rebound hypotension

c)

reflex hypertension

d)

reflex hypotension

53.

Which of the following findings are commonly seen in a patient with hypertensive emergency? Select all that apply.

a)

acute renal failure

b)

retinal hemorrhages

c)

mild headache without other symptoms

d)

chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

e)

no symptoms and normal physical exam

54.

What are the target organs damaged by long standing hypertension? Select all that apply.

a)

eyes

b)

kidneys

c)

heart

d)

brain

e)

liver

55.

A client's health history reveals daily consumption of two to three bottles of wine. The nurse would consider increased risk for which hematologic disorder when planning assessments and interventions for this client?

a)

Leukemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Lymphoma

56.

After a client experiences a laceration, the body initiates hemostasis. Which of the following events occurs directly after platelet aggregation at the site of injury?

a)

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels

b)

Activation of fibrin to stabilize the clot

c)

Release of histamine from mast cells

d)

Conversion of thrombin to prothrombin

57.

A nurse is educating a client about the role of B lymphocytes. The nurse's description will include which of the following physiologic processes?

a)

Stem cell differentiation

b)

Cytokine production

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Antibody production

58.

The nurse's review of a client's most recent blood work reveals a significant increase in the number of band cells. The nurse's subsequent assessment should focus on which of the following?

a)

Respiratory function

b)

Evidence of decreased tissue perfusion

c)

Signs and symptoms of infection

d)

Recent changes in activity tolerance

59.

A client has been diagnosed with a lymphoid stem cell defect. This client has the potential for a problem involving which of the following?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Platelets

60.

A client undergoing a hip replacement has autologous blood on standby if a transfusion is needed. What is the primary advantage of autologous transfusions?

a)

Safe transfusion for clients with a history of transfusion reactions

b)

Prevention of viral infections from another person's blood

c)

Avoidance of complications in clients and alloantibodies

d)

Prevention of alloimmunization

61.

Through the process of hematopoiesis, stem cells differentiate into either myeloid or lymphoid stem cells. Into what do myeloid stem cells further differentiate? Select all that apply.

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Natural Killer Cells

c)

Cytokines

d)

Platelets

e)

Erythrocytes

62.

A client with bone marrow failure is unable to produce sufficient blood cells. Which organs may resume their role in hematopoiesis outside the bone marrow in this situation?

a)

Liver and spleen

b)

Kidneys and spleen

c)

Pancreas and kidneys

d)

Liver and pancreas

63.

The nurse is describing the role of plasminogen in the clotting cascade. Where in the body is plasminogen present?

a)

Myocardial muscle tissue

b)

All body fluids

c)

Cerebral tissue

d)

Venous and arterial vessel walls

64.

A client with von Willebrand disease (vWD) is scheduled for a dental extraction. What is the most appropriate intervention to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure?

a)

Administer desmopressin (DDAVP) prior to the procedure

b)

Withhold all anticoagulant medications for 72 hours before the procedure

c)

Advise the client to avoid eating or drinking for 12 hours before the procedure

d)

Schedule the procedure in an outpatient clinic without any special precautions

65.

An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify clients who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which ICU client most likely faces the highest risk of DIC?

a)

A client with extensive burns

b)

A client who has a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome

c)

A client who suffered multiple trauma in a workplace accident

d)

A client who is being treated for septic shock

66.

A nurse is developing a care plan for a client admitted with sickle cell disease who is experiencing an acute pain episode. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the greatest focus in the initial plan of care?

a)

Impaired physical mobility related to joint pain

b)

Risk for infection related to splenic dysfunction

c)

Acute pain related to tissue ischemia

d)

Disturbed body image related to chronic illness

67.

A woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing an exacerbation of iron-deficiency anemia in recent weeks. When providing the client with nutritional guidelines and meal suggestions, what foods would be most likely to increase the woman's iron stores?

a)

Salmon accompanied by whole milk

b)

Mixed vegetable and brown rice

c)

Beef liver accompanied by orange juice

d)

Yogurt, almonds, and whole grain oats

68.

A client with a history of cirrhosis is admitted to the ICU with a diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices; an attempt to stop the bleeding has been only partially successful. What would the critical care nurse expect the care team to prescribe for this client?

a)

Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Oral Anticoagulants

d)

Heparin Infusion

69.

A nurse is providing education to a client with iron deficiency anemia who has been prescribed iron supplements. What should the nurse include in health education?

a)

Take the iron with dairy products to enhance absorption

b)

Increase the intake of vitamin E to enhance absorption

c)

Iron will cause the stools to darken in color

d)

Limit food high in fiber due to the risk of diarrhea

70.

Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult client who is otherwise healthy. The client and the care team have collaborated and the client will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the client for:

a)

Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications

b)

Radiation therapy on a daily basis

c)

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

d)

An aggressive course of chemotherapy

71.

A nurse is caring for a client with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should identify what main goal of care?

a)

Cure of the disease

b)

Enhancing quality of life

c)

Controlling symptoms

d)

Palliative care

72.

An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old client who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The client denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this client to be assessed for which health problem?

a)

Hodgkin disease

b)

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

c)

Multiple Myeloma

d)

Acute Thrombocytopenia

73.

A patient with leukemia is having difficulty eating because of stomatitis and has been advised to use an oral anesthetic. What guidance should the nurse provide to promote safe eating habits?

a)

Take small bites and eat slowly to prevent mouth injuries

b)

Apply the oral anesthetic immediately after meals

c)

Rinse the mouth with water before using the anesthetic

d)

Avoid all solid foods while using the anesthetic

74.

A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital reporting severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. The client’s blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this client suspects which diagnosis?

a)

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

b)

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

c)

Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)

d)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

75.

Which of the following tests would be the hallmark of a acute myeloid leukemia (AML) diagnosis?

a)

A CBC with an increase in both erythrocytes and platelets

b)

A bone marrow analysis with an excess of blast cells

c)

A bone marrow analysis with a deficiency of blast cells

d)

A CBC with increased mature leukocytes and erythrocytes