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First Responder Review Test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

________ is expressed consent given by a rational adult after being informed of the provider’s training and what care procedures are to be done.

a)

Informed consent

b)

Implied consent

c)

Minor’s consent

d)

Action consent

2.

________ is a legal position that assumes that an unconscious or badly injured adult patient would consent to receiving emergency care.

a)

Informed consent

b)

Implied consent

c)

Minor’s consent

d)

Actual consent

3.

Negligence usually is a failure to provide the expected standard of care, leading to additional injury.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

4.

If you leave a sick or injured patient before equal or more highly trained personnel arrive you are said to have ________.

a)

Cleared for a call

b)

Aided the patient to the best of your ability

c)

Abandoned your patient

d)

Complied with your First Responder responsibilities

5.

Which of the following may put a First Responder at risk of contracting an infectious disease?

a)

Exposure to a patient’s heavy coughing spells

b)

Exposure to dried blood on equipment

c)

Exposure to body fluids when treating an accident victim

d)

Contact with a person who has minor lacerations on their hands

e)

All of the above

6.

All of the following are PPE except:

a)

Face mask

b)

Gloves

c)

Gown

d)

Eye wash station

7.

The disease which causes swelling in the liver is:

a)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

b)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

c)

Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

d)

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

8.

Which disease is common in jails, prisons, and nursing homes?

a)

Hepatitis

b)

HIV

c)

MRSA

d)

AIDS

9.

The disease known as a “super bug” is:

a)

Hepatitis

b)

HIV

c)

MRSA

d)

AIDS

10.

Unauthorized Practice of Medicine is what class of crime in North Carolina?

a)

Felony

b)

Misdemeanor

c)

Infraction

d)

Moving Violation

11.

When responding to a call where the patient is conscious, the First Responder should state his/her name, that he/she is medically trained, and:

a)

State the nature of the call

b)

Ask if the patient called

c)

Ask the patient if the First Responder may help

d)

Ask the patient if they need to go to the hospital

12.

When is the initial assessment / Primary Survey done?

a)

After speaking to any witnesses on the scene of the call

b)

After speaking to any police officers on the scene

c)

After you speak with the patient

d)

As soon as you reach the patient

13.

The initial way to check for a patient’s responsiveness is to talk to them.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

A patient’s carotid pulse is located in the ________.

a)

Lower body

b)

Upper arm

c)

Neck

d)

Lower arm

15.

To check the airway in an unresponsive patient who is ill with no sign of trauma you would use the:

a)

Head tilt / chin thrust maneuver

b)

Head thrust chin-lift maneuver

c)

Head thrust, chin thrust maneuver

d)

Head tilt, chin-lift maneuver

16.

To check the airway in an unresponsive patient where trauma is present or suspected you would use the:

a)

Jaw thrust maneuver

b)

Head tilt maneuver

c)

Chin-lift maneuver

d)

Head left, jaw lift maneuver

17.

In the ________ survey, the officer makes a detailed ________ evaluation of the patient; systematically looks, feels, listens, and even at times smells for medical problems.

a)

quick / written

b)

historical / extended

c)

speed / license

d)

secondary / head to toe

18.

In judging a patients level of responsiveness, AVPU stands for

a)

Alert, Verbal stimuli, painful stimuli, unresponsive

b)

Alert, verbal stimuli, Patient responds, unconscious

c)

awake, vocal, painful stimuli, unaware

d)

alive, vertical, puking, unkownn

19.

____ is what you see, feel, hear, and smell when examining the patient

a)

Sign

b)

History

c)

virtual sign

d)

symptom

20.

____ is what the patient tells you is wrong such as dizziness, vomiting and chest pain

a)

Sign

b)

history

c)

vital sign

d)

symptom

21.

pulse, respiration, pupils, relative skin color, and temperature are known as ____

a)

signs

b)

physical examinations

c)

vital signs

d)

symptoms

22.

When conducting an initial/primary assessment, you will look for ____

a)

patients name, address, and insurance information.

b)

Life threatening problems, airway, breathing, circulation

c)

how the injury/illness occured

d)

a witness to the incident.

23.

___ occurs when both the heartbeat and respiration have stopped

a)

biological death

b)

clinical death

c)

respiratory distress

d)

brain death

24.

_____ occurs when brain cells die

a)

Biological death

b)

clinical death

c)

respiratory distress

d)

brain death

25.

Which of the following is not a sign of normal breathing

a)

Even effortless rise and fall of the chest

b)

you can feel air moving in and out of the nose or mouth

c)

skin is tinted blue, ashen, or gray

d)

the rate of breathing for an adult is 12-20 breaths per minute

26.

Breathing that is irregular, too rapid, or slow is a sign of inadequate breathing

a)

True

b)

False

27.

When checking for breathing you should look, listen, and feel for air exchange and observe skin color.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

a stoma would be located in a patients ___

a)

nose

b)

ear

c)

neck

d)

stomach

29.

which of the following would a first responder do when a patient has gastric distension caused by artificial ventilation

a)

push on the stomach and increase the force of your ventilation

b)

push on the stomach and reduce the force of your ventilation

c)

increase the force your ventilation and resposition the patients head to provide a better airway

d)

reduce the force of your ventilation and reposition the patients head to provide a better airway

30.

____ shock is an acute allergic reaction to drugs, insect bites, food such as seafood, dust pollens, and other chemicals either ingested, injected, or inhaled

a)

psychogenic

b)

hypoglycemic

c)

septic

d)

Anaphylactic

31.

In what instance would you care for a patient with a partial airway obstruction as if it were a patient with a complete airway obstruction

a)

A conscious patient who can forcefully cough.

b)

a patient who continues to forcefully cough, but has not yet dislodged the obstruction.

c)

a patient who has a poor air exchange and cannot cough

d)

a patient who has some air exchange and who has forceful cough

32.

What type of patient would you position face down on your forearm and give back blows to in order to dislodge an airway obstruction

a)

senior citizen

b)

an infant

c)

a teenager

d)

a 80 lb child

33.

when applying chest thrust to an infant you should use the tips of two or three fingers

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

34.

when the heart suddenly stops beating, no oxygen can be pumped to the brain, and the oxygen supply in the brain is used up in about ___

a)

1 to 3 minutes

b)

4 to 6 minutes

c)

7 to 9 minutes

d)

8 to 10 minutes

35.

what are the three signs of cardiac arrest

a)

patient is unresponsive, is not breathing and has a strong carotid pulse

b)

patient is responsive, is not breathing and has a pulse

c)

patient is unresponsive, is breathing and has a pulse

d)

patient is unresponsive, is not breathing, and has no pulse

36.

cardiopulmonary resuscitation is an emergency procedure that provides both chest compressions and ventiliation when heart and lung actions stop.

a)

true

b)

false

37.

what is the ratio of breaths to compressions for an adult during one person CPR?

a)

three breaths to every twenty compressions

b)

three breaths to every fifteen compressions

c)

two breaths to every ten compressions

d)

two breaths to every thirty compressions

38.

what is the ratio of breaths to compressions for a child during one person CPR?

a)

two breaths to every five compressions

b)

one breath for every three compressions

c)

two breaths to every thirty compressions

d)

two breaths for every three compressions

39.

you may stop CPR when;

a)

spontaneous circulation and breathing begins

b)

an equally or more highly trained member of the EMS system or someone certified in CPR takes over for you

c)

you turn responsibility for the patient care over to a physician

d)

you are exhausted and no longer able to continue

e)

any of the above

40.

The CPR sequence under American Heart association guidelines is

a)

Compression, airway, breathing

b)

airway, breathing, compressions

c)

breathing, compressions, airway

41.

the ratio of breaths to compressions for children and infants during two person cpr is

a)

two breaths for fifteen compressions

b)

two breaths for five compressions

c)

one breath for fifteen compressions

d)

two breaths to every thirty compressions

42.

____ carry / carries blood away from the heart

a)

arteries

b)

veins

c)

capillaries

d)

perfusion

43.

___ returns blood to the heart

a)

arteries

b)

veins

c)

capillaries

d)

perfusion

44.

of the three types of external bleed, ____ bleeding is the most serious

a)

perfusion

b)

venous

c)

arterial

d)

capillary

45.

when applying a pressure dressing to a wound, if the bleeding continues, you should remove all the dressing and apply a fresh dressing

a)

True

b)

False

46.

when applying a tourniquet to control life-threatening external bleeding, the tourniquet should be ___ inches above the wound (not over a joint or impaled object)

a)

1/2 - 1

b)

1-2

c)

5-6

d)

2-3

47.

A tourniquet should be tightened until the bleeding stops

a)

true

b)

false

48.

if you have applied a tourniquet to a patient, you must loosen it every 3-5 minutes as needed

a)

True

b)

False

49.

if the first tourniquet applied does not stop the bleeding a second tourniquet can be applied closer to the body

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

50.

Field treatment for a penetrating gunshot wound to the head is:

a)

occlusive dressing with a vent or flutter value

b)

use of a tourniquet

c)

there is no real field treatment for this, rapid transport is key

d)

2 large bore IVs and 100% oxygen via non-rebreather

51.

____ should be suspected if the patient coughs up blood

a)

Compound fracture

b)

internal bleeding

c)

external bleeding

d)

gastric distension

52.

____ occurs when there is a failure of the circulatory system to provide enough blood to all the vital parts of the body

a)

hyperthermia

b)

internal bleeding

c)

hemorrhagic shock

d)

respiratory distress

53.

which of the following is not a symptom of shock

a)

the patient is complains they are restless

b)

the patient has profuse external bleeding

c)

the patient is feeling achy

d)

the patient is thirsty

54.

which of the following is not a sign of shock

a)

the patient complains of weakness

b)

the patient has profuse external bleeding

c)

the patients blood pressure is falling

d)

the patients pulse is rapid, weak, and irregular

55.

__ shock results from a severe systemic allergic reaction

a)

Psychogenic

b)

Anaphylactic

c)

Metabolic

d)

Septic

56.

A contusion/bruise is an example of a/an ___

a)

open wound

b)

Closed wound

c)

compound wound

d)

simple wound

57.

A laceration/cut is an example of a/an

a)

open wound

b)

closed wound

c)

compound wound

d)

simple wound

58.

A / An ___ is a wound caused by scraping, rubbing, or shearing away of the outermost layer of skin

a)

Contusion

b)

Hematoma

c)

Abrasions

d)

amputation

59.

A / An ___ occurs when interal organs protrude from an open wound

a)

Abrasions

b)

Contusion

c)

Avulsion

d)

Evisceration

60.

For a patient with an impaled object, the impaled object should never be removed in the field unless it is through the patients cheeks and interfering with airway management or CPR

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

to treat a sucking chest wound the officer responder should use an occlusive bandage that is at least 2 inches larger than the wound on all sides, which should be large enough not to be sucked into the wound

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

62.

Pupils of unequal size might be a sign of

a)

Upper-arm fracture

b)

a burn injury

c)

a head / brain injury

d)

DWI

63.

A "normal" adult blood pressure would be:

a)

300/100

b)

80/30

c)

120/80

d)

5

64.

An _______ is a syringe with a spring-loaded needle that will release and inject epinephrine into the muscle when the auto-injector is pushed against the thigh?

a)

Whizzy-me-do

b)

Bugout kit

c)

Epinephrine auto-injector

d)

Naloxone (narcan) nasal atomizer

65.

Clear fluid leaking from the ears and/or nose of victim of a traumatic accident is a sign of a possible...

a)

Pulmonary contusions

b)

Myocardial contusions

c)

Fractured skull

d)

Subcutaneous emphysema

66.

About 25% of poisonous snake bites are "dry" bites, or those in which venom is not injected.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Unequal pupil size with altered mental status is considered a symptom of a head injury.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Chest pain or discomfort described as heaviness or squeezing that may also radiate to the arms, shoulder, neck, or jaw is a general sign/symptom of a possible heart attack.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Female patients may not have any of the classic symptoms of a heart attack. They may complain of back pain.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Naloxone, sometimes referred to as Narcan, is an antidote for opioid overdose for drugs such as Percocet, OxyCotin, and heroin

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Hypogylcemia refers to low blood sugar.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Heat Stroke is not a medical emergency

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A patient may suffer a stroke when an area of the brain is deprived of blood.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

For wet chemical burns, you should flush with copious amounts of water for at least ___ minutes.

a)

10 to 15

b)

5 to 8

c)

1 to 2

d)

20 to 30

75.

A ____ involves only the top two layers of skin, the epidermis and the dermis. This type of burn is very painful.

a)

Superficial burn of first-degree burn

b)

Partial thickness burn of second-degree burn

c)

full thickness burn of third-degree burn

d)

Minor sunburn

76.

What type of condition involves the overall reduction of body temperature which can be deadly?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Hypoxemia

77.

The ___ organ is attached to the wall of the uterus that receives nutrients and oxygen from the mother for the fetus and returns waste from the fetus to the mother.

a)

Amniotic sac

b)

Umbilical cord

c)

Placenta

d)

Cervix

78.

The first stage of labor is also known as the expulsion stage.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

A behavioral emergency may be caused by a physical condition such as lack of oxygen or low blood sugar.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to insect bites.stings or food allergies. When severe it is generally...

a)

Non life threatening in nature and has little or no affect on the circulatory system

b)

Non life threatening in nature and has a slow effect on the circulatory system

c)

Life threatening and has a rapid effect on the airway and breathing.

d)

Life threatening and has little or no effect on the airway or breathing

81.

Withdrawal from alcohol can be as serious as an overdose emergency

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Excited Delirium is a combination of delirium, psychomotor agitation (a series of unintentional and purposeless motions), anxiety, hallucinations, speech disturbances, disorientation, violent/bizzare behavior, insensitivity to pain, hyperthermia, and increased strength.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

____ is a common chronic neurological condition that is characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures.

a)

Migraine Headache

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Shingles

d)

Cardiac Arrest

84.

____ will cause anyone exposed to it to possibly experience tearing of the eyes, runny nose, salivation, coughing, burning of the airways, chest tightness, and difficulty breathing. These symptoms usually begin to subside within 2 hours of exposure

a)

Taser ECD

b)

Straight Baton

c)

.40 Caliber, 180 grain JHP

d)

OC Spray

85.

____ is the sorting multiple casualties into priorities for emergency care or for transportation to definitive care.

a)

Rapid Deployment

b)

Scene Security

c)

Triage

d)

Care under Fire

86.

Under the simple triage and rapid treatment (START) triage method there are __ levels

a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

4

87.

Under the simple triage and rapid treatment (START) triage system a patient with who is unable to walk and has respiration of 12, is alert and oriented and has a radical pulse is what level/color

a)

Dead / Black

b)

Immediate / Red

c)

Delayed / Yellow

d)

Minor / Green

88.

The greatest danger in an emergency move is

a)

Blocking the patients airway

b)

The possibility of making a spine injury worse

c)

Causing an injury to the first responder

d)

None of the above

89.

The first medically trained person arriving at the scene is usually a ___

a)

Paramedics

b)

First Responders

c)

Bystander

d)

None of the above

90.

Privacy of medical patients is governed by HIPAA (Health insurance protability and accountability act)

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Under the simple triage and rapid treatment system, evaluation is intended to be completed in about _____ seconds per victim

a)

20

b)

30

c)

45

d)

60

92.

The recommended means to control major bleeding in a tactical environment while under fire is a rapidly applied _____

a)

Tourniquet

b)

Band-aid

c)

Occlusive Dressing

d)

Pressure Dressing

93.

Usually, the best first step in saving a wounded officer is to control the ____

a)

Low ground

b)

Tactical situation

c)

Tunnel Vision

d)

Water (Go Navy!!!)

94.

The best movement to use for rescuing an injured officer is the _____

a)

Firemans carry

b)

Extremity Carry

c)

2-rescuer assist

d)

bounce and thump method

95.

If an object is impaled in the eye, you should cover both eyes to reduce movement of the injured eye

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The term _____ refers to the circulation of the blood at the capillary and cellular level. Cells are ___ when there is an uninterrupted flow of blood under a more constant pressure. ___ is vital in that it keeps the body cells healthy by providing them with oxygen and other nutrients and removing waste products.

a)

Circulation / Happy/ Circulation

b)

Perfusion / Perfused / perfusion

c)

CPR / Fat / Water

d)

Hypovolemic / Sleepy / Light

97.

The average adult male has approximately ___ pints of blood

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

None of the above

98.

For the average adult male, a loss of approximately ___ pints of blood lead to moderate shock?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

99.

For the average adult male, a loss of approximately ___ pints of blood results in severe shock and can be fatal

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

None of the above

100.

The first priority is the safety of ____

a)

The suspect

b)

The bystanders

c)

Other Officers

d)

Yourself