wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

5th session

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicinWhat is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.

II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes (endonucleases).

III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.

IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.

V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA.

a)

II, III, V, IV, I

b)

III, II, IV, V, I

c)

III, IV, V, I, II

d)

IV, V, I, II, III

2.

Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning?

a)

They easily form colonies.

b)

They can remove exons from mRNA.

c)

They do not have plasmids.

d)

They are eukaryotic cells.

3.

Which of the following processes is most like the formation of identical twins?

a)

cell cloning

b)

therapeutic cloning

c)

use of adult stem cells

d)

organismal cloning

4.

In DNA technology, the term vector can refer to

a)

the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments

b)

the sticky end of a DNA fragment.

c)

a SNP marker.

d)

a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.

5.

Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?

a)

electrophoresis- separation of DNA fragments

b)

DNA ligase-cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments

c)

DNA polymerase- polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA

d)

reverse transcriptase- production of cDNA from mRNA

6.

6. Bioinformatics includes

I. using computer programs to align DNA sequences

II. creating recombinant DNA from separate species

III. developing computer-based tools for genome analysis

IV. using mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

II and IV

d)

I, III, and IV

7.

Which of the following can be duplicated in a genome?

a)

only DNA sequences

b)

only entire sets of chromosomes

c)

only entire chromosomes

d)

DNA sequences, chromosomes, or sets of chromosomes

8.

The Linnaeus classification system grouped organisms by

a)

linear hierarchy of the scala naturae

b)

increasingly more general categories

c)

increasingly more complex categories

d)

environmental location

9.

Darwin used the phrase "descent with modification" to explain

a)

unity of life

b)

descent of all organisms from a single, ancient ancestor.

c)

that habitat differences stimulate change in organisms

d)

evolution of the unity and diversity of life

10.

Which of the following statements describe evolution?

a)

Individuals evolve in response to their environment.

b)

The match between organism and their environment decreases.

c)

Natural selection chooses the most popular trait.

d)

Population evolve in response to their environment.

11.

Arrange the following in order from most general to most specific.

1. natural selection

2. microevolution

3. intrasexual selection

4. evolution

5. sexual selection

a)

4, 1, 2, 3, 5

b)

4, 2, 1, 3, 5

c)

4, 2, 1, 5, 3

d)

1, 4, 2, 5, 3

12.

Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some survive and reproduce better than others.

a)

alleles

b)

loci

c)

species

d)

individuals

13.

What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for determining species boundaries?

a)

geographic isolation

b)

niche differences

c)

gene flow

d)

morphological similarity

14.

The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is.

a)

a population

b)

a species

c)

the entire range of a genus

d)

the hybrid zone

15.

What is the term given to the theory which put forth the idea that living organisms could arise by incubating nonliving components?

a)

spontaneous generation

b)

natural selection

c)

evolution

d)

preformation

16.

Who was the Augustinian monk that conducted a decade of experiments on the garden pea, eventually showing that traits are passed from parents to offspring in predictable ways?

a)

Francis Crick

b)

Alfred Wallace

c)

Hippocrates

d)

Gregor Mendel

17.

Genetics is defined as the branch of biology associated with.

a)

heredity and variation

b)

mutation and recession

c)

transcription and translation

d)

diploid and haploid

18.

The observable feature of an organism is referred to as

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

prototype

d)

karyotype

19.

Genetic information contained in DNA that encodes for an amino acid is referred to as an

a)

allele

b)

trait

c)

nucleotide

d)

codon

20.

A primary discovery to generate recombinant DNA molecules was the use of

a)

Xray diffraction

b)

restriction enzymes

c)

microscopes

d)

bioinformatic

21.

is an organism produced by biotechnology that involves the transfer of hereditary traits across species

a)

transgenic organism

b)

mutant

c)

clone

d)

vecto

22.

The study of the structure, function, and evolution of genes and genomes is referred to as

a)

genomics

b)

proteomics

c)

bioinformatics

d)

genetics

23.

Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic biological research are often called

a)

clones

b)

vectors

c)

recombinant DNA technology

d)

model organisms

24.

DNA, as genetic material/transforming principle was experimently proved by which of the following scientists?

a)

Friedrick Meischer and Griffith

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Rosalin and Willkins

d)

Avery Mcleod and Mc Carty

25.

The breaking of hydrogen bonds in a dna molecule when subjected to high temperature is known as

a)

Renaturation

b)

Denaturation

c)

Annealing

d)

Ionisation

26.

Which term describes DNA replication?

a)

Conservative

b)

Semiconservative

c)

Dispersive

d)

None of these

27.

RNA is synthesized on a DNA template in a process called, which utilizes the enzyme

a)

translation, RNA polymerase

b)

transcription, DNA polymerase

c)

transcription, RNA polymerase

d)

replication, DNA polymerase

28.

Type of mutation in which a pyrimidine is substituted for a purine

a)

Transition

b)

Transversion

c)

Frameshift

d)

Conversion

e)

Inversion

29.

A base change that changes a codon for an amino acid to a stop codon

a)

Missense

b)

Silent

c)

Nonsense

d)

Synonymous

e)

Frameshift

30.

An enzyme that recognizes a specific (palindromic) sequence and cuts within a DNA molecule is called a(n):

a)

exonuclease

b)

methylase

c)

modification enzyme

d)

restriction endonuclease

31.

Which is the correct order, from smallest to largest number of base pairs?

a)

plasmid, transposon, chromosomal DNA

b)

chromosomal DNA, transposon, plasmid

c)

transposon, plasmid, chromosomal DNA

d)

plasmid, chromosomal DNA transposon

32.

Which of the following people conducted the experiments that demonstrated that DNA is the genetic material of bacteriophages?

a)

Hershey and Chase

b)

Pauling

c)

Franklin

d)

Watson and Crick

33.

Which of the following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?

a)

DNA → RNA →protein

b)

protein → RNA → DNA

c)

DNA → tRNA →mRNA → protein

d)

RNA → DNA → RNA→ protein

34.

marks the end of a gene and causes transcription to stop.

a)

A terminator

b)

Methionine

c)

RNA ligase

d)

RNA polymerase

35.

Approximately what percentage of the human genome is identical to that of a chimpanzee?

a)

98.8%

b)

92.0%

c)

62.3%

d)

50.0%

36.

Segments of eukaryotic DNA that can move or be copied from one site to another in the genome are called

a)

vectors.

b)

transposable elements.

c)

exons.

d)

plasmids

37.

What is the current standard tool used for DNA profiling by forensic scientists?

a)

DNA microarrays

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

STR analysis

d)

PCR

38.

What is the preferred name of the technique used to determine if DNA comes from a particular individual?

a)

DNA profiling

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

DNA scrutiny

d)

DNA outline

39.

Golden rice is golden in color because it is rich in

a)

vitamin C.

b)

beta-carotene.

c)

chromium picolinate.

d)

vitamin A.

40.

A vaccine works by

a)

stimulating the immune system.

b)

inhibiting bacterial replication.

c)

inhibiting viral replication.

d)

preventing the translation of mRNA.

41.

The only recombinant cells that can correctly attach sugars to proteins to form glycoprotein products are

a)

yeast cells.

b)

mammalian cells.

c)

E. coli cells.

d)

algal cells.

42.

The type of recombinant bacteria most often used to mass-produce genes is

a)

Escherichia coli.

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

c)

Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

43.

A collection of DNA fragments obtained from the genome of one organism, inserted by recombinant DNA techniques into the genome of a host organism (one fragment per host genome), and maintained there is called a

a)

DNA file.

b)

genomic library.

c)

DNA collection.

d)

gene bank.

44.

are a major source of restriction enzymes.

a)

Archaea

b)

Parietal cells

c)

Bacteria

d)

Chief cells

45.

The production of multiple identical copies of gene-sized pieces of DNA defines

a)

tissue culturing.

b)

clonal selection.

c)

plasmid transformation.

d)

gene cloning.

46.

When DNA from two sources is combined into one single piece of DNA, it is known as

a)

cloned DNA.

b)

a vector.

c)

a plasmid.

d)

recombinant DNA.

47.

Biotechnology

a)

has been around since the dawn of civilization.

b)

is generally considered more harmful than valuable to society.

c)

is a modern scientific discipline that has existed for only a few decades.

d)

is strictly concerned with the manipulation of DNA.

48.

The carcinogen known to cause the most cases and types of cancer is

a)

alcohol.

b)

ultraviolet light.

c)

tobacco.

d)

plutonium

49.

A gene that can cause cancer when present in a single copy in a cell is called a(n)

a)

enhancer gene.

b)

proto-oncogene.

c)

carcinogen.

d)

oncogene.

50.

The use of cloning to produce special embryonic stem cells is called

a)

reproductive cloning.

b)

regenerative cloning.

c)

transplantational cloning.

d)

therapeutic cloning

51.

The coding regions of a gene (the portions that are expressed as polypeptide sequences) are called

a)

redundant coding sections.

b)

exons.

c)

introns.

d)

proto-oncogenes

52.

The basis of cellular differentiation is

a)

selective gene expression.

b)

mutation.

c)

cloning.

d)

the operon

53.

In a prokaryote, a group of genes with related functions, along with their associated control sequences, defines

a)

an operon.

b)

an allele.

c)

a transposon.

d)

a locus

54.

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called

a)

a mutagen.

b)

a mutation.

c)

a base substitution.

d)

an anticodon

55.

Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of

a)

Rhizobium

b)

Saccharomyces

c)

Escherichia

d)

Mycobacterium

56.

Scientists at the biotechnology company Genentech created the first recombinant DNA product for use in humans. Approved by the Food and Drug Administration in 1982, this product was

a)

a gene chip

b)

Chymosin

c)

Insulin

d)

human growth hormone

57.

Which area of biotechnology primarily involves using living organisms to process, degrade, and clean up environmental pollution?

a)

Genomics

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Bioremediation

d)

Marine biotechnology

58.

Studying the entire complement of DNA in an organism's cells is known as

a)

genomics

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

bioremediation

d)

nanotechnology

59.

is customized medicine based on a person's genetics.

a)

Genomics

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Bioremediation

d)

Pharmacogenomics

60.

involves farm-raising finfish, shellfish, algae, and other aquatic organisms

a)

Biopharming

b)

Aquaculture

c)

Pharmacogenomics

d)

Bioremediation

61.

is the use of normal genes or the replacement of diseased genes for treating human genetic disorders

a)

Genetics

b)

Genomics

c)

Pharmacogenomics

d)

Gene therapy

62.

Selective breeding involves

a)

genetic engineering of animals and plants to improve growth characteristics

b)

mating organisms with desirable characteristics

c)

the use of fermentation to produce biotechnology products

d)

combining sperm and egg cells from different species to produce hybrid organisms

63.

is the use of living organisms or their products to clean up the environment, improve human health, and provide more nutritious and disease-free food

a)

Bioremediation

b)

Biotechnology

c)

Genetic engineering

d)

Biodegradation

64.

Which of the following is the application of biotechnology to industrial processes

a)

Microbial biotechnology

b)

Animal biotechnology

c)

Forensic biotechnology

d)

Medical biotechnology

65.

What three locations account for approximately 95% of biotechnology countries?

a)

Europe, Japan, and South America

b)

Europe, Japan, and North America

c)

Europe, China, and Canada

d)

Canada, Japan, and South America

66.

What technique was most helpful to Watson and Crick in developing their model for the structure of DNA?

a)

radioactive

b)

X-ray crystallography

c)

transgenic animals

d)

electrophoresis

67.

The main technique involved in agricultural biotechnology is.

a)

Tissue culture

b)

Transformation

c)

Plant Breeding

d)

DNA replication

68.

The correct order of steps in PCR is

a)

Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

b)

Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

c)

Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

d)

Extension, Cutting, Denaturation

69.

Which branch of biotechnology focuses on medical and pharmaceutical applications like vaccines and antibiotics?

a)

Green biotechnology

b)

White biotechnology

c)

Red biotechnology

d)

Blue biotechnology

70.

Which of the following techniques is used to introduce foreign DNA into a bacterial cell?

a)

Transformation

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Translocation

71.

Which of the following best describes CRISPR-Cas9 technology?

a)

A DNA replication tool

b)

A method for DNA fingerprinting

c)

A gene-editing system

d)

A protein synthesis mechanism