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Chapter 61 Pharm Final Review

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is acne?

a)

A chronic disease characterized by erythema and telangiectasis

b)

A disorder of the hair follicles and sebaceous glands that become clogged

c)

A common type of ringworm infection

d)

Widespread sloughing of the skin with severe mucositis

2.

Which condition is also known as athlete’s foot?

a)

Rosacea

b)

Urticaria

c)

Tinea pedis

d)

Psoriasis

3.

What is the primary purpose of corticosteroid drug therapy?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To reduce inflammation in dermatologic conditions

c)

To increase skin pigmentation

d)

To promote hair growth

4.

Which of the following is characterized by redness of the skin?

a)

Pruritus

b)

Erythema

c)

Dermatitis

d)

Acne vulgaris

5.

What is urticaria commonly known as?

a)

Eczema

b)

Hives

c)

Athlete’s foot

d)

Rosacea

6.

What is the recommended starting approach for potency and duration when using topical corticosteroids?

a)

Start with highest potency and longest duration

b)

Start with lowest potency and shortest duration

c)

Start with medium potency and moderate duration

d)

Start with highest potency and shortest duration

7.

Which of the following is a pharmacologic action of topical corticosteroids?

a)

Increase inflammation

b)

Suppress release of kinins, histamine, prostaglandins

c)

Decrease skin absorption

d)

Enhance immune response

8.

What is a common adverse effect of high potency topical corticosteroids?

a)

Increased risk of infections

b)

Risk of Cushing syndrome and HPA axis suppression

c)

Enhanced skin healing

d)

Increased energy levels

9.

Which organisms are commonly associated with antibacterial drug therapy?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Streptococci and Staphylococci

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Candida albicans

10.

What type of infection is characterized by erythema, tenderness, and edema, and can spread to subcutaneous tissue?

a)

Folliculitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Furuncles

11.

Which drug is indicated for gram-negative soft tissue infections?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Neomycin

12.

What skin disorder is common in puberty due to hormonal changes?

a)

Rosacea

b)

Impetigo

c)

Acne

d)

Cellulitis

13.

Which topical antibacterial is used to prevent postoperative surgical infection?

a)

Neomycin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Mupirocin

d)

Polymyxin

14.

What is the function of silver sulfadiazine in burn care?

a)

It acts as a moisturizer

b)

It releases silver for broad-spectrum antimicrobial action

c)

It is used for pain relief

d)

It promotes rapid healing

15.

What is a common treatment for severe skin reactions like Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)?

a)

Antiviral medication

b)

Culture-directed antibacterial therapy

c)

Antifungal treatment

d)

Steroid injections

16.

Which of the following is a common drug trigger for Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Allopurinol

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Aspirin

17.

What is the purpose of administering mupirocin intranasally before surgery?

a)

To reduce inflammation

b)

To prevent MRSA infection

c)

To enhance wound healing

d)

To decrease pain

18.

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for general skin health?

a)

Eat a balanced diet

b)

Avoid excess sun exposure

c)

Use occlusive dressings regularly

d)

Maintain good personal hygiene

19.

When does the risk of systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids increase?

a)

When the medication is mild

b)

When the medication is potent

c)

When applied to dry skin

d)

When used infrequently

20.

Which of the following is a tip for preventing skin disorders?

a)

Use harsh cleaners and latex gloves

b)

Bathe in warm water with a mild cleanser

c)

Rub skin dry after washing

d)

Avoid using any lotion or oil

21.

What should be done to avoid scratching lesions?

a)

Use harsh soaps

b)

Keep fingernails long

c)

Wear cotton gloves at night

d)

Rub lesions frequently

22.

What is the correct procedure for applying medication to the skin?

a)

Apply a thick layer of medication

b)

Rub in a small amount well

c)

Wash hands only after application

d)

Apply only to visible lesions

23.

What is a specific instruction for using Azelaic Acid (Azelex)?

a)

Use occlusive dressings

b)

Use for a short period

c)

Do not use occlusive dressings/wraps

d)

Apply only to visible lesions

24.

What is the recommended frequency for using benzoyl peroxide cleansing solutions initially?

a)

1–2 times daily

b)

3–4 times daily

c)

Once a week

d)

Every other day

25.

Which of the following is a common cause of fungal infections of the skin and mucus membranes?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Candida albicans

c)

Viral infection

d)

Parasitic infection

26.

What should be done if stinging or burning occurs when using benzoyl peroxide?

a)

Increase the dosage

b)

Apply more frequently

c)

Wash off with mild soap/water and skip until next day

d)

Continue use without changes

27.

What is the treatment for antifungal infections?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Antiviral agents

c)

Topical or systemic antifungal agents

d)

Antiparasitic agents

28.

What is the primary use of Nystatin in medical treatment?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To bind to sterols in fungal cell membranes

c)

To enhance viral replication

d)

To inhibit DNA synthesis

29.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat dermatophyte infections?

a)

Acyclovir

b)

Nystatin

c)

Butenafine

d)

Trypsin

30.

What is the role of acyclovir triphosphate in antiviral therapy?

a)

It enhances viral replication

b)

It inhibits DNA synthesis and viral replication

c)

It binds to fungal cell membranes

d)

It promotes ergosterol synthesis

31.

Which enzyme is NOT mentioned as used for wound debridement?

a)

Trypsin

b)

Collagenase

c)

Papain

d)

Amylase

32.

What type of infections does herpes simplex type 1 usually involve?

a)

Genitalia

b)

Face or neck

c)

Feet

d)

Hands

33.

What is the role of collagen in the products mentioned in the document?

a)

It decreases epithelial tissue.

b)

It stimulates angiogenesis and increases epithelial tissue.

c)

It inhibits angiogenesis.

d)

It reduces inflammation.

34.

Which of the following is a topical immunosuppressant drug for severe atopic dermatitis?

a)

Alefacept

b)

Tacrolimus

c)

Etanercept

d)

Infliximab

35.

What is a potential risk associated with systemic immunosuppressant drugs like etanercept?

a)

Skin cancer

b)

Increased infection risk

c)

Hair loss

d)

Weight gain

36.

Which antihistamine is considered more sedating?

a)

Cetirizine

b)

Loratadine

c)

Diphenhydramine

d)

Fexofenadine

37.

What is the purpose of using nitroglycerin for hemorrhoids?

a)

To reduce bleeding

b)

To prevent constipation

c)

To treat thrombosed external hemorrhoids

d)

To increase blood pressure

38.

Which ingredient is used to relieve dry skin and pruritus?

a)

Salicylic acid

b)

Lanolin

c)

Alpha hydroxy acids

d)

Sunscreens

39.

What is the primary function of alpha hydroxy acids in skincare?

a)

Remove warts

b)

Treat wrinkles and sun-damaged skin

c)

Protect from UVA and UVB

d)

Relieve dry skin

40.

What is a common characteristic of acne vulgaris?

a)

It only affects the scalp

b)

It involves blockage and inflammation of hair follicles

c)

It is caused by viral infections

d)

It is unrelated to puberty

41.

Which of the following is NOT a pathologic event in acne-infected hair follicles?

a)

Androgen-mediated stimulation of sebaceous gland activity

b)

Abnormal keratinization causing follicular plugging

c)

Proliferation of P. acnes bacteria

d)

Decreased sebum production

42.

What role do P. acnes bacteria play in acne lesions?

a)

They reduce inflammation

b)

They produce lipase enzymes that break down free fatty acids

c)

They decrease sebum production

d)

They prevent follicular plugging

43.

Which of the following diets is suggested to reduce inflammatory lesions in teenagers?

a)

High glycemic load diets

b)

Low glycemic load diets

c)

Diets high in chocolate

d)

Diets rich in zinc

44.

What is the primary goal of acne treatment according to the document?

a)

Increase P. acnes

b)

Reduce inflammation by eliminating P. acnes

c)

Promote skin dryness

d)

Enhance skin pigmentation

45.

Which topical antimicrobial is noted for its antibacterial activity against P. acnes and is as effective as benzoyl peroxide?

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Azelaic acid

d)

Tretinoin

46.

What is a common adverse effect of benzoyl peroxide mentioned in the document?

a)

Skin hydration

b)

Irritant dermatitis

c)

Increased pigmentation

d)

Hair growth

47.

Which oral antibiotic is noted for reducing P. acnes-induced inflammatory cytokines?

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Azelaic acid

48.

Which of the following antibiotics is known to inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Minocycline

49.

What is the minimum recommended duration for the use of oral antibiotics?

a)

2 to 4 weeks

b)

4 to 6 weeks

c)

6 to 8 weeks

d)

8 to 10 weeks

50.

Which topical retinoid is often used with other products for treating acne?

a)

Adapalene

b)

Tazarotene

c)

Isotretinoin

d)

Acitretin

51.

According to the QSEN study, what percentage of improvement in quality of life was observed in patients receiving isotretinoin treatment by month two?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

52.

What is aloe commonly used for in herbal preparations?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To reduce acne

c)

To decrease pain, itching, and inflammation

d)

To improve digestion

53.

What is the primary benefit of using oats topically?

a)

To reduce itching from histamine production

b)

To treat minor skin irritation and pruritus

c)

To inhibit arachidonic acid metabolism

d)

To increase blood flow to the area

54.

Which of the following is a characteristic of isotretinoin?

a)

It increases sebum production

b)

It inhibits comedone formation

c)

It accelerates cell proliferation

d)

It decreases differentiation in neuroblastoma

55.

What is a known effect of retinoids on skin cells?

a)

They decrease differentiation

b)

They inhibit proliferation

c)

They promote proliferation and differentiation

d)

They increase sebum production

56.

What is the role of isotretinoin in treating acne?

a)

It increases sebum viscosity

b)

It suppresses sebum production

c)

It promotes P. acnes growth

d)

It enhances comedone formation

57.

What is the primary use of Isotretinoin?

a)

Treating mild acne

b)

Treating severe recalcitrant nodular acne

c)

Treating eczema

d)

Treating psoriasis

58.

Why is Isotretinoin contraindicated in pregnancy?

a)

It causes nausea

b)

It causes severe congenital malformations

c)

It causes dry skin

d)

It causes headaches

59.

Which of the following is a BLACK BOX WARNING associated with Isotretinoin?

a)

Dry skin

b)

Severe congenital malformations and spontaneous abortions

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Hyperlipidemia

60.

What should be monitored due to the risk of hepatotoxicity when using Isotretinoin?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Liver enzymes

c)

Heart rate

d)

Blood sugar levels

61.

Which of the following is a contraindication for Isotretinoin?

a)

Hypersensitivity to isotretinoin

b)

History of migraines

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Seasonal allergies

62.

What should be done before starting isotretinoin treatment?

a)

Perform a skin allergy test

b)

Conduct baseline CBC, fasting lipid profile, and liver function tests

c)

Start a vitamin A supplement

d)

Increase sun exposure

63.

How should isotretinoin capsules be taken to avoid esophageal irritation?

a)

With a small sip of water

b)

On an empty stomach

c)

Swallowed whole with a full glass of liquid

d)

Chewed before swallowing

64.

What is the ideal reduction in total cyst count when assessing the therapeutic effects of isotretinoin?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

90%

65.

Which of the following is a sign of hypervitaminosis A to watch for during isotretinoin treatment?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Weight gain

d)

Improved skin texture

66.

What should patients avoid during isotretinoin therapy to prevent skin dryness and irritation?

a)

Using regular soap

b)

Using sunscreen

c)

Using abrasive or medicated soaps

d)

Drinking plenty of water

67.

Which of the following substances increases the risk of pseudotumor cerebri?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Vitamin A

68.

What is the only topical retinoid available without a prescription?

a)

Tazarotene

b)

Isotretinoin

c)

Adapalene

d)

Benzoyl peroxide

69.

What is required before starting isotretinoin therapy according to the iPLEDGE program?

a)

One negative pregnancy test

b)

Two negative pregnancy tests

c)

A prescription from any doctor

d)

A signed consent form

70.

How often must patients see their healthcare provider while on isotretinoin according to the iPLEDGE program?

a)

Weekly

b)

Bi-weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Every two months

71.

What is the maximum supply of isotretinoin that can be prescribed at each monthly visit?

a)

15-day supply

b)

30-day supply

c)

45-day supply

d)

60-day supply

72.

What must physicians certify to meet provider requirements for acne treatment?

a)

Expertise in dermatology

b)

Expertise in acne diagnosis and treatment

c)

Expertise in cosmetic surgery

d)

Expertise in general medicine

73.

What must all patients be counseled on, regardless of pregnancy potential?

a)

iPLEDGE and the risks of congenital anomalies

b)

General health and wellness

c)

Diet and exercise

d)

Stress management techniques