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Chapter 23 (1/3) Pharm Final Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are antiretroviral drugs used for?

a)

Treating bacterial infections

b)

Treating retroviral infections such as HIV

c)

Treating fungal infections

d)

Treating parasitic infections

2.

What is the main cause of COVID-19?

a)

Herpesvirus

b)

Hepatitis virus

c)

SARS-CoV-2

d)

HIV

3.

Which virus is known to cause genital herpes?

a)

HIV

b)

Herpesvirus

c)

Hepatitis virus

d)

Retrovirus

4.

What is the role of antibodies in the body?

a)

They replicate viruses

b)

They block viruses from entering the bloodstream or host cells

c)

They increase viral load

d)

They transform RNA to DNA

5.

What is the definition of a retrovirus?

a)

A virus that causes liver inflammation

b)

A virus with an RNA genome that uses reverse transcriptase

c)

A virus that appears on the genitals

d)

A virus that causes respiratory diseases

6.

What is the viral load?

a)

The number of antibodies in the blood

b)

The number of HIV RNA particles in the blood

c)

The number of viruses in the liver

d)

The number of retroviruses in the body

7.

Which of the following is a common symptom of acute viral infections?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Fever

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Hair loss

8.

What is the role of antiviral drugs in treating viral infections?

a)

They eliminate viruses from the body completely.

b)

They inhibit viral reproduction but don’t eliminate viruses.

c)

They increase the reproduction of viruses.

d)

They have no effect on viruses.

9.

How can viral infections trigger autoimmune diseases?

a)

By strengthening the immune system

b)

By altering host cells, causing the immune system to attack the body

c)

By reducing the number of white blood cells

d)

By increasing the production of antibodies

10.

What is chemoprophylaxis used for in the context of viral infections?

a)

To provide permanent immunity

b)

To offer immediate but temporary protection

c)

To cure viral infections completely

d)

To increase the severity of symptoms

11.

What is the main cause of yearly epidemics and occasional pandemics according to the text?

a)

Influenza B

b)

Influenza A

c)

H5N1

d)

Coronavirus

12.

Which influenza subtypes circulate continuously in humans?

a)

H5 and H7

b)

H1 and H3

c)

H9 and H10

d)

H6 and H7

13.

What is a major public health concern related to the H5N1 subtype of Influenza A?

a)

It causes mild symptoms in humans.

b)

It is easily transmitted between humans.

c)

It can cause respiratory failure and has a high mortality rate.

d)

It is only found in a few countries.

14.

What role does bird migration play in the spread of viral strains?

a)

It decreases the risk of outbreaks.

b)

It has no effect on viral spread.

c)

It spreads viral strains, increasing risks of outbreaks.

d)

It only affects local bird populations.

15.

Which order are coronaviruses classified within?

a)

Nidovirales

b)

Orthomyxoviridae

c)

Paramyxoviridae

d)

Picornavirales

16.

What is one of the effects of coronaviruses in infants and children?

a)

Causes skin rashes

b)

Causes diarrhea

c)

Causes headaches

d)

Causes joint pain

17.

Which of the following is NOT a main genera of coronaviruses?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Sigma

d)

Delta

18.

In what year did the outbreak of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) occur?

a)

2003

b)

2010

c)

1998

d)

2015

19.

Which of the following is a symptom of SARS?

a)

Fever

b)

Rash

c)

Nausea

d)

Headache

20.

What is a risk factor for severe illness from COVID-19?

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Asthma

c)

Allergies

d)

Migraine

21.

Which treatment was experimental but showed activity against SARS?

a)

Remdesivir

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Aspirin

22.

Where was COVID-19 first identified?

a)

Wuhan, Hubei Province, China

b)

New York, USA

c)

London, UK

d)

Tokyo, Japan

23.

What is the median onset period for COVID-19 symptoms post-exposure?

a)

4 to 5 days

b)

1 to 2 days

c)

10 to 12 days

d)

7 to 8 days

24.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of the condition described?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Fever

c)

Weight gain

d)

Decreased sputum production

25.

What is the recommended home care for non-severe cases?

a)

Avoid hydration

b)

Use of antipyretics and analgesics

c)

Avoid mask-wearing

d)

No need for hand hygiene

26.

How long should immunocompromised patients isolate before consulting healthcare providers?

a)

3 days

b)

5 days

c)

10 days

d)

15 days

27.

What is a common transmission method for Cytomegalovirus (CMV) from asymptomatic hosts?

a)

Blood

b)

Saliva

c)

Urine

d)

Sweat

28.

Which of the following is a common mode of transmission for CMV in adolescents and adults?

a)

Blood transfusion

b)

Sexual contact

c)

Airborne droplets

d)

Insect bites

29.

What is a potential consequence of untreated CMV retinitis?

a)

Hearing loss

b)

Blindness

c)

Kidney failure

d)

Liver damage

30.

Which population is at risk for active CMV infection due to immunosuppressant drugs?

a)

Diabetes patients

b)

Cancer patients

c)

Asthma patients

d)

Heart disease patients

31.

What is the primary cause of genital herpes infection?

a)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

b)

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

c)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

d)

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)

32.

How is genital herpes usually transmitted?

a)

Through airborne droplets

b)

Through contaminated water

c)

Through direct contact with open lesions

d)

Through insect bites

33.

What triggers can cause the reactivation of a latent HSV virus?

a)

Intense sunlight, emotional stress, febrile illness, menstruation

b)

Cold weather, high altitude, dehydration, hunger

c)

Physical exercise, laughter, sleep, hydration

d)

Low humidity, high temperature, fasting, meditation

34.

How is neonatal herpes typically transmitted?

a)

Through breast milk

b)

During birth from an infected birth canal

c)

Through contaminated water

d)

By sharing utensils

35.

What is the primary cause of Herpes Zoster (Shingles)?

a)

Herpes simplex virus

b)

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

c)

Epstein-Barr virus

d)

Cytomegalovirus

36.

What are the symptoms of Herpes Zoster?

a)

Localized cluster of painful, blisterlike skin lesions

b)

High fever and joint pain

c)

Severe headache and nausea

d)

Persistent cough and sore throat

37.

What type of virus is HIV?

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Retrovirus

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Herpesvirus

38.

Which cells does HIV primarily target?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Neurons

c)

CD4+ T lymphocytes

d)

Platelets

39.

What is the main purpose of measuring viral load in HIV patients?

a)

To determine blood type

b)

To monitor infection progression and treatment efficacy

c)

To measure cholesterol levels

d)

To assess liver function

40.

During which phase of HIV infection does the virus replicate rapidly with symptoms similar to influenza?

a)

Chronic phase

b)

Initial phase

c)

AIDS phase

d)

Latency phase

41.

How is HIV primarily transmitted?

a)

Airborne particles

b)

Contaminated water

c)

Sexual intercourse

d)

Insect bites

42.

What is a common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants under 6 months?

a)

Influenza

b)

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Rhinovirus

43.

How is Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) primarily transmitted?

a)

Through contaminated food

b)

Via respiratory droplets and secretions

c)

By insect bites

d)

Through water

44.

Which group is at higher risk of developing severe symptoms from RSV?

a)

Healthy adults

b)

Infants under 6 months

c)

Teenagers

d)

Middle-aged adults

45.

What is the typical prognosis for healthy children infected with RSV?

a)

High mortality rate

b)

Low mortality rate

c)

Requires lifelong treatment

d)

Permanent lung damage

46.

What type of care is mainly used for treating RSV?

a)

Surgical intervention

b)

Mainly supportive care

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Radiation therapy

47.

What is the primary cause of viral hepatitis?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Fungal infection

c)

Inflammation of the liver caused by several different viruses

d)

Genetic disorder

48.

Which types of hepatitis have vaccines available?

a)

Hepatitis C and D

b)

Hepatitis A and B

c)

Hepatitis E and F

d)

Hepatitis G and H

49.

How is the Hepatitis A virus primarily transmitted?

a)

Airborne particles

b)

Blood transfusion

c)

Fecal-oral route

d)

Animal bites

50.

What is the average incubation period for Hepatitis A?

a)

5 to 10 days

b)

15 to 20 days

c)

25 to 30 days

d)

35 to 40 days

51.

What percentage of adults with Hepatitis A develop symptoms like fever and jaundice?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

90%

52.

What percentage of infected adults with Hepatitis A require hospitalization?

a)

5% to 10%

b)

10% to 20%

c)

20% to 30%

d)

30% to 40%

53.

Which group is NOT recommended to receive the Hepatitis A vaccine?

a)

Children

b)

Travelers to certain countries

c)

Vegetarians

d)

Intravenous drug users

54.

How long can Hepatitis B virus survive on surfaces that look clean?

a)

Up to 1 day

b)

Up to 2 days

c)

Up to 3 days

d)

Up to 4 days

55.

What is the incubation period range for Hepatitis B?

a)

10 to 50 days

b)

30 to 180 days

c)

60 to 200 days

d)

90 to 240 days

56.

Which laboratory finding indicates the presence of Hepatitis B infection?

a)

Decrease in liver enzymes

b)

Presence of antigens and viral DNA in blood

c)

Absence of antibodies

d)

Increase in white blood cells

57.

Approximately how many Americans die from complications of Hepatitis B each year?

a)

1,000

b)

3,000

c)

5,000

d)

7,000

58.

What is the primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis C (HCV)?

a)

Airborne droplets

b)

Contaminated food

c)

Contact with contaminated blood or body fluids

d)

Insect bites

59.

Which group is considered high-risk for Hepatitis C (HCV) infection?

a)

Office workers

b)

Healthcare and public safety workers

c)

School teachers

d)

Retail employees

60.

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis C (HCV)?

a)

1 to 7 days

b)

14 to 80 days

c)

90 to 120 days

d)

6 to 12 months

61.

What is a major complication of Hepatitis C (HCV)?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Cirrhosis

c)

Asthma

d)

Hypertension

62.

What is the effective treatment for Hepatitis C (HCV)?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Vaccination

c)

Effective drug therapies

d)

Herbal remedies

63.

What is the primary cause of COVID-19?

a)

Bacteria

b)

SARS-CoV-2

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasites

64.

Which drug is used to reduce inflammation and immune response in COVID-19 patients?

a)

Remdesivir

b)

Tocilizumab

c)

Dexamethasone

d)

Baricitinib

65.

What is the role of Remdesivir in COVID-19 treatment?

a)

Reduces cytokine storm

b)

Inhibits viral replication

c)

Prevents thrombosis

d)

Modulates immune response

66.

Which medication is an IL-6 receptor antagonist used in COVID-19 treatment?

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Remdesivir

c)

Tocilizumab

d)

Baricitinib

67.

What is the purpose of administering anticoagulants to COVID-19 patients?

a)

To reduce inflammation

b)

To prevent or treat thrombosis

c)

To inhibit viral replication

d)

To modulate immune response

68.

What is the protein binding percentage range for Remdesivir?

a)

70% to 80%

b)

88% to 93.6%

c)

50% to 60%

d)

95% to 100%

69.

How is Remdesivir primarily eliminated from the body?

a)

Through sweat

b)

Via urine and feces

c)

Through the skin

d)

Via the lungs

70.

What is the half-life of Remdesivir?

a)

~2 hours

b)

~1 hour

c)

~3 hours

d)

~4 hours

71.

What is the mechanism of action of Remdesivir?

a)

It enhances viral replication

b)

It inhibits SARS-CoV-2 RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

c)

It increases protein synthesis

d)

It blocks DNA replication

72.

For which age group is Remdesivir approved?

a)

Patients 5 years and older

b)

Patients 18 years and older

c)

Patients 12 years and older

d)

Patients 2 years and older

73.

What should be considered for breastfeeding patients treated with Remdesivir?

a)

Increase dosage

b)

Stop breastfeeding immediately

c)

Consider infant exposure risk and alternative feeding

d)

No special considerations needed

74.

What is a key consideration when administering remdesivir in a healthcare environment?

a)

It can be administered at home.

b)

It should be monitored for infusion reactions.

c)

It is only for pediatric patients.

d)

It requires no monitoring.

75.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of remdesivir?

a)

Severe hypertension

b)

Severe bradycardia

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Weight gain

76.

What is a contraindication for the use of remdesivir?

a)

Hypersensitivity to remdesivir

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Asthma

77.

Which medication should be avoided in combination with remdesivir due to reduced effectiveness?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Chloroquine

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Aspirin

78.

What should be monitored to assess the therapeutic effects of remdesivir?

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

Pulmonary status and need for mechanical ventilation

c)

Skin rash

d)

Appetite

79.

What is the preferred approach over treatment due to potential serious adverse effects of antiviral medications?

a)

Prevention

b)

Surgery

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Radiation

80.

Which of the following is a recommended infection prevention technique?

a)

Limit exposure to infected individuals

b)

Increase exposure to sunlight

c)

Avoid drinking water

d)

Exercise daily

81.

What should be done when visible lesions are present in genital herpes?

a)

Avoid sexual intercourse

b)

Increase physical activity

c)

Consume more vitamins

d)

Drink herbal tea

82.

What is a limitation of antiviral drugs in treating viral infections?

a)

They relieve symptoms but do not cure infections

b)

They cure infections completely

c)

They prevent all future infections

d)

They enhance immune system permanently

83.

For patients on foscarnet or ganciclovir, what is recommended for managing CMV retinitis?

a)

Schedule eye examinations approximately every 6 weeks

b)

Avoid all eye examinations

c)

Use eye drops daily

d)

Wear sunglasses indoors

84.

What is the primary action of Tocilizumab?

a)

Increases cytokine production

b)

Blocks IL-6 effects to reduce inflammation

c)

Enhances inflammatory response

d)

Stimulates IL-6 production

85.

For which condition is the use of Tocilizumab considered off-label?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

COVID-19

c)

Giant cell arteritis

d)

Severe cytokine release syndrome

86.

What is the half-life of Tocilizumab?

a)

4 to 6 days

b)

11 to 13 days

c)

1 to 2 days

d)

15 to 17 days

87.

Which of the following is NOT a use of Tocilizumab according to FDA labeling?

a)

Systemic sclerosis-associated interstitial lung disease

b)

COVID-19

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Giant cell arteritis

88.

What is the onset of action for Tocilizumab?

a)

1 hour

b)

4 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

12 hours

89.

At what age is the medication approved for use in patients?

a)

1 year and older

b)

2 years and older

c)

5 years and older

d)

10 years and older

90.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of the medication?

a)

Hypercholesterolemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

91.

What is a contraindication for the use of this medication?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypersensitivity to the drug

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Hypokalemia

92.

What should be monitored even if the initial test was negative?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Active TB

c)

Blood sugar levels

d)

Heart rate

93.

What is the BLACK BOX WARNING associated with this medication?

a)

Risk of liver damage

b)

Risk of fatal infections, including tuberculosis reactivation

c)

Risk of heart failure

d)

Risk of kidney failure

94.

What is the recommended method of administering the IV infusion mentioned in the document?

a)

Over 30 minutes via a dedicated IV line

b)

Over 60 minutes via a dedicated IV line

c)

By IV push or bolus

d)

With other meds in the same IV line

95.

Which of the following is a desired therapeutic outcome of the treatment?

a)

Increased inflammation

b)

Decreased lung function

c)

Improved lung function

d)

Increased fever

96.

What should be monitored to assess for adverse effects according to the document?

a)

Blood pressure only

b)

HDL, AST, ALT levels

c)

Heart rate only

d)

Blood sugar levels

97.

What is Tocilizumab classified as?

a)

An antiviral

b)

An IL-6 receptor inhibitor

c)

A pain reliever

d)

A blood thinner

98.

According to the study by Kaya and Kavak (2021), what percentage of patients treated with Tocilizumab were male?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

75%

d)

80%

99.

What is the primary mechanism of action of Baricitinib (Olumiant)?

a)

Inhibits intracellular Janus kinase (JAK) enzymes

b)

Increases serum immunoglobulins

c)

Enhances C-reactive protein production

d)

Stimulates liver metabolism via CYP3A4

100.

For what condition is Baricitinib (Olumiant) labeled for use?

a)

Treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Treatment of diabetes

c)

Treatment of hypertension

d)

Treatment of asthma