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Test Cell Movement

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary energy source for active cell mobility?

a)

Glucose

b)

ATP

c)

GTP

d)

NADH

2.

Which cytoskeletal component is responsible for forming the core structure of cilia?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Actin filaments

d)

Intermediate filaments

3.

Which phase of wound healing involves fibroblasts migrating to the injury site?

a)

Hemostasis and inflammation

b)

Remodeling

c)

Proliferation

d)

None of the above

4.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active cell mobility?

a)

Energy-dependent (ATP required)

b)

Involves specialized structures like cilia or flagella

c)

Guided by chemical signals

d)

Movement caused by external forces

5.

In wound healing, which type of cell migrates to the wound site to form new epithelial tissue?

a)

Endothelial cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Fibroblasts

d)

Keratinocytes

6.

Which filament type is hollow and has a diameter of approximately 25 nm?

a)

Myosin filaments

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Microfilaments

d)

Microtubules

7.

Which filament type is primarily involved in forming the structural core of cilia and flagella?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Actin filaments

d)

Microfilaments

8.

What is the primary function of microfilaments in cell mobility?

a)

Providing mechanical stability to the cell

b)

Generating contractile forces for movement

c)

Forming the structural core of motile structures

d)

Facilitating intracellular transport

9.

What is the cell cycle?

a)

A process that only occurs in prokaryotic cells.

b)

An ordered series of events that a cell undergoes to grow and divide, resulting in two new daughter cells.

c)

A process where cells stop dividing permanently.

d)

A random series of events that a cell undergoes to grow and divide.

10.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of interphase?

a)

M Phase

b)

S Phase

c)

G1 Phase

d)

G2 Phase

11.

What happens during the S phase of interphase?

a)

The cell prepares for mitosis.

b)

The cell grows in size.

c)

The cell divides into two daughter cells.

d)

DNA synthesis occurs, and chromosomes are duplicated.

12.

Which of the following is an example of passive cell mobility?

a)

Fibroblasts migrating during wound healing

b)

Movement of sperm using flagella

c)

Cilia moving mucus in the respiratory tract

d)

Blood cells flowing in blood vessels

13.

What process concludes the M phase?

a)

Chromosome duplication

b)

DNA replication

c)

Cell growth

d)

Cytokinesis

14.

What determines whether a cell enters the cell cycle?

a)

The number of organelles in the cell

b)

Stimulatory and inhibitory signals received by the cell

c)

The size of the cell

d)

The amount of DNA in the cell

15.

What is the role of checkpoints in the cell cycle?

a)

To stop the cell cycle permanently

b)

To speed up the cell cycle

c)

To ensure proper sequence and repair errors if necessary

d)

To duplicate chromosomes

16.

What is one possible outcome if the cell cycle does not progress normally?

a)

The cell enters the G0 phase or undergoes apoptosis.

b)

The cell divides controllably.

c)

The cell grows indefinitely.

d)

The cell skips mitosis.

17.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

To produce two genetically identical daughter cells.

b)

To repair damaged DNA.

c)

To stop cell division.

d)

To produce four genetically diverse daughter cells.

18.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of mitosis?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

19.

What is the main difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, while meiosis produces four haploid cells.

b)

Mitosis produces haploid cells, while meiosis produces diploid cells.

c)

Mitosis involves crossing over, while meiosis does not.

d)

Mitosis occurs in gametes, while meiosis occurs in somatic cells.

20.

During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

21.

What is the result of meiosis?

a)

Two diploid daughter cells

b)

Four diploid daughter cells

c)

Two haploid daughter cells

d)

Four haploid daughter cells

22.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

The process by which a cell transitions to a specialized state with specific structures and functions.

b)

The process by which a cell stops dividing.

c)

The process by which a cell undergoes apoptosis.

d)

The process by which a cell divides into two identical cells.

23.

What is the main role of microfilaments in cell mobility?

a)

Act as tracks for motor proteins

b)

Provide structural support

c)

Generate contractile forces for movement

d)

Form the core of cilia and flagella

24.

What is the significance of cell differentiation?

a)

It stops the cell cycle permanently.

b)

It produces specialized cells, forms tissues and organs, and ensures physiological functions.

c)

It produces identical cells for growth.

d)

It allows cells to divide uncontrollably.

25.

What does gametogenesis involve in animals?

a)

The production of identical daughter cells.

b)

The production of zygotes directly from gametes.

c)

The production of sperm and eggs through meiosis.

d)

The production of gametes through mitosis.

26.

What are gametes?

a)

Cells that stop dividing permanently.

b)

Specialized reproductive cells that participate in fertilization to form a zygote.

c)

Cells that divide uncontrollably.

d)

Cells that undergo mitosis to produce identical daughter cells.

27.

What is apoptosis?

a)

A random process of cell death

b)

A process that always causes inflammation

c)

A process caused by external trauma only

d)

A controlled process of cell death

28.

Which of the following is a characteristic of apoptosis?

a)

Cell swelling

b)

Chromatin condensation

c)

Leakage of toxic substances

d)

Membrane rupture

29.

How does apoptosis differ from necrosis?

a)

Apoptosis causes inflammation, while necrosis does not

b)

Necrosis involves chromatin condensation, while apoptosis does not

c)

Necrosis is a controlled process, while apoptosis is not

d)

Apoptosis is energy-dependent, while necrosis is not

30.

What is the main role of caspases in apoptosis?

a)

Triggering inflammation

b)

Repairing damaged DNA

c)

Preventing cell death

d)

Degrading cellular components

31.

Which pathway is triggered by intracellular signals such as DNA damage?

a)

Extrinsic pathway

b)

Inflammatory pathway

c)

Death receptor pathway

d)

Intrinsic pathway

32.

What is the role of p53 in apoptosis?

a)

Blocking the release of cytochrome c

b)

Preventing DNA damage

c)

Repairing damaged proteins

d)

Activating genes related to apoptosis

33.

What is the function of Bax and Bak proteins in apoptosis?

a)

Preventing DNA damage

b)

Creating pores in the mitochondrial membrane

c)

Blocking the release of cytochrome c

d)

Repairing damaged proteins

34.

What is the main function of intermediate filaments in cell mobility?

a)

Act as tracks for motor proteins

b)

Generate force for movement

c)

Provide structural support and stability

d)

Facilitate the formation of pseudopodia

35.

What protein family regulates (inhibits) the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

a)

Bcl-2 family

b)

Caspase family

c)

Fas ligand family

d)

TNF receptor family

36.

Which of the following proteins is involved in forming the apoptosome?

a)

TNF-α

b)

Caspase-8

c)

Cytochrome c

d)

Fas ligand

37.

Which of the following triggers the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

a)

Nutrient deficiency

b)

DNA damage

c)

Death receptor activation

d)

Oxidative stress

38.

What is the role of caspase-9 in apoptosis?

a)

Activating executioner caspases

b)

Activating death receptors

c)

Blocking the intrinsic pathway

d)

Forming apoptotic bodies

39.

What happens to apoptotic bodies after they are formed?

a)

They remain in the body indefinitely

b)

They release toxic substances

c)

They cause inflammation

d)

They are engulfed by neighboring cells

40.

What is the role of apoptosis in embryonic development?

a)

Increasing the size of organs

b)

Preventing DNA damage

c)

Triggering inflammation

d)

Removing unnecessary cells

41.

What is the role of dynein in the movement of cilia and flagella?

a)

It generates sliding motion between microtubules.

b)

It polymerizes actin filaments.

c)

It anchors the microtubules to the cell membrane.

d)

It disassembles microtubules during movement.

42.

During wound healing, which cells migrate to the wound site to form new blood vessels?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Fibroblasts

c)

Endothelial cells

d)

Keratinocytes

43.

How do cancer cells differ from normal cells in terms of mobility?

a)

Cancer cells have increased adhesion properties.

b)

Cancer cells maintain tissue boundaries.

c)

Cancer cells respond to inhibitory signals.

d)

Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled movement.

44.

What is the primary role of microtubules in cell mobility?

a)

Stabilize the cell membrane during movement

b)

Form the core of intermediate filaments

c)

Generate contractile forces for movement

d)

Provide a framework for intracellular transport

45.

What is the primary structural component of microvilli?

a)

Keratin proteins

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Actin filaments

d)

Microtubules

46.

During wound healing, which cells migrate to the wound site to form new blood vessels?

a)

Endothelial cells

b)

Keratinocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Fibroblasts

47.

How do cancer cells differ from normal cells in terms of mobility?

a)

Cancer cells respond to inhibitory signals.

b)

Cancer cells maintain tissue boundaries.

c)

Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled movement.

d)

Cancer cells have increased adhesion properties.

48.

What is the primary role of microtubules in cell mobility?

a)

Generate contractile forces for movement

b)

Provide a framework for intracellular transport

c)

Stabilize the cell membrane during movement

d)

Form the core of intermediate filaments

49.

What is the primary structural component of microvilli?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Actin filaments

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Keratin proteins

50.

Which cytoskeletal component is responsible for forming the core structure of cilia?

a)

Actin filaments

b)

Microtubules

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Microfilaments

51.

Which phase of wound healing involves fibroblasts migrating to the injury site?

a)

Hemostasis and inflammation

b)

Proliferation

c)

Remodeling

d)

None of the above

52.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active cell mobility?

a)

Guided by chemical signals

b)

Movement caused by external forces

c)

Involves specialized structures like cilia or flagella

d)

Energy-dependent (ATP required)

53.

In wound healing, which type of cell migrates to the wound site to form new epithelial tissue?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Endothelial cells

c)

Keratinocytes

d)

Fibroblasts

54.

Which filament type is hollow and has a diameter of approximately 25 nm?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Myosin filaments

d)

Intermediate filaments

55.

Which filament type is primarily involved in forming the structural core of cilia and flagella?

a)

Actin filaments

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Microtubules

56.

What is the primary function of microfilaments in cell mobility?

a)

Forming the structural core of motile structures

b)

Facilitating intracellular transport

c)

Generating contractile forces for movement

d)

Providing mechanical stability to the cell

57.

What is the cell cycle?

a)

An ordered series of events that a cell undergoes to grow and divide, resulting in two new daughter cells.

b)

A random series of events that a cell undergoes to grow and divide.

c)

A process that only occurs in prokaryotic cells.

d)

A process where cells stop dividing permanently.

58.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of interphase?

a)

G2 Phase

b)

G1 Phase

c)

S Phase

d)

M Phase

59.

What happens during the S phase of interphase?

a)

The cell grows in size.

b)

The cell prepares for mitosis.

c)

DNA synthesis occurs, and chromosomes are duplicated.

d)

The cell divides into two daughter cells.

60.

What process concludes the M phase?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Chromosome duplication

d)

Cell growth

61.

What determines whether a cell enters the cell cycle?

a)

The number of organelles in the cell

b)

The amount of DNA in the cell

c)

The size of the cell

d)

Stimulatory and inhibitory signals received by the cell

62.

What is the role of checkpoints in the cell cycle?

a)

To ensure proper sequence and repair errors if necessary

b)

To stop the cell cycle permanently

c)

To speed up the cell cycle

d)

To duplicate chromosomes

63.

What is one possible outcome if the cell cycle does not progress normally?

a)

The cell skips mitosis.

b)

The cell enters the G0 phase or undergoes apoptosis.

c)

The cell divides controllably.

d)

The cell grows indefinitely.

64.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

To stop cell division.

b)

To produce two genetically identical daughter cells.

c)

To repair damaged DNA.

d)

To produce four genetically diverse daughter cells.

65.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of mitosis?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

66.

What is the main difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Mitosis produces haploid cells, while meiosis produces diploid cells.

b)

Mitosis occurs in gametes, while meiosis occurs in somatic cells.

c)

Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, while meiosis produces four haploid cells.

d)

Mitosis involves crossing over, while meiosis does not.

67.

During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

a)

Telophase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Metaphase I

68.

What is the result of meiosis?

a)

Two haploid daughter cells

b)

Four diploid daughter cells

c)

Four haploid daughter cells

d)

Two diploid daughter cells

69.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

The process by which a cell transitions to a specialized state with specific structures and functions.

b)

The process by which a cell stops dividing.

c)

The process by which a cell divides into two identical cells.

d)

The process by which a cell undergoes apoptosis.

70.

What is the significance of cell differentiation?

a)

It produces identical cells for growth.

b)

It produces specialized cells, forms tissues and organs, and ensures physiological functions.

c)

It allows cells to divide uncontrollably.

d)

It stops the cell cycle permanently.

71.

What does gametogenesis involve in animals?

a)

The production of identical daughter cells.

b)

The production of sperm and eggs through meiosis.

c)

The production of zygotes directly from gametes.

d)

The production of gametes through mitosis.

72.

What are gametes?

a)

Cells that undergo mitosis to produce identical daughter cells.

b)

Specialized reproductive cells that participate in fertilization to form a zygote.

c)

Cells that stop dividing permanently.

d)

Cells that divide uncontrollably.

73.

What is apoptosis?

a)

A process caused by external trauma only

b)

A random process of cell death

c)

A process that always causes inflammation

d)

A controlled process of cell death

74.

Which of the following is a characteristic of apoptosis?

a)

Chromatin condensation

b)

Cell swelling

c)

Leakage of toxic substances

d)

Membrane rupture

75.

How does apoptosis differ from necrosis?

a)

Apoptosis causes inflammation, while necrosis does not

b)

Apoptosis is energy-dependent, while necrosis is not

c)

Necrosis is a controlled process, while apoptosis is not

d)

Necrosis involves chromatin condensation, while apoptosis does not

76.

What is the main role of caspases in apoptosis?

a)

Triggering inflammation

b)

Repairing damaged DNA

c)

Degrading cellular components

d)

Preventing cell death

77.

Which pathway is triggered by intracellular signals such as DNA damage?

a)

Inflammatory pathway

b)

Death receptor pathway

c)

Intrinsic pathway

d)

Extrinsic pathway

78.

What is the role of p53 in apoptosis?

a)

Preventing DNA damage

b)

Repairing damaged proteins

c)

Blocking the release of cytochrome c

d)

Activating genes related to apoptosis

79.

What is the function of Bax and Bak proteins in apoptosis?

a)

Creating pores in the mitochondrial membrane

b)

Repairing damaged proteins

c)

Preventing DNA damage

d)

Blocking the release of cytochrome c

80.

Which protein family regulates (inhibits) the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

a)

Caspase family

b)

Fas ligand family

c)

TNF receptor family

d)

Bcl-2 family

81.

Which of the following proteins is involved in forming the apoptosome?

a)

TNF-alpha

b)

Fas ligand

c)

Cytochrome c

d)

Caspase-8

82.

Which of the following triggers the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

a)

Nutrient deficiency

b)

Death receptor activation

c)

DNA damage

d)

Oxidative stress

83.

What is the role of caspase-9 in apoptosis?

a)

Activating executioner caspases

b)

Blocking the intrinsic pathway

c)

Activating death receptors

d)

Forming apoptotic bodies

84.

What happens to apoptotic bodies after they are formed?

a)

They remain in the body indefinitely

b)

They release toxic substances

c)

They are engulfed by neighboring cells

d)

They cause inflammation

85.

What is the role of apoptosis in embryonic development?

a)

Preventing DNA damage

b)

Increasing the size of organs

c)

Triggering inflammation

d)

Removing unnecessary cells

86.

Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a)

Glucose

b)

Cellulose

c)

Chitin

d)

Glycogen

87.

What type of bond links amino acids in a protein?

a)

Glycosidic bond

b)

Phosphodiester bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Ester bond

88.

What is the primary function of glycogen in animals?

a)

Cell membrane formation

b)

Structural support

c)

Genetic information storage

d)

Energy storage

89.

Which organelle is the site of protein synthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

90.

Which organelle is responsible for ATP production in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

91.

Which type of amino acids can be converted into glucose through gluconeogenesis?

a)

Essential amino acids

b)

Non-essential amino acids

c)

Ketogenic amino acids

d)

Glucogenic amino acids

92.

What is the main function of the urea cycle in protein metabolism?

a)

To produce ATP from amino acids

b)

To detoxify ammonia by converting it into urea

c)

To store excess amino acids

d)

To synthesize proteins from amino acids

93.

Which molecule is the main energy currency of the cell?

a)

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)

b)

Glucose

c)

NADH

d)

FADH2​

94.

What happens to pyruvate before entering the Krebs cycle?

a)

It is directly used to produce ATP

b)

It is stored as glycogen

c)

It is converted into glucose

d)

It is converted into Acetyl-CoA, releasing CO2​ and producing NADH

95.

What is the role of enzymes in metabolic pathways?

a)

To transport molecules across membranes

b)

To store energy in the form of ATP

c)

To act as a source of energy

d)

To catalyze each step of the metabolic reactions

96.

During glycolysis, what is the net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose?

a)

6 ATP

b)

4 ATP

c)

2 ATP

d)

8 ATP

97.

The cytoskeleton component responsible for cell motility (e.g., muscle contraction) is:

a)

Microtubules

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Centrosomes

d)

Microfilaments (actin)

98.

Which of the following is a key difference between animal and plant cells?

a)

Animal cells have a cell wall while plant cells do not

b)

Animal cells have a large central vacuole while plant cells have many small vacuoles

c)

Plant cells have chloroplasts while animal cells do not

d)

Plant cells contain centrioles while animal cells do not

99.

What is the primary purpose of energy metabolism in cells?

a)

To synthesize proteins from amino acids

b)

To store energy in the form of glycogen

c)

To produce oxygen for cellular respiration

d)

To convert food molecules into energy for cellular activities

100.

Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Coupled transport

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Facilitated diffusion

101.

Which of the following is a characteristic of ligand-gated ion channels?

a)

They require ATP to function.

b)

They open when a specific chemical binds to them.

c)

They transport water molecules.

d)

They open in response to changes in voltage.

102.

What is the primary function of the calcium pump (Ca2+ ATPase)?

a)

Pump sodium into the cell

b)

Pump potassium out of the cell

c)

Pump calcium into the cytoplasm

d)

Pump calcium out of the cytoplasm

103.

Which process involves the uptake of extracellular fluid and dissolved solutes into small vesicles?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Exocytosis

104.

What is the main difference between macropinocytosis and micropinocytosis?

a)

Macropinocytosis uses clathrin, while micropinocytosis uses actin.

b)

Macropinocytosis involves large vesicles, while micropinocytosis involves small vesicles.

c)

Micropinocytosis occurs only in immune cells.

d)

Macropinocytosis is specific, while micropinocytosis is non-specific.

105.

Which type of exocytosis occurs continuously without external signals?

a)

Constitutive exocytosis

b)

Regulated exocytosis

c)

None of the above

d)

Lysosome-mediated exocytosis

106.

Which of the following is an example of regulated exocytosis?

a)

Secretion of collagen by fibroblasts

b)

Continuous secretion of mucus by epithelial cells

c)

Release of insulin by pancreatic beta cells

d)

Removal of waste products by lysosomes

107.

What is the primary function of the sodium-calcium exchanger (Na+/Ca2+ antiporter)?

a)

Pump sodium and calcium into the cell

b)

Pump sodium into the cell and calcium out

c)

Pump sodium and calcium out of the cell

d)

Pump calcium into the cell and sodium out

108.

Which type of transport is responsible for glucose absorption in the small intestine?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Sodium-glucose cotransport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

109.

What happens during phagocytosis?

a)

The cell absorbs extracellular fluid into small vesicles.

b)

The cell releases substances into the extracellular space.

c)

The cell transports ions through protein channels.

d)

The cell engulfs large particles like bacteria into vesicles called phagosomes.

110.

Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport?

a)

Requires energy in the form of ATP

b)

Moves substances down their concentration gradient

c)

Does not involve transport proteins

d)

Occurs only in nerve cells

111.

What is the primary energy source for primary active transport?

a)

Glucose

b)

Light energy

c)

Sodium gradient

d)

ATP

112.

Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+ ATPase) is correct?

a)

It pumps 3 potassium ions into the cell and 2 sodium ions out of the cell.

b)

It pumps sodium and potassium ions in equal amounts across the membrane.

c)

It pumps 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell.

d)

It pumps 2 sodium ions into the cell and 3 potassium ions out of the cell.

113.

Which molecules can pass directly through the phospholipid bilayer via simple diffusion?

a)

Proteins and lipids

b)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Glucose and amino acids

d)

Sodium and potassium ions

114.

Facilitated diffusion requires:

a)

ATP

b)

Vesicles

c)

None of the above

d)

Transport proteins

115.

What is the role of aquaporins in the cell membrane?

a)

Transport ions

b)

Bind to ligands

c)

Facilitate water movement

d)

Pump sodium out of the cell

116.

Which of the following is an example of secondary active transport?

a)

Sodium-potassium pump

b)

Calcium pump

c)

Osmosis

d)

Sodium-glucose cotransporter

117.

What is the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

a)

Pump 2 Na+ out and 3 K+ into the cell

b)

Pump 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ into the cell

c)

Pump calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Pump glucose into the cell

118.

Which type of transport moves substances against their concentration gradient?

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Osmosis

119.

What triggers the opening of voltage-gated ion channels?

a)

Changes in membrane potential

b)

Ligand binding

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

ATP hydrolysis

120.

Why are frameshift mutations often more severe than point mutations?

a)

They are always silent

b)

They only affect one amino acid

c)

They only occur in non-coding regions

d)

They alter the reading frame, changing all downstream codons

121.

Which organelle is the site of protein synthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

122.

How would a mutation in the TATA box of a promoter likely affect transcription?

a)

Increase RNA polymerase binding

b)

Prevent transcription initiation

c)

Activate silent genes

d)

Cause frameshifts in the mRNA

123.

Which of the following is NOT part of modern cell theory?

a)

Energy flow occurs within cells

b)

Cells arise from pre-existing cells

c)

Cells can spontaneously generate under certain conditions

d)

All organisms are composed of cells

124.

What is the primary energy source for active cell mobility?

a)

Glucose

b)

GTP

c)

NADH

d)

ATP

125.

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

a)

FADH2​

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

NADH

126.

Which filament type is primarily involved in forming the structural core of cilia and flagella?

a)

Actin filaments

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Microtubules

d)

Intermediate filaments

127.

What is the main function of the urea cycle in protein metabolism?

a)

To produce ATP from amino acids

b)

To detoxify ammonia by converting it into urea

c)

To synthesize proteins from amino acids

d)

To store excess amino acids

128.

Which of the following is NOT a phase of interphase?

a)

G2 Phase

b)

S Phase

c)

G1 Phase

d)

M Phase

129.

Which type of amino acids can be converted into glucose through gluconeogenesis?

a)

Non-essential amino acids

b)

Glucogenic amino acids

c)

Essential amino acids

d)

Ketogenic amino acids

130.

What is the total ATP yield from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

a)

10 - 12 ATP

b)

30 - 32 ATP

c)

20 - 22 ATP

d)

40 - 42 ATP

131.
  1. What process concludes the M phase?

a)
  1. a. Cytokinesis

b)
  1. b. Chromosome duplication

c)
  1. c. Cell growth

d)
  1. d. DNA replication

132.
  1. What is one possible outcome if the cell cycle does not progress normally?

a)
  1. a. The cell grows indefinitely.

b)
  1. b. The cell enters the G0 phase or undergoes apoptosis.

c)
  1. c. The cell skips mitosis

d)
  1. d. The cell divides controllably.

133.
  1. What is the main difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a)
  1. a. Mitosis produces haploid cells, while meiosis produces diploid cells.

b)
  1. b. Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, while meiosis produces four haploid cells.

c)

c. Mitosis involves crossing over, while meiosis does not.

d)
  1. d. Mitosis occurs in gametes, while meiosis occurs in somatic cells.

134.

What is cell differentiation?
a. The process by which a cell stops dividing.
b. The process by which a cell divides into two identical cells.
c. The process by which a cell transitions to a specialized state with specific structures and functions.
d. The process by which a cell undergoes apoptosis.

a)

a. The process by which a cell stops dividing.

b)

b. The process by which a cell divides into two identical cells.

c)

c. The process by which a cell transitions to a specialized state with specific structures and functions.

d)

d. The process by which a cell undergoes apoptosis.

135.
  1. Which organelle is responsible for ATP production in eukaryotic cells?

a)
  1. a. Golgi apparatus

b)
  1. b. Mitochondrion

c)
  1. c. Lysosome

d)
  1. d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum