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Types of Hypersensitivities

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the mediator for Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

IgE

b)

IgG/IgM

c)

Antigen-antibody complex

d)

T cells

2.

Which antigen form is associated with Type II hypersensitivity?

a)

Soluble antigen

b)

Cell-bound antigen

c)

Soluble/cell bound antigen

d)

Antigen-antibody complex

3.

Fill in the blank: The mechanism of action for Type III hypersensitivity involves antigen-antibody complexes being deposited in tissues where they activate _______ chain causing local inflammation and recruitment of leukocytes.

a)

complement

b)

cytokine

c)

immunoglobulin

d)

histamine

4.

Which of the following is an example of Type IV hypersensitivity?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Acute transfusion reaction

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Contact dermatitis

5.

What is the time course for Type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Immediate-phase: minutes; Late-phase: 8-12 hours

b)

Immediate-phase: 24-48 hours; Late-phase: 72 hours

c)

Immediate-phase: seconds; Late-phase: 1-2 hours

d)

Immediate-phase: 12 hours; Late-phase: 24-36 hours

6.

Which hypersensitivity type is mediated by T cells?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

7.

Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with food allergies?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

8.

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of Type III hypersensitivity.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What is the mechanism of action for Type II hypersensitivity?

a)

IgG/IgM antibodies bind to cell antigens, leading to complement activation and destruction of the cell

b)

T cells directly attack and destroy infected cells

c)

IgE antibodies trigger mast cell degranulation and histamine release

d)

Immune complexes deposit in tissues, causing inflammation and tissue damage

10.

What is an example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

anaphylaxis

b)

contact dermatitis

c)

serum sickness

d)

tuberculin reaction

11.

Type II hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses against antigens that are integral part of cell membrane and are usually associated with autoimmune disorders. They are antibody mediated (IgG or IgM). What is an example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Blood transfusion reactions

b)

Serum sickness

c)

Contact dermatitis

d)

Anaphylactic shock

12.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by immune complexes and causes vasculitis?

a)

Type III

b)

Type I

c)

Type II

d)

Type IV

13.

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are purely cell mediated immune responses associated with chronic inflammation. What is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

contact dermatitis

b)

anaphylaxis

c)

serum sickness

d)

hemolytic anemia

14.

According to the mnemonic provided, what does 'ABCD' stand for in hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

I = allergic anaphylactic, II = antibody, III = immune complex, IV = delayed

b)

I = antibody, II = allergic anaphylactic, III = delayed, IV = immune complex

c)

I = immune complex, II = delayed, III = antibody, IV = allergic anaphylactic

d)

I = delayed, II = immune complex, III = allergic anaphylactic, IV = antibody

15.

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with latex allergy?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

16.

The protein found in natural latex rubber products is a specific _______.

a)

allergen

b)

enzyme

c)

vitamin

d)

carbohydrate

17.

The allergen in latex causes interaction with IgE.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False: The incidence of latex allergy is decreasing.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which group is especially susceptible to latex allergy?

a)

Teachers

b)

Health care workers

c)

Engineers

d)

Artists

20.

Which of the following is a latex cross-reactive food?

a)

Apple

b)

Chicken

c)

Rice

d)

Beef

21.

Which of the following is NOT a latex cross-reactive food?

a)

Banana

b)

Carrot

c)

Fish

d)

Celery

22.

Fill in the blank: _______ is a latex cross-reactive food that starts with the letter 'K'.

a)

Kiwi

b)

Kale

c)

Kumquat

d)

Kohlrabi

23.

List any three latex cross-reactive foods mentioned in the image.

a)

Banana, Avocado, Chestnut

b)

Apple, Carrot, Potato

c)

Tomato, Grape, Mango

d)

Peach, Pear, Pineapple

24.

Which of the following is a way allergens can contract in Type I Hypersensitivity?

a)

Inhaled (plant pollens, fungal spores, animal dander, house dust, grass, ragweed)

b)

Ingested (foods, food additives, drugs)

c)

Injected (insect or other venom, drugs, biologic substances such as contrast dyes)

d)

Skin or mucous membrane contacted (latex, pollens, foods, environmental proteins)

e)

All of the above

25.

Fill in the blank: Allergens can be contracted by being ________ (e.g., plant pollens, fungal spores, animal dander, house dust, grass, ragweed).

a)

inhaled

b)

digested

c)

absorbed through skin

d)

injected

26.

Fill in the blank: Allergens can be contracted by being ________ (e.g., foods, food additives, drugs).

a)

ingested

b)

touched

c)

inhaled

d)

seen

27.

Fill in the blank: Allergens can be contracted by being ________ (e.g., insect or other venom, drugs, biologic substances such as contrast dyes).

a)

injected

b)

inhaled

c)

digested

d)

absorbed

28.

Fill in the blank: Allergens can be contracted by ________ (e.g., latex, pollens, foods, environmental proteins) contacting the skin or mucous membrane.

a)

skin or mucous membrane

b)

digestive enzymes

c)

bloodstream only

d)

respiratory muscles

29.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a common allergy on the wristbands in the image?

a)

Peanut

b)

Dairy

c)

Shellfish

d)

Wheat

30.

Bee sting allergy is an example of an allergen that can be contracted by injection.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

Warmth

b)

Paleness

c)

Numbness

d)

Dryness

32.

What is one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

Redness

b)

Numbness

c)

Itching

d)

Bruising

33.

What is one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

Swelling

b)

Fever

c)

Headache

d)

Nausea

34.

What is one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

Pain

b)

Fever

c)

Nausea

d)

Dizziness

35.

What is one of the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

a)

Decreased function

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Improved vision

d)

Lowered blood pressure

36.

Which category does Birch belong to?

a)

Trees

b)

Grasses

c)

Weeds

d)

Molds

37.

Which category does Bahia belong to?

a)

Trees

b)

Grasses

c)

Weeds

d)

Indoor

38.

Which category does Sage belong to?

a)

Trees

b)

Grasses

c)

Weeds

d)

Indoor

39.

Which category does Cat belong to?

a)

Trees

b)

Indoor

c)

Weeds

d)

Molds

40.

Which category does Mold (alternaria alternata) belong to?

a)

Trees

b)

Grasses

c)

Indoor

d)

Molds

41.

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is angioedema?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

42.

Which of the following areas can be affected by angioedema?

a)

Lips

b)

Face

c)

Tongue

d)

All of the above

43.

Fill in the blank: Angioedema involves the blood vessels and all layers of the skin, mucous membranes, and ______ tissues in the affected area.

a)

subcutaneous

b)

muscular

c)

cartilaginous

d)

osseous

44.

Which class of medication is associated with angioedema when used for hypertension?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

ACEIs (-pril)

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Diuretics

45.

According to the diagram, which of the following is NOT a symptom of angioedema?

a)

Swollen eyes

b)

Swollen lips

c)

Swollen tongue

d)

Swollen ears

46.

Which type of drugs are especially important to consider in the history when assessing for angioedema?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Blood pressure control drugs

c)

Painkillers

d)

Antidepressants

47.

Which of the following is a physical assessment finding in angioedema?

a)

Lip swelling and itching in the back of the throat

b)

Rash on the arms

c)

Fever

d)

Joint pain

48.

Fill in the blank: Deep, firm swelling of the _______, lips, tongue, and neck is a sign of angioedema.

a)

face

b)

hands

c)

feet

d)

arms

49.

Difficulty speaking and drinking can be a symptom of angioedema.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of angioedema?

a)

Nasal swelling

b)

Difficulty speaking

c)

Itching in the back of the throat

d)

High blood sugar

51.

The image shows a person with swollen lips. Which physical sign of angioedema is being demonstrated?

a)

Swelling of the lips

b)

Rash on the arms

c)

Bruising of the face

d)

Redness of the eyes

52.

Which of the following is the first step in the interventions for angioedema?

a)

Ensure an adequate airway

b)

Stop the reaction

c)

Administer corticosteroids

d)

Provide oxygen

53.

Fill in the blank: One of the interventions for angioedema is to ensure an adequate _______.

a)

airway

b)

pulse

c)

temperature

d)

reflex

54.

Which drug therapies are mentioned as interventions for angioedema?

a)

Antibiotics and Antivirals

b)

Corticosteroids and Epinephrine

c)

Insulin and Metformin

d)

Antihistamines and Decongestants

55.

Oxygen and possible intubation or tracheostomy are interventions for angioedema.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is a medical emergency associated with Type I Hypersensitivity?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Stroke

d)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

57.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of anaphylaxis affecting the face?

a)

Red watering eyes

b)

Runny nose

c)

Severe vomiting

d)

Swelling

58.

Fill in the blank: Anaphylaxis can cause blood vessel ________, decreased cardiac output, and bronchoconstriction.

a)

dilation

b)

constriction

c)

rupture

d)

blockage

59.

Which of the following is a sign of anaphylaxis affecting the airway?

a)

Hives

b)

Throat tightness

c)

Severe cramps

d)

Pale or bluish skin

60.

Severe diarrhea is a sign of anaphylaxis affecting the stomach.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following is NOT a total body sign of anaphylaxis?

a)

Hives

b)

Sense of doom

c)

Difficulty swallowing

d)

Dizziness

62.

What is Anaphylaxis (Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reaction)?

a)

A) A mild allergic reaction

b)

B) A life-threatening type I hypersensitivity reaction

c)

C) A slow, localized reaction

d)

D) A non-fatal condition

63.

Which of the following are characteristics of Anaphylaxis (Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reaction)?

a)

A) Rapid and systemic

b)

B) Slow and localized

c)

C) Only affects the skin

d)

D) Always mild

64.

Anaphylaxis (Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reaction) can be fatal.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of an anaphylactic reaction?

a)

Bee stings

b)

Medication reaction

c)

Food allergy

d)

Viral infection

66.

Fill in the blank: Initial symptoms of anaphylaxis may be _______.

a)

subtle

b)

severe

c)

obvious

d)

delayed

67.

Which of the following is a symptom of an anaphylactic reaction?

a)

Rapid onset

b)

Sweating

c)

Tightness in throat

d)

All of the above

68.

Bronchospasms and loss of consciousness can be symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an assessment finding for anaphylaxis?

a)

Mucosal edema

b)

Bronchoconstriction

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Fever

70.

Which intervention involves removing or stopping exposure to the allergen during anaphylaxis?

a)

Remove/stop exposure to allergen

b)

Administer antibiotics

c)

Apply a cold compress

d)

Increase fluid intake

71.

What is recommended for airway management during anaphylaxis?

a)

Airway Management & high flow oxygen

b)

Nebulized corticosteroids only

c)

Oral antihistamines only

d)

No intervention needed

72.

Who should be alerted during an anaphylactic emergency?

a)

Rapid Response Team

b)

Housekeeping Staff

c)

Cafeteria Workers

d)

IT Support Team

73.

What equipment should be ready to ensure airway safety during anaphylaxis?

a)

Intubation and tracheotomy equipment

b)

Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope

c)

Defibrillator and ECG machine

d)

Nebulizer and oxygen mask

74.

What type of access is important to establish during anaphylaxis intervention?

a)

IV access

b)

Oral access

c)

Nasal access

d)

Subcutaneous access

75.

Which medication is administered IV or IM for anaphylaxis, and can be given via an auto-injector?

a)

Epinephrine (Epi-pen auto injector)

b)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

c)

Albuterol (Ventolin)

d)

Prednisone

76.

What is an important consideration for the patient's body position during anaphylaxis intervention?

a)

Positioning

b)

Medication timing

c)

Dietary restrictions

d)

Temperature control

77.

Which antihistamine can be given IV or IM during anaphylaxis intervention?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Cetirizine

c)

Loratadine

d)

Fexofenadine

78.

Which type of medication can be administered by inhalation to help with breathing during anaphylaxis?

a)

Bronchodilator

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Analgesic

79.

Which class of medication is given IV and then orally as the patient recovers from anaphylaxis?

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Antihistamines

c)

Beta-blockers

d)

ACE inhibitors

80.

Which of the following is the best way to prevent anaphylaxis?

a)

Avoid known allergens

b)

Ignore allergies

c)

Take antibiotics

d)

Eat all foods

81.

What should you wear to alert others about your allergies?

a)

A) A hat

b)

B) Medical alert bracelet

c)

C) Sunglasses

d)

D) Gloves

82.

Fill in the blank: If you have a history of severe allergies, you should carry an _______ kit or epinephrine injector.

a)

anaphylaxis

b)

antibiotic

c)

antacid

d)

antihistamine

83.

Health records should prominently display a list of specific allergens.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended precaution for someone with a history of allergic reactions?

a)

Notify health care personnel about specific allergies

b)

Ignore symptoms

c)

Implement precautionary measures if a drug must be used

d)

Wear a medical alert bracelet

85.

What are the signs and symptoms of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions?

a)

Fevers, chills; nausea/vomiting; flank, chest pain; dyspnea

b)

Rash, itching, mild urticaria only

c)

Gradual onset of fatigue and pallor over weeks

d)

Persistent cough and sore throat

86.

Which antibody target is associated with Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia?

a)

RBC cell membrane

b)

Platelet glycoproteins

c)

Thyroid peroxidase

d)

Acetylcholine receptor

87.

Bullous Pemphigoid is associated with which antibody target?

a)

Hemidesmosome (BP180)

b)

Desmosome (Desmoglein 3)

c)

Type VII Collagen

d)

Epidermal Basement Membrane

88.

Which syndrome is characterized by fetal kernicterus and death as signs and symptoms?

a)

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

89.

Goodpasture Syndrome targets which organs with autoantibodies?

a)

Renal, lung (Type IV collagen)

b)

Liver, pancreas (Type I collagen)

c)

Heart, brain (Type III collagen)

d)

Skin, intestine (Type II collagen)

90.

Graves' Disease involves autoantibodies against which receptor?

a)

Thyrotropin (TSH) receptor

b)

Insulin receptor

c)

Acetylcholine receptor

d)

Beta-adrenergic receptor

91.

Which syndrome is diagnosed by elevated cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein?

a)

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

b)

Myasthenia Gravis

c)

Multiple Sclerosis

d)

Parkinson's Disease

92.

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura is associated with which pathophysiology?

a)

Opsonization

b)

Complement deficiency

c)

Neutrophil chemotaxis

d)

T-cell mediated cytotoxicity

93.

Myasthenia Gravis is associated with autoantibodies against which target?

a)

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

b)

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

c)

Voltage-gated calcium channels

d)

Dopamine receptors

94.

Pemphigus Vulgaris is diagnosed by which immunohistochemistry pattern?

a)

IHC: 'fish net' IgG pattern

b)

IHC: 'granular' IgA pattern

c)

IHC: 'linear' C3 pattern

d)

IHC: 'dot-like' IgM pattern

95.

Which syndrome is associated with fatigue, glossitis, and B12 deficiency sequelae?

a)

Pernicious Anemia

b)

Iron Deficiency Anemia

c)

Aplastic Anemia

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

96.

What do deposited immune complexes trigger in Type III immune complex reactions?

a)

Inflammation, resulting in tissue or vessel damage

b)

Increased antibody production

c)

Decreased antigen levels

d)

No effect

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