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International Project Management Session 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of Project Integration Management?

a)
To manage the project's budget and finances.
b)
To define the project scope and objectives.
c)

To ensure that all project components are effectively coordinated.

d)
To create a detailed project schedule.
2.

Which of the following is the first step in project integration?

a)
Develop project charter
b)
Identify project stakeholders
c)
Create a project timeline
d)
Conduct a risk assessment
3.

The Project Charter is primarily used to:

a)
define the project budget
b)
assign team members
c)

authorize the project and assign a project manager

d)
create a detailed project timeline
4.

Which of the following is an input to the Project Charter?

a)
Stakeholder requirements
b)
Resource allocation
c)
Project timeline
d)
Budget estimates
5.

Tools and techniques for creating the project charter include:

a)
Risk assessment
b)
Budget analysis
c)
Time tracking
d)
Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, meetings
6.

A Project Charter should contain:

a)
Project objectives, scope, stakeholders, roles and responsibilities, timeline, budget estimates, and risks.
b)
Historical project data and lessons learned
c)
Detailed marketing strategies
d)
Project milestones and deliverables only
7.

Which of the following BEST describes the Project Charter?

a)
A formal document that authorizes a project and outlines its objectives and scope.
b)
A detailed timeline of project milestones and deadlines.
c)
A list of team members and their roles in the project.
d)
A summary of the project's financial budget and resources.
8.

Why is expert judgment important in project initiation?

a)

 Provides technical accuracy and experience-based insights.

b)
It guarantees project success without further analysis.
c)
It eliminates the need for stakeholder input.
d)
It helps in selecting the project manager.
9.

Which phase is directly linked to the creation of the Project Charter?

a)
Initiating phase
b)
Planning phase
c)
Closing phase
d)
Executing phase
10.

Without a Project Charter, a project:

a)
will have a clear direction and goals.
b)
will have no impact on team morale.
c)
is likely to fail or face significant challenges.
d)
is guaranteed to succeed without issues.
11.

Project Integration Management ensures:

a)
reduced team collaboration
b)
increased project costs
c)
delayed project timelines
d)
effective coordination and alignment of project elements
12.

Which of the following is NOT a key component of project integration?

a)
Stakeholder analysis
b)
Risk assessment
c)
Budget management
d)
Team building activities
13.

Who usually signs the Project Charter?

a)
Clients
b)
Project sponsor or project manager
c)
Team members
d)
Stakeholders
14.

Which is an advantage of having a Project Charter?

a)
It increases project costs significantly.
b)
It eliminates the need for a project manager.
c)
It allows for unlimited changes to the project scope.
d)
It ensures alignment and clarity among stakeholders.
15.

In PMBOK, Project Integration Management includes:

a)

Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, and closing

b)

 Risk analysis and procurement

c)

 Marketing and HR planning

d)
Creating a budget plan
16.

Which is a typical challenge in integration management?

a)
Developing marketing strategies for the project.
b)
Overseeing financial audits of the project.
c)

Aligning conflicting stakeholders interests.

d)
Managing team morale and motivation.
17.

The output of the Initiation phase is:

a)

WBS

b)
Project Charter
c)
Project Plan
d)

Gantt Chart

18.

Why is project integration considered the “umbrella” process?

a)
It focuses solely on budget management.
b)
It is the first step in project planning.
c)

It coordinates all other project management processes.

d)
It is only relevant for large projects.
19.

Which of the following is TRUE about the Project Charter?

a)
The Project Charter is only a formality and has no real impact on the project.
b)
The Project Charter is created after the project is completed.
c)
The Project Charter is solely focused on budget allocation.
d)
The Project Charter authorizes the project and outlines its objectives.
20.

Which stakeholder is usually assigned through the Project Charter?

a)

Customer

b)

Supplier

c)
Project Manager
d)
Stakeholder Representative
21.

The PMBOK framework defines project management as:

a)
A method for managing financial resources in a project.
b)
A framework for team building and communication only.
c)
The process of defining project goals without any tools or techniques.
d)
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.
22.

Which is the correct order of the project life cycle?

a)
Execution, Closing, Planning, Initiation, Monitoring and Controlling
b)
Planning, Execution, Closing, Monitoring and Controlling, Initiation
c)
Closing, Monitoring and Controlling, Execution, Planning, Initiation
d)
Initiation, Planning, Execution, Monitoring and Controlling, Closing
23.

During which phase is the WBS created?

a)
Planning phase
b)
Closure phase
c)
Monitoring phase
d)
Execution phase
24.

Monitoring and controlling involve:

a)
Tracking performance and making adjustments to meet project objectives.
b)
Setting a budget for the project.
c)
Assigning team roles and responsibilities.
d)
Creating a project timeline.
25.

  1. The Closing phase ensures:

a)
Project budgets are finalized and closed.
b)
All project deliverables are completed and stakeholders are satisfied.
c)
Stakeholders are informed about future projects.
d)
All project tasks are initiated and planned.
26.

Which PMBOK process ensures the project is formally authorized?

a)

Initiation

b)

Planning

c)

Execution

d)

Monitoring

27.

Execution phase focuses on:

a)
Analyzing project risks and issues.
b)
Reviewing project outcomes and deliverables.
c)
Setting project goals and objectives.
d)
Implementing the project plan and coordinating resources.
28.

In PMBOK, the Monitoring and Controlling process is continuous because:

a)
It focuses solely on project initiation phases.
b)
It ensures ongoing alignment with project objectives and timely corrective actions.
c)
It eliminates the need for stakeholder communication.
d)
It only occurs at the end of the project lifecycle.
29.

Which phase is associated with lessons learned documentation?

a)
Initiation phase
b)
Closing phase
c)
Execution phase
d)
Monitoring phase
30.

In project management, the life cycle provides:

a)
A structured approach to managing projects.
b)
A way to avoid project planning.
c)
An unstructured method for project execution.
d)
A random selection of team members.
31.

Which of the following is NOT a PMBOK process group?

a)
Planning
b)
Executing
c)

Marketing

d)
Monitoring
32.

Stakeholder identification is primarily part of:

a)

Initiation

b)

Execution

c)

Closing

d)

Monitoring

33.

Which process group consumes the most resources?

a)

Execution

b)

Planning

c)

Closing

d)

Monitoring

34.

Risk planning occurs in:

a)
the monitoring phase
b)
the closing phase
c)
the execution phase
d)
the project planning phase
35.

Deliverables are produced during:

a)
the planning phase of a project
b)
the closing phase of a project
c)
the execution phase of a project
d)
the initiation phase of a project
36.

A project’s success depends on:

a)
Ignoring deadlines and team input.
b)
Focusing solely on budget constraints.
c)
Clear goals and effective planning.
d)
Vague objectives and random tasks.
37.

Why is monitoring/control essential?

a)

To avoid communication

b)

To finalize scope

c)

To keep performance aligned with plan

d)

To create the project charter

38.

The project life cycle emphasizes:

a)
The financial budget of a project.
b)
The marketing strategy for project promotion.
c)
The team structure and roles in a project.
d)

Sequential phases with possibility of overlaps.

39.

A project is considered closed when:

a)
All deliverables are completed and accepted by stakeholders.
b)
The project is closed after the final meeting with the team.
c)
The project is closed when the initial proposal is submitted.
d)
The project is closed when the budget is exhausted.
40.

In PMBOK, which group ensures that objectives are met within constraints?

a)
Initiating
b)
Closing
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Executing
41.

The purpose of Scope Management is:

a)
to increase project costs and time
b)
to ensure all team members are included in decision-making
c)
to eliminate all risks associated with the project
d)
to define and control what is included and excluded in the project.
42.

Which is the first step in scope planning?

a)

Define project requirements.

b)
Identify stakeholders and their needs.
c)
Create a detailed project budget.
d)
Establish a communication plan.
43.

The Scope Statement includes:

a)
Project timeline and milestones.
b)
Team roles and responsibilities.
c)
Budget estimates and financial projections.
d)
Project objectives, deliverables, boundaries, and constraints.
44.

Scope creep refers to:

a)
the initial planning phase of a project
b)
the reduction of project costs
c)
the process of managing project timelines
d)

unauthorized expansion of project scope

45.

WBS stands for:

a)
Work Breakdown Structure
b)
Work Base Structure
c)
Work Breakdown Strategy
d)
Work Balance System
46.

The main purpose of WBS is:

a)

To decompose work into manageable components.

b)
To establish a project timeline.
c)
To assign tasks to team members.
d)
To create a detailed project budget.
47.

In WBS, the lowest level is called:

a)
deliverable
b)
milestone
c)
work package
d)
task
48.

Scope baseline is composed of:

a)
Project timeline, budget estimates, risk management plan
b)
Quality management plan, stakeholder register, communication plan
c)
Resource allocation plan, procurement strategy, project charter
d)
Project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), WBS dictionary
49.

Which tool helps prevent scope creep?

a)
Time tracking software
b)
Communication tools
c)
File storage services
d)

Change control process

50.

The purpose of defining WBS is to:

a)
To increase project complexity.
b)
To eliminate project tasks.
c)

To provide clear structure and specific tasks for execution.

d)
To assign roles to team members.
51.

A project deliverable is:

a)
A list of team members involved in the project.
b)
A summary of project goals.
c)
A budget estimate for the project.
d)
A specific output or result produced as part of a project.
52.

Which is NOT part of scope planning?

a)
Defining project objectives
b)
Identifying stakeholders
c)
Creating a work breakdown structure
d)

Creating budget estimates

53.

WBS dictionary provides:

a)
Detailed descriptions of WBS components and their attributes.
b)
An overview of team roles and responsibilities.
c)
A summary of project timelines.
d)
General guidelines for project management.
54.

One benefit of a well-defined scope is:

a)
Increased project costs and delays.
b)
Reduced team collaboration and communication.
c)
Wider project scope and ambiguity.
d)
Improved project clarity and focus.
55.

Scope validation ensures:

a)
The project budget is within the estimated range.
b)
The project team is satisfied with their roles.
c)
The project timeline is extended by two weeks.
d)
The project deliverables meet the agreed-upon requirements.
56.

Scope control involves:

a)

Monitoring changes and preventing unauthorized scope growth.

b)
Setting the project budget.
c)
Allocating resources for the project.
d)
Creating a project timeline.
57.

A common risk of poor scope definition is:

a)
Clear project goals
b)
Effective communication
c)
Detailed project timeline
d)
Scope creep
58.

Which is TRUE about WBS?

a)

 It is deliverable-oriented

b)

 It replaces charter

c)

 It is unnecessary in small projects

d)

 It eliminates risk

59.

Scope planning ensures alignment with:

a)
Budget constraints and resource availability
b)
Team member preferences and personal goals
c)
Market trends and competitor analysis
d)
Stakeholder expectations and project goals
60.

Which scope tool decomposes deliverables hierarchically?

a)
Resource Allocation Matrix
b)
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
c)
Gantt Chart
d)
Critical Path Method
61.

PERT stands for:

a)
Project Evaluation and Review Technique
b)
Program Evaluation and Resource Tool
c)
Program Evaluation and Review Technique
d)
Performance Evaluation and Review Technique
62.

CPM stands for:

a)

Critical Path Method

b)

Cost Planning Model

c)

Continuous Project Mapping

d)

 Control Process Management

63.

Which technique uses probabilistic time estimates?

a)
Gantt Chart
b)
PERT
c)
CPM
d)
Time-Driven Activity-Based Costing
64.

CPM primarily focuses on:

a)

 Identifying critical activities that determine project duration

b)

Managing costs only

c)

Monitoring risks only

d)

Defining deliverables

65.

Which of the following requires three-time estimates (optimistic, pessimistic, most likely)?

a)
Gantt Chart
b)
PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
c)
Critical Path Method
d)
Waterfall Model
66.

The critical path is:

a)
The path with the least resources required.
b)
A path that has no dependencies.
c)
The longest path through a project network.
d)
The shortest path through a project network.
67.

Slack/float refers to:

a)
the budget allocated for each task
b)
the priority level of tasks in a project
c)
the total duration of the project
d)
the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the project timeline
68.

PERT is particularly useful for:

a)

research and development projects with uncertainty

b)
analyzing market trends
c)
tracking employee performance
d)
estimating project costs accurately
69.

CPM is best applied when:

a)
CPM is best applied in projects with fixed budgets only.
b)
CPM is best applied when there are no task dependencies.
c)

CPM is best applied when activity times are well-defined and predictable.

d)
CPM is best applied for simple, one-time tasks.
70.

Which is TRUE about PERT and CPM?

a)
CPM is primarily focused on time estimates, while PERT emphasizes task dependencies.
b)
Both PERT and CPM are identical in their approach to project management.
c)
PERT is used only for small projects, while CPM is for large projects.
d)
PERT is more focused on time estimates, while CPM emphasizes task dependencies.
71.

The critical path determines:

a)
The path that requires the most resources.
b)

The minimum time needed to complete a project.

c)
The path with the least number of tasks.
d)
The shortest duration path through a project.
72.

A delay on the critical path will:

a)
Delay the project completion date.
b)
Reduce the overall project cost.
c)
Have no impact on the project timeline.
d)
Speed up the project completion date.
73.

Activities not on the critical path:

a)
Activities that are completed ahead of schedule.
b)
Non-critical activities are those with slack time.
c)
Tasks that require immediate attention.
d)
Critical activities with no slack time.
74.

Which is an advantage of CPM?

a)
Reduced team collaboration and communication.
b)

Identifies project duration and resource bottleneck.

c)
Limited visibility into project progress.
d)
Increased project costs and delays.
75.

Which of the following BEST describes network diagrams?

a)
Network diagrams are only used for software development.
b)
Network diagrams are primarily text-based descriptions.
c)
Network diagrams are irrelevant to network management.
d)
Network diagrams are visual representations of network structures and relationships.
76.

Dummy activities are used in:

a)

PERT to show logical dependencies

b)

CPM to reduce cost

c)

WBS

d)

Charter creation

77.

A project manager uses PERT to:

a)
track team performance
b)
analyze project tasks and estimate completion time
c)
manage project budgets
d)
create marketing strategies
78.

The main difference between Gantt charts and network diagrams:

a)
Gantt charts are primarily used for resource allocation, while network diagrams illustrate project milestones.
b)
Gantt charts are used for budgeting, while network diagrams are for scheduling.
c)
Gantt charts focus on time management, whereas network diagrams emphasize task dependencies.
d)
Gantt charts show task dependencies, whereas network diagrams focus on time management.
79.

Which is a limitation of PERT/CPM?

a)
Assumes all activities are independent.
b)
Assumes activity durations are known and accurately estimated.
c)
Considers only the critical path for project completion.
d)
Allows for unlimited resource allocation without constraints.
80.

Critical path analysis helps managers:

a)
evaluate the quality of project deliverables
b)

identify activities requiring close attention.

c)
assign tasks to team members
d)
determine the budget for a project
81.

If an activity has 0 slack, it is:

a)

On the critical path

b)

Not on the critical path

c)

Can be ignored

d)

A float.

82.

Fast-tracking means:

a)
Reducing the budget for a project.
b)
Increasing the number of team members for a project.
c)
Delaying a project to ensure thoroughness.
d)

Performing activities in parallel to save time.

83.

Crashing refers to:

a)
the act of delaying project tasks
b)
a method for increasing project costs
c)
the process of eliminating project tasks
d)

Adding resources to shorten activity duration.

84.

Which is a risk of crashing?

a)

Increased project cost.

b)
Improved user interface.
c)
Enhanced system performance.
d)
Increased battery life.
85.

In PERT, expected time (TE) is calculated using:

a)
TE = (O + M + P) / 3
b)
TE = (O + 2M + P) / 4
c)
TE = (2O + 3M + P) / 6
d)
TE = (O + 4M + P) / 6
86.

Which of the following is a project network technique?

a)
SWOT Analysis
b)
PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
c)
Kanban Board
d)
Gantt Chart
87.

Critical path activities have:

a)
High float and no impact on project completion time.
b)
Variable float and indirect impact on project completion time.
c)
Zero float but no effect on project deadlines.
d)
Zero float and direct impact on project completion time.
88.

Network crashing is applied when:

a)
Network crashing is implemented to improve user experience.
b)
Network crashing is used to increase data transfer speeds.
c)

Network crashing is applied when there is a need to complete project earlier.

d)
Network crashing is applied to enhance network performance.
89.

Which is TRUE about float in CPM?

a)
Float is the minimum time required to complete a task.
b)
Float indicates the total duration of the project.
c)
Float is only applicable to critical path tasks.
d)
Float represents the flexibility in scheduling tasks without impacting the project's completion date.
90.

Which project management tool is probabilistic in nature?

a)
Critical Path Method (CPM)
b)
Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
c)
Gantt Chart
d)
Kanban Board
91.

The project management plan consolidates:

a)
The budget for the project.
b)
The timeline of the project.
c)
The team members involved in the project.
d)
The components of the project management plan.
92.

Which document authorizes the project manager?

a)
Project charter
b)
Stakeholder register
c)
Risk management plan
d)
Project plan
93.

Which baseline integrates scope, time, and cost?

a)
Scope Management Plan
b)
Cost Management Plan
c)
Time Management Plan
d)

Performance Measurement Baseline

94.

Which is a key benefit of integration management?

a)
Limited resource allocation and management.
b)
Reduced team collaboration and communication.
c)
Increased project costs and delays.
d)
Improved project coordination and efficiency.
95.

During scope validation, the customer:

a)
Requests additional features not included in the scope.
b)
Rejects the completed deliverables.
c)
Provides feedback on the project timeline.
d)
Reviews and approves the completed deliverables.
96.

A WBS is best described as:

a)
A summary of project costs and resources.
b)
A linear representation of project tasks.
c)
A list of project stakeholders and their roles.
d)
A hierarchical decomposition of a project into smaller components.
97.

The triple constraint refers to:

a)
design, functionality, and usability
b)
quality, speed, and efficiency
c)
risk, benefit, and performance
d)
scope, time, and cost
98.

Which is NOT part of project planning?

a)
Planning
b)
Monitoring
c)
Budgeting
d)
Execution
99.

Which network technique is deterministic?

a)

CPM

b)

PERT

c)

Both

d)

None

100.

A project manager who “thinks global but acts local” in project management is practicing:

a)

Context-sensitive leadership

b)

CPM

c)

WBS

d)

Fast-tracking

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