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Concepts of Growth and Control of Microorganisms

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the basic concepts of nutrient uptake and transport?

4 lines
2.

What are the modes of reproduction in bacteria?

4 lines
3.

What is the normal growth curve of microbial population in batch culture system?

4 lines
4.

What is diauxic growth?

4 lines
5.

What are the methods for measuring bacterial growth?

a)

Turbidimetric Methods

b)

The Plate Count Method

c)

Membrane-Filter Count

d)

Electronic Enumeration of Cell Numbers

e)

Direct Microscopic Count

6.

What factors affect the growth of bacteria?

a)

Temperature

b)

Gaseous requirements

c)

Oxygen toxicity

d)

pH

e)

Miscellaneous physical requirements

7.

What are the definitions of sterilization, germicide, microbicide, bacteriocide, and bacteriostasis?

4 lines
8.

What is the rate of death of bacteria?

4 lines
9.

What conditions influence antimicrobial action?

4 lines
10.

What are the modes of action of antimicrobial agents?

4 lines
11.

What are the physical agents used in the control of microorganisms?

a)

Radiation

b)

Osmotic pressure

c)

Low temperature

d)

Desiccation

e)

High temperature

12.

What are the definitions of sterilization, disinfectant, antiseptic, and antimicrobial agent?

4 lines
13.

What are the characteristics of an ideal antimicrobial chemical agent?

4 lines
14.

What are the major groups of chemical antimicrobial agents?

a)

Heavy metals and their compounds

b)

Alcohols

c)

Phenol and phenolic compounds

d)

Dyes

e)

Halogens

15.

What is the evaluation process for antimicrobial chemical agents?

4 lines
16.

What are chemotherapeutic agents and chemotherapy?

4 lines
17.

What are the characteristics of antibiotics that qualify them as chemotherapeutic agents?

4 lines
18.

What are the modes of action of antibiotics?

a)

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b)

Damage to cytoplasmic membrane

c)

Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein synthesis

d)

Inhibition of specific enzyme systems

19.

Identify the INCORRECT statements regarding classification of bacteria based on temperature of growth.

(i)Grow at 0-15 °C -Psychrophiles

(ii) Can grow 0-7 °C but optimum between 20-30 °C Psychrotrophs

(iii)Grow at 20-45 °C is Mesophile

(iv) 55-65 °C is Thermophile

(v) Optimum growth at 80 °C & can grow at 113 °C thermophiles

a)

only (v)

b)

all the statements are correct

c)

(i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

d)

(ii) & (iii)

20.

Arrange the TERMS based on low to high temperature survivors

a)

Psychrophile < psychrotroph < mesophile < hyperthermophile < thermophile

b)

Psychrophile < psychrotroph < mesophile < thermophile < hyperthermophile

c)

psychrotroph < psychrophile < thermophile < hyperthermophile

d)

mesophiles

21.

Match the biomolecules with their respective dominant nutrient elements

(i) fats/lipids - A (C, H, & O);

(ii) proteins - B (C, H, O & P);

(iii) carbohydrates - C (C, H, O, N & P);

(iv) nucleotides - D (C, H, O & N)

a)

(i) - A; (ii) - C; (iii) -D; (iv) -B

b)

(i) - B; (ii) - D; (iii) -A; (iv) -C

c)

(i) - A; (ii) - C; (iii) -B; (iv) -D

d)

(i) - C; (ii) - B; (iii) -D; (iv) -A

22.

Microorganism requiring temperatures ranging from 20°C to about 40°C.

a)

Psychrotolerant

b)

Mesophile

c)

Thermophile

d)

Psychrophile

23.

Microorganism that can live with or without oxygen.

a)

obligate aerobes

b)

obligate anaerobes

c)

aerotolerant anaerobes

d)

facultative anaerobes

24.

Extremely high temperatures can cause a decline in bacterial growth because

a)

heat increases metabolic rate and creates more waste products.

b)

heat slows down metabolic rate.

c)

heat denatures enzymes/proteins, DNA, and causes leaky membranes.

d)

heat prevents DNA from replicating.

25.

Which statement is TRUE about temperature and bacterial growth?

a)

Bacteria grow between a temperature range.

b)

Maximum growth occurs at the optimum temperature.

c)

Metabolic rate increases with temperature.

d)

all of these are true

26.

The problem with psychrotrophs is that 

a)

they can grow at high oven temperatures and spoil food.

b)

they can grow at freezer temperatures and spoil food.

c)

they can grow at refrigerator temperatures and spoil food.

d)

All of these are correct.

27.

Which of the following the main requirement(s) for the bacteria to grow ?

a)

Nutrient requirement

b)

Oxygen requirement

c)

Oxygen and nutrient requirement

d)

Physical and chemical requirement

28.

Identify the characteristic features of micro nutrient

a)

They are required in 0.01 - 1uM quantities

b)

Involved in the enzyme function & protein structure

c)

All of the above

d)

Ca, Mg, Fe are examples

29.

Most Pathogenic Bacteria are Thermophiles

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Bacteria that can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen are called

a)

Facultative Anaerobes

b)

Microaerophiles

c)

Obligate aerobes

d)

Obligate Anaerobes

31.

Bacteria reproduce this way.

a)

budding

b)

fragmentation

c)

binary fission

d)

vegetative propagation

32.

Most bacteria grow best at pH

a)

14

b)

1

c)

7

d)

9

33.

Which of the following is NOT a chemical requirement of all bacteria?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sulphur

d)

Carbon

34.

You inoculate two tubes of liquid culture medium with 100 bacterial cells and incubate one tube at 37°C and the other at 55°C. After 48 hours, there are 20,000 bacteria per milliliter in the 37°C tube and 1,568,000 bacteria per milliliter in the 55°C tube. You conclude that this species is a __________.

a)

Thermophile

b)

Mesophile

c)

Hyperthermophile

d)

Psychrophile

35.

Which of the following is an organic growth factor?

a)

Glucose

b)

Vitamin B1

c)

Peptone

d)

Mg2+

36.

Which bacterium would theoretically be more likely to grow at refrigerator temperatures:

a)

human intestinal pathogen

b)

a soilborne plant pathogen

37.

Most Fungi grow best at pH

a)

1

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

38.

An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?

a)

64

b)

32

c)

6

d)

5

39.

You are required to memorize the amounts of each component in all the culture media studied.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Figure which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the presence of O2?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

Both A and B

41.

Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?

a)

nitrogen — needed for amino acid synthesis

b)

sulfur — used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin

c)

magnesium and potassium — required as cofactors for enzymes

d)

Phosphorus — used for production of carbohydrates.

e)

phosphorus — incorporated into nucleic acids

42.

Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are

a)

strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.

b)

capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.

c)

facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.

d)

strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.

e)

capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.

43.

Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours?

a)

64

b)

32

c)

6

d)

5

e)

96

44.

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2- + O2- + 2H+ → H2O2 + O2?

a)

Catalase

b)

Oxidase

c)

Peroxidase

d)

Superoxide dismutase

45.

A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a

a)

Chemically defined medium.

b)

Complex medium.

c)

Selective

d)

Differential

46.

In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections?

a)

Bacterial cell walls in the water

b)

A biofilm in the reprocessor

c)

A contaminated disinfectant

d)

Fecal contamination of the bile ducts

47.

Three different culture media are shown above. For the three types of media in Table above, which medium (or media) is/are chemically defined?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A and B

48.

The data shows growth of two bacteria on different media. Based on the data what would you classify Staphylococcus aureus as

a)

Mesophile.

b)

Facultative anaerobe.

c)

Facultative halophile.

d)

Aerobe.

e)

Halophile

49.

Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because

a)

injected solutions are contaminated

b)

their immune systems are weakened

c)

infections can be transmitted from other people.

d)

biofilms develop on catheters.

e)

bacteria cause infections

50.

Complete removal of all viable organisms from an object or from a particular environment

a)

Sterilization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Asepsis

d)

Sanitization

51.

Microbial control methods that can kill ____ are able to sterilize material.

a)

viruses

b)

the tubercle bacillus

c)

endospores

d)

cysts

52.

Sanitization is a process by which

a)

the microbial load on objects is reduced

b)

objects are made sterile with chemicals

c)

utensils are scrubbed

d)

skin is debrided

53.

In terms of effect in a cell, high temperatures ____ and low temperatures _____

a)

sterilize/disinfect

b)

kill cells/inhibit cell growth

c)

denature proteins/burst cells

d)

speed up metabolism/slow down metabolism

54.

The primary action of this type of heat ____ is to cause this effect on a major macromolecule _____

a)

dry, destroy cell walls

b)

moist, kill vegetative cells

c)

dry, dissolve lipids

d)

moist, denature proteins

55.
The temperature pressure combination for  an autoclave is
a)
100 C and 4 psi
b)
121 C and 15 psi
c)
131 C and 9 psi
d)
115 C and 3 psi
56.

Microbe(s) that is/are the target(s) of pasteurization include(s)

a)

Clostidium botulinum

b)

Mycobacterium species

c)

Salmonella species

d)

both a and c

57.
Ionizing radiation removes ______ from atoms. 
a)
protons
b)
waves
c)
electrons
d)
ions
58.

The best way to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids ( like vaccines or enzymes or antibodies) is

a)

UV radiation

b)

exposure to ozone

c)

beta propiolactone

d)

filtration

59.

A chemical with sporicidal properties is

a)

phenol

b)

alcohol

c)

quaternary ammonium compound

d)

glutaraldehyde

60.

Detergents are

a)

high-level germicides

b)

low-level germicides

c)

excellent antiseptics

d)

used in disinfecting surgical instruments

61.

Vegetative cells are much more sensitive to heat than are spores.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following actions occur due to low temperature?

a)

coagulation of proteins

b)

death of microorganisms

c)

rate of metabolism is reduced

d)

denatures proteins

63.

Which of the following inhibits DNA replication?

a)

cathode rays

b)

UV light

c)

x-rays

d)

gamma rays

64.

A chemical agent that kills the microorganisms and is commonly applied to substances used on inanimate objects are _______________

a)

Antiseptics

b)

Sanitizer

c)

Disinfectants

d)

Antibiotics

65.

An agent that prevents the growth of bacteria are known as __________________

a)

Bactericide

b)

Bacteriostatic

c)

Antimicrobial

d)

Antibiotic

66.

Which of the following are generally applied on living animal tissues?

a)

Antiseptics

b)

Disinfectants

c)

Preservatives

d)

Sanitizer

67.

Antibiotics are not effective against plant pathogens.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Identify the correct definition of a disinfectant:

a)

Chemicals that kill or prevent infection and damage living tissues

b)

Chemicals that kill or prevent infection without damaging living tissues

69.

This uses superheated steam at 121.5 Celsius at 15 lbs/in2 for 15 minutes.

a)

autoclave

b)

drying

c)

ultrasound

d)

pasteurization

70.
This method uses steam for 30 minutes for each of three successive days.
a)
pasteurization
b)
cavitation
c)
incineration
d)
Tyndallization
71.

This involves holding contaminated inoculating loop in direct flame. (Think about what is happening to the loop, as you scan the choices for the right answer)

a)

autoclave

b)

incineration

c)

gamma rays

d)

ultraviolet light

72.
This could either use the flash method at 72 C for 15 seconds or the holding method at 63 C for 30 min.
a)
pasteurization
b)
Tyndallization
c)
autoclave
d)
cavitation
73.
Microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through 
a)
conjugation
b)
transformation
c)
transduction
d)
all of these
74.
A compound synthesized by bacteria of fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an
a)
synthetic drug
b)
antibiotic
c)
antimicrobial drug
d)
competitive inhibitor
75.
An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause
a)
the teeth to turn brown
b)
aplastic anemia
c)
a superinfection
d)
hepatotoxicity
76.

Sulfa drugs work on

a)

folic acid biosynthesis

b)

nucleic acid biosynthesis

c)

peptidoglycan biosynthesis

d)

ribosome biosynthesis

77.

Penicillin targets what molecule in cell wall synthesis?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Lipids

c)

Peptidoglycan

d)

Transmembrane receptors

78.

This antimicrobial treats Giardia lamblia.

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Cephalosporin

c)

Raltegravir

d)

Trimethoprim

79.

Inhibitors of protein synthesis act on:

a)

the 70S ribosomes found in bacteria

b)

the 70S ribosomes found in all microbes

c)

the 80S ribosomes found in animal cells

d)

both 70S and 80S ribosomes

80.

Which of the following is best to sterilize heat-labile solutions?

a)

Dry heat

b)

Autoclave

c)

Membrane filtration

d)

Pasteurization

81.

Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?

a)

The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

b)

All the cells in a culture die at once

c)

All of the cells in a culture are never killed.

d)

The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.

82.

Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins?

a)

Phenolics

b)

All of the above

c)

Alcohols

d)

Aldehydes

83.

Which one of the following is most useful for disinfecting medical instruments?

a)

Benzoic acid

b)

Bisphenols

c)

Chlorine

d)

Quats

84.

Thymine dimers are a major component of using _______________ to sterilize.

a)

nonionizing radiation

b)

ionizing radiation

c)

microwaves

85.

Low and intermediate level of chemical decontamination kill all except....

a)

endospores

b)

fungal spores

c)

vegetative bacteria

d)

viruses

86.

Phenol and derivatives disrupt _____________ and lipid rich cell walls.

a)

plasma membranes

b)

protein synthesis

c)

metabolism

d)

DNA replication

87.

Which have the highest relative resistance?

a)

endospores and prions

b)

nonenveloped bacteria

c)

enveloped bacteria

d)

gram negative bacteria

88.

The temperature or cleanliness of an object has no effect on how well a disinfectant will work

a)

True

b)

False

89.

_______________ are chemicals produced by bacteria and fungi that inhibit or kill other microbes.

a)

plasmas

b)

disinfectants

c)

antiseptics

d)

antibiotics

90.

What are three actions that could prevent antibiotic resistance?

a)

Take all of the prescribed medication.

b)

Do not take medication prescribed to someone else.

c)

Do not take an antibiotic for a viral infection.

d)

all of these are correct

91.
Louis Pasteur invented the process of heating milk to destroy harmful bacteria which is called what?
a)
Homogenization
b)
UHT
c)
Freezing
d)
Pasteurization
92.

Destruction of all forms of life which includes bacterial spores

(a)  

93.

Free of viable microorganism spores and other infectious agents

(a)  

94.

General term that describes a chemical agent that inactivates microorganism

(a)  

95.

Refers to the property which biocide is able to inhibit bacterial multiplication

(a)  

96.

Refers to the property which biocide is able to kill bacteria

(a)  

97.

Presence of pathogenic microbes in living tissue

(a)  

98.

Absence of pathogenic tissues

(a)  

99.

Chemicals applied on body surface to kill or inhibit growth of pathogenic microorganism within host tissues

(a)  

100.

Prevention of multiplication of microorganism in formulated products

(a)  

101.

Naturally occurring or synthetic organic compounds which inhibits or destroys selective bacteria of low concentration

(a)  

102.

Type of organism: Resistant to heat

(a)  

103.

Type of organism: Highly resistant

(a)  

104.

Increased number of organism present may take shorter time before it is eradicated

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Based on the function of the agent and the (a)   of a microorganism that is to be killed

106.

Disinfectants are generally used at room temperature...

(a)  

107.

Made up of polysaccharide coats that adhere to the surface

(a)  

108.

Requires sterilization

a)

Critical Materials

b)

Semi-critical materials

c)

Noncritical materials

109.

Requires high level disinfection agents

a)

Critical materials

b)

Semi-critical materials

c)

Noncritical materials

110.

Requires intermediate to low level disinfection agents

a)

Critical materials

b)

Semi-critical materials

c)

Noncritical materials

111.

Most common method used of microorganism elimination

(a)  

112.

Works by disrupting the cell membrane by degrading nucleic acids and denaturing enzymes

(a)  

113.

For heat stable substances

(a)  

114.

(63C at 30 mins) Reduces spoilage of food

a)

Pasteurization

b)

Boiling water

c)

Incineration

115.

Steam (100C at 15 mins) Kills microbial vegetative forms but not spores

a)

Pasteurization

b)

Boiling Water

c)

Incineration

116.

Excellent for reducing of microbial population for heat sensitive and can also be used to sterilize solutions

(a)  

117.

Sterilizes disposable medical supplies such as syringes, catheters and gloves

a)

Ionizing radiation

b)

Non-ionizing radiation

118.

The most common type of steam sterilizer in the microbiology laboratory is the...

(a)  

119.

Inactivates DNA and RNA through alkylation of sulfhydryl and amino groups

(a)  

120.

Rapid killing action and remains active in presence of organic material but does not penetrate organic material well

a)

Glutaraldehyde

b)

Glutathione

c)

Glucohydride

121.

Excellent in vitro bactericidal activity but not sporicidal against gram positive and gram negative bacteria

(a)  

122.

Commonly used as skin disinfectant but not sporicidal (betadine) where dilution is required

(a)  

123.

Takes effect based on the oxidative effects of hypochlorous acid formed when chlorine ions are dissolved in water

(a)  

124.

Most commonly used for neutralization

(a)  

125.

Active against all vegetative microorganism and bacterial and fungal spores

(a)  

126.

It is a chlorinated bisphenol that interrupts bacterial electron transport, inhibits membrane-bound enzymes at low concentrations and ruptures bacterial membranes at high concentration

(a)  

127.

It is considered intermediate-acting to slow-acting and has minimal persistent effect of more than a few hours

(a)  

128.

is a diphenyl ether that disrupts the cell wall

(a)  

129.

S_____ N______ (1% eye drop solution) has been used as a prophylactic treatment to prevent gonococcal conjunctivitis in new borns

(a)  

130.

First widely used antiseptic

(a)  

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