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Worksheets100-200 part 2
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 53mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In the majority of helicopters, the thrust generated by the gas generator is absorbed by the.(Level 1)
a)
L.P turbine.
b)
Free power turbine.
c)
H.P turbine.
2.
An A.P.U start cycle is completed at.(Level 1)
a)
100% RPM.
b)
75% RPM.
c)
95% RPM.
3.
An A.P.U power lever is located.(Level 1)
a)
behind the throttles.
b)
at the Flight Engineer Station.
c)
An A.P.U is fully automatic and does not require a power lever.
4.
An A.P.U consists of.(Level 1)
a)
a power compressor and load compressor.
b)
a power compressor and directly connected turbine.
c)
a load compressor and free turbine.
5.
Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (A.P.U) generator.(Level 1)
a)
is identical to the engine-driven generators.
b)
has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven generators.
c)
supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators during peak loads.
6.
Fuel scheduling during A.P.U start and under varying pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is maintained.(Level 1)
a)
automatically by the A.P.U fuel control system.
b)
manually through power control lever position.
c)
Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 3-37.
7.
An A.P.U is usually rotated during start by.(Level 1)
a)
a pneumatic starter.
b)
a turbine impingement system.
c)
an electric starter.
8.
For an A.P.U to run 'unmanned' it must be equipped with.(Level 1)
a)
an automatic fire extinguishing system.
b)
both an audible fire warning and an automatic fire extinguishing system.
c)
an audible fire warning.
9.
An aircraft has a heavy landing and on inspection of the engine mounting bolts the bolts torque loading has reduced, you should.(Level 1)
a)
add washers to take up any gap or slackness and re-torque to correct value.
b)
remove bolt and carry out inspection as the bolt may have increased in length due to heavy landing.
c)
re-torque bolt up to correct torque value.
10.
Forward engine mounts take which loads?.(Level 1)
a)
Thrust, vertical and shear loads.
b)
Centrifugal, thrust and axial.
c)
Thrust, vertical and impact.
11.
Forward engine mounts take which form?.(Level 1)
a)
Castings.
b)
Forgings.
c)
Fabricated sheet steel.
12.
Pipes around engines are.(Level 1)
a)
aluminium.
b)
mild seamless steel.
c)
stainless steel.
13.
Fibrous metallic lining for noise suppression is used.(Level 1)
a)
for lobe type noise suppressors.
b)
in cold area.
c)
in hot area.
14.
Noise lining in the fan area is made from.(Level 1)
a)
layers of bonded resin.
b)
porous type Honeycomb and backing sheet.
c)
felt with aluminium sheet.
15.
A powerplant consists of.(Level 1)
a)
a basic engine plus E.C.U.
b)
a basic engine plus thrust reverser, exhaust system and gear box with accessories.
c)
the complete engine as it would be found on aircraft including all connections, controls, cowlings, intake etc.
16.
Acoustic blankets are installed to.(Level 1)
a)
reduce noise levels.
b)
increase thermal efficiency.
c)
aid the streamlining of the engine.
17.
A fire wire is installed.(Level 1)
a)
to withstand inertia, vibration, etc, encountered during normal operation.
b)
vertically.
c)
horizontally.
18.
Resistive and capacitive type firewires are tested with.(Level 1)
a)
megger/voltmeter.
b)
megger/ohmmeter.
c)
multimeter.
19.
Fire wire clips have rubber in them to.(Level 1)
a)
stop heat transfer to the element.
b)
insulate the fire wire electrically.
c)
support the wire.
20.
Fire extinguishers work by.(Level 1)
a)
combining with remaining oxygen to get rid of it.
b)
creating more oxygen.
c)
reducing oxygen.
21.
Fire detection systems which are routed through another zone.(Level 1)
a)
must be protected by the use of heat sinks.
b)
must be protected from heat sources in the zone.
c)
are not allowed.
22.
A fire involving energized electrical equipment is defined as a.(Level 1)
a)
class B fire.
b)
class D fire.
c)
class C fire.
23.
A fire detection system that operates on the rate of temperature rise is a.(Level 1)
a)
thermocouple system.
b)
thermal switch system.
c)
continuous loop system.
24.
A fuel or oil fire is defined as a.(Level 1)
a)
class B fire.
b)
class C fire.
c)
class A fire.
25.
A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to temperature. Which of the following systems does this statement define?. (Level 1)
a)
Thermal switch system.
b)
Lindberg continuous element system.
c)
Kidde continuous loop system.
26.
A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector?.(Level 1)
a)
Rate of temperature rise detector.
b)
Spot detector.
c)
Overheat detector.
27.
For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on.(Level 1)
a)
the volume and smoothness of the airflow through enginecompartments.
b)
engine type and size.
c)
hot and cold sections of the engine.
28.
On checking a fault free fire detection system.(Level 1)
a)
use megger as per normal.
b)
a megger is never to be used.
c)
use a megger only for a short while as it can polarise the element.
29.
3 ways to test serviceability of a fixed fire bottle in situ are.(Level 1)
a)
weigh, pressure, blow-out disc.
b)
weigh, pressure, pop up indicator.
c)
pressure, pop up indicator, blow-out disc.
30.
Omission of crushable washer on engine fire-wire connector will.(Level 1)
a)
allow moisture ingress.
b)
affect fire wire continuity.
c)
affect fire wire capacitance.
31.
A hung start is indicated by the.(Level 1)
a)
exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
b)
fails to reach idle RPM.
c)
RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
32.
A magnetic chip detector inspection should be carried out.(Level 1)
a)
within a specified time from shut down.
b)
with engine cold.
c)
with engine running.
33.
A magnetic chip detector detects.(Level 1)
a)
particles held in suspension.
b)
particles which are too small for the naked eye.
c)
ferrous particles only.
34.
A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is done to.(Level 1)
a)
prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.
b)
prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
c)
allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it.
35.
A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind of damage?.(Level 1)
a)
Scoring.
b)
Galling.
c)
Cracking.
36.
A hung start or false start is one in which.(Level 1)
a)
light up' occurs, but the RPM does not increase.
b)
there is no 'light up'.
c)
the engine does not rotate.
37.
After shutdown, flames are present in the exhaust pipe. The probable cause is.(Level 1)
a)
a defective fuel control unit (F.C.U).
b)
a defective pressurizing and dump valve.
c)
a defective H.P cock.
38.
A gas turbine engine is stopped by closing.(Level 1)
a)
L.P cock.
b)
H.P cock.
c)
throttle valve.
39.
A 'wet start' is indicated by.(Level 1)
a)
no temperature indication.
b)
low RPM.
c)
a prolonged cranking period.
40.
Fuel system inhibiting oil is.(Level 1)
a)
mineral oil.
b)
light anti-freeze oil.
c)
kerosene.
41.
After placing an engine in an M.V.P envelope.(Level 1)
a)
check humidity indicator after 12 hours.
b)
check humidity indicator after 24 hours.
c)
check humidity indicator after 48 hours.
42.
On a vapour proof cocoon, there is a.(Level 1)
a)
temperature indicator.
b)
moisture indicator.
c)
humidifier.
43.
On storage of an engine, the desiccant is.(Level 1)
a)
looked at within 24 hrs if its blue its OK.
b)
looked at 24 hrs later if its blue its OK.
c)
looked at 24 hrs later if blue it should be replaced.
44.
After placing an engine into storage, details would be recorded in.(Level 1)
a)
Technical Log.
b)
Engine log book.
c)
Aircraft log book.
45.
An engine in storage for 7 days should.(Level 1)
a)
have storage oil placed in engine.
b)
be run twice in that week.
c)
be fitted with covers and blanks and apertures covered.
46.
To inhibit the fuel system of an installed engine.(Level 1)
a)
pump oil into the engine when stationary.
b)
dry motor the engine.
c)
remove the ignitor plugs.
47.
With an engine in storage, desiccant is used.(Level 1)
a)
as an insecticide.
b)
as a corrosion inhibitor.
c)
to remove moisture from the air.
48.
The types of water present in aviation fuel are.(Level 1)
a)
free and entrained both harmful.
b)
free that is harmful and entrained that is harmless.
c)
free that is harmless and entrained that is harmful.
49.
A curvic coupling.(Level 1)
a)
converts rotary motion to reciprocating motion.
b)
absorbs misalignment between the driving and driven shafts.
c)
accurately aligns the driving and the driven shafts.
50.
Feeders are.(Level 1)
a)
conduits used to carry electrical cable.
b)
fluid supply hoses.
c)
heavy duty electrical generator cables.
51.
High air humidity will.(Level 1)
a)
have no affect on thrust.
b)
reduce the thrust output.
c)
increase the thrust output.
52.
C.I.T sensor is made up of.(Level 1)
a)
Iron-constantan.
b)
Chromel-alumel.
c)
Platinum-rhodium.
53.
The hottest casing is the.(Level 1)
a)
H.PT.
b)
combustion chamber.
c)
L.PT.
54.
The active clearance control system aids turbine engine efficiency by.(Level 2)
a)
automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a desired EPR.
b)
adjusting stator vane position according to operating conditions and power requirements.
c)
ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a minimum by controlling case temperatures.
55.
How are turbine disks attached to the shaft in gas turbine engine?.(Level 2)
a)
Splined.
b)
Curvic couplings.
c)
Bolted.
56.
Impulse turbine blades run cooler than reaction blades because.(Level 2)
a)
impulse spin faster radially.
b)
temperature drop across N.G.V is greater.
c)
converging rotors increase velocity.
57.
Which of the following is most likely to occur in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine?.(Level 2)
a)
Pitting.
b)
Galling.
c)
Cracking.
58.
Aluminium deposits on the turbine show up as.(Level 2)
a)
white or silver speckles.
b)
white powder traces.
c)
black stains.
59.
What are blue and golden deposits evidence of, on a turbine blade?.(Level 2)
a)
Titanium.
b)
Aluminium.
c)
Magnesium.
60.
Impulse blades operate cooler than reaction blades because.(Level 2)
a)
impulse blades rotate at higher speeds.
b)
the N.G.V's cool the air.
c)
the airflow has a higher velocity through a impulse turbine N.G.V.
61.
The temperature and centrifugal loads which the turbine is subjected to during normal engine operation causes.(Level 2)
a)
fatigue failure.
b)
elastic stretching.
c)
creep loading.
62.
Impulse-reaction turbine blades form.(Level 2)
a)
tip half reaction, root half Impulse.
b)
1 stage impulse, 1 stage reaction.
c)
tip half Impulse, root half reaction.
63.
What is the maximum practical angle through which the gas flow can be turned during thrust reversal?.(Level 2)
a)
180°.
b)
50°.
c)
135°.
64.
The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.(Level 2)
a)
decreases.
b)
increases.
c)
is inversely proportional to the temperature.
65.
The Jet Pipe of a gas turbine engine.(Level 2)
a)
protects the airframe from heat damage.
b)
has an inner cone to protect the rear turbine disc.
c)
is convergent in shape to increase the velocity as much as possible.
66.
If the exit area of the nozzle was too large, the effect is.(Level 2)
a)
exit velocity lower causing loss of thrust.
b)
will choke at a lower gas temperature.
c)
exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.
67.
Thrust reversers utilizing a pneumatic actuating system, usually receive operating pressure from.(Level 2)
a)
the engine bleed air system.
b)
high pressure air reservoirs.
c)
an on-board hydraulic or electrical powered compressor.
68.
The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing system is to.(Level 2)
a)
turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting the exhaust nozzle.
b)
form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path.
c)
turn to a forward direction the fan and/or hot exhaust gases that have been blocked from exiting through the exhaust nozzle.
69.
The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the thrust reverser system deployed is.(Level 2)
a)
equal to or less than its forward capability, depending on ambient conditions and system design.
b)
less than its forward capability.
c)
equal to its forward capability.
70.
Which statement is generally true regarding thrust reverser systems?.(Level 2)
a)
Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually will not operate independently of each other (must all be simultaneously).
b)
It is possible to move some aircraft backward on the ground using reverse thrust.
c)
Mechanical blockage system design permits a deployment position aft of the exhaust nozzle only.
71.
What is the proper operating sequence when using thrust reversers to slow an aircraft after landing?.(Level 2)
a)
Advance thrust levers up to takeoff position as conditions require, select thrust reverse, de-select thrust reverser, retard thrust levers to ground idle.
b)
Retard thrust levers to ground idle, raise thrust reverser levers as required, and retard thrust reverser levers to ground idle.
c)
Select thrust reverse, advance thrust reverser levers no higher than 75% N1, and retard thrust reverser levers to idle at approximately normal taxi speed.
72.
Thrust reversal on a high bypass engine is achieved by.(Level 2)
a)
blocker doors.
b)
clamshell configuration.
c)
bucket type doors.
73.
If damage is found to the reverse thrust cascade vanes and they need replacing, you can.(Level 2)
a)
replace damaged vanes with 45 degree vanes.
b)
only replace vanes with new ones that have the correct part as the originals removed.
c)
interchange the cascade vanes as they are interchangeable.
74.
When should thrust reversers be used?.(Level 2)
a)
At low RPM and low forward speed.
b)
At high RPM and high forward speed.
c)
At high RPM and low forward speed.
75.
If the area of the nozzle was too large the effect is.(Level 2)
a)
will 'choke' at mach 1.
b)
exit velocity lower causing loss of the thrust.
c)
exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.
76.
What indication does the pilot receive that thrust reversers have deployed?.(Level 2)
a)
An audible warning.
b)
A sequence of lights.
c)
A feeling of rapid deceleration.
77.
What angle are the exhaust gasses turned through in a clamshell type thrust reverser?.(Level 2)
a)
180 degrees.
b)
135 degrees.
c)
45 degrees.
78.
If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no defects, they.(Level 2)
a)
are in an acceptable service condition.
b)
cannot be used again.
c)
must be degaussed before use.
79.
The highest turbine bearing temperature takes place.(Level 2)
a)
all the time.
b)
at start-up.
c)
at shut-down.
80.
Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as.(Level 2)
a)
fretting.
b)
galling.
c)
brinelling.
81.
The function of a labyrinth seal is to create.(Level 2)
a)
a restricted leakage of air between fixed and rotating components.
b)
an airtight seal between fixed and rotation components.
c)
an airtight seal between fixed adjacent casing surfaces.
82.
Why are oil seals pressurised?.(Level 2)
a)
To ensure minimum oil loss.
b)
To ensure oil is forced into the bearings.
c)
To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the bearing housing.
83.
What bearing is used to take axial loads on a main rotation shaft of a gas turbine engine?(Level 2)
a)
Plain bearing.
b)
Roller bearing.
c)
Ball bearing.
84.
The purpose of 'squeeze film' type bearing is to.(Level 2)
a)
increase the flow of oil to the rolling element.
b)
minimise the effect of vibration.
c)
improve outer race cooling.
85.
In a jet engine the rotating assembly oil seals are maintained oil tight by means of.(Level 2)
a)
a garter seal.
b)
an annular expander ring.
c)
air pressure.
86.
Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil is its viscosity index based?.(Level 2)
a)
Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature.
b)
Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change.
c)
Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as compared to high grade paraffin base oil at the same temperature.
87.
If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine lubrication?. (Level 2)
a)
An oil that combines high viscosity and low demulsibility.
b)
The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain a reasonable film strength.
c)
An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a high neutralization number.
88.
In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving parts), engine oil performs what functions?.(Level 2)
a)
Cools, seals, prevents corrosion.
b)
Cools, seals, prevents corrosion, cushions shock loads.
c)
Cools and seals.
89.
Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine?.(Level 2)
a)
Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
b)
Operating speeds of bearings.
c)
Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.
90.
Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of.(Level 2)
a)
oil at a specific temperature.
b)
mercury at a specific temperature.
c)
distilled water at a specific temperature.
91.
What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft engines?.(Level 2)
a)
Cooling ability.
b)
Chemical stability.
c)
Friction resistance.
92.
High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such as occur with spur type gears, require the use of.(Level 2)
a)
an E.P lubricant.
b)
metallic ash detergent oil.
c)
straight mineral oil.
93.
Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil?.(Level 2)
a)
High volatility.
b)
High flash point.
c)
Low flash point.
94.
What action is taken to protect integral fuel tanks from corrosion due to micro biological contamination?.(Level 2)
a)
Rubber liners are installed in the tank.
b)
A biocidal additive is added to the fuel.
c)
The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate.
95.
What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of a turbine engine performance check if an alternate fuel is to be used?.(Level 2)
a)
Maximum RPM adjustment.
b)
Fuel specific gravity setting.
c)
EPR gauge calibration.
96.
What filters are used to protect oil pressure spray jets?.(Level 2)
a)
Felt/paper filters.
b)
In-line thread filters.
c)
Micronic filters.
97.
Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine components?.(Level 2)
a)
Compressor bearing.
b)
Rotor coupling.
c)
Turbine bearing.
98.
In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve that regulates the flow of.(Level 2)
a)
both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger.
b)
oil through the heat exchanger.
c)
fuel through the heat exchanger.
99.
What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters?.(Level 2)
a)
To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main bearings.
b)
To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system.
c)
To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle.
100.
Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine?.(Level 2)
a)
Aerates the fuel.
b)
Emulsifies the oil.
c)
Increases fuel temperature.
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