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Menstrual Dysfunction Study Guide

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Various aspects of different forms of menstrual dysfunction include:

a)

Irregular cycles, amenorrhea, dysmenorrhea, and menorrhagia

b)

Only regular cycles and ovulation

c)

Exclusive presence of menopause

d)

Absence of any hormonal changes

2.

What is the definition of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)?

a)

Recurring physical, psychological, and behavioral symptoms during the luteal phase (ovulation to menstruation).

b)

A condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles only.

c)

A syndrome that affects only postmenopausal women.

d)

A disorder marked by continuous symptoms throughout the entire menstrual cycle.

3.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of PMS?

a)

A) Bloating

b)

B) Breast tenderness

c)

C) High blood pressure

d)

D) Fatigue

4.

List two management strategies for PMS.

a)

Stress reduction, relaxation, exercise; balanced diet; avoid hypoglycemia; support groups, counseling, medications (NSAIDs, diuretics, OCs, SSRIs).

b)

Increase caffeine and sugar intake; avoid physical activity.

c)

Ignore symptoms and avoid medical advice.

d)

Consume high-fat, high-salt diet and reduce sleep.

5.

Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) is a more severe form of PMS.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What is the cause of PMDD?

a)

Abnormal serotonin response to estrogen changes.

b)

Deficiency of vitamin D.

c)

Excessive production of insulin.

d)

Low levels of thyroid hormones.

7.

Which of the following is a symptom of PMDD?

a)

Depression

b)

High fever

c)

Rash

d)

Cough

8.

What is the typical onset period for primary dysmenorrhea?

a)

After age 25

b)

6-12 months post-menarche (adolescents/young women)

c)

At menopause

d)

At birth

9.

Which of the following is a cause of primary dysmenorrhea?

a)

Pelvic pathology

b)

High prostaglandin levels leading to uterine contractions

c)

Menopause

d)

Ovarian cysts

10.

Fill in the blank: The pelvic exam in primary dysmenorrhea is usually _____

a)

Normal

b)

Enlarged

c)

Tender

d)

Irregular

11.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for primary dysmenorrhea?

a)

Heat

b)

Massage

c)

High-fat diet

d)

NSAIDs

12.

What is the typical onset period for secondary dysmenorrhea?

a)

6-12 months post-menarche

b)

After age 25

c)

At menopause

d)

At birth

13.

What are the two main types of oral contraceptives based on hormone content?

a)

Low estrogen, progestin-dominant

b)

High androgen, low androgen

c)

Estrogen-only, androgen-only

d)

Progesterone-only, androgen-only

14.

Oral contraceptives should be avoided in which of the following groups?

a)

Smokers

b)

Patients with clotting disorders

c)

Patients with cardiovascular disease

d)

Patients with cancer

e)

All of the above

15.

Why is it important to always ask about OTC and herbal medications when treating patients?

a)

They may interact with prescribed treatments and affect patient outcomes.

b)

They are always safe and do not require monitoring.

c)

They are never used by patients in clinical settings.

d)

They are only relevant for pediatric patients.

16.

What is the condition described under Sexual Disorders?

a)

Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder

b)

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

c)

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

d)

Bipolar I Disorder

17.

Which of the following is an injectable treatment option for Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder?

a)

Bremelanotide

b)

Flibanserin

18.

Which oral treatment for Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder has a BLACK BOX warning to avoid alcohol due to interaction?

a)

Flibanserin

b)

Bremelanotide

c)

Sildenafil

d)

Testosterone

19.

Define primary infertility.

a)

No conception after 1 year of unprotected sex.

b)

Conception after 6 months of unprotected sex.

c)

No conception after 2 years of protected sex.

d)

Conception after 1 year of protected sex.

20.

Define secondary infertility.

a)

Inability to conceive after previous pregnancy.

b)

Inability to conceive at all, even for the first time.

c)

Inability to carry a pregnancy to term.

d)

Inability to conceive due to male factors only.

21.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Age

b)

High Vitamin C intake

c)

Frequent exercise

d)

Daily water consumption

22.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Body fat (excess or low)

b)

High calcium intake

c)

Frequent hand washing

d)

Wearing glasses

23.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Chronic disease

b)

Excessive exercise

c)

High protein diet

d)

Frequent travel

24.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Abnormal Pap history (e.g., cone biopsy)

b)

Recent influenza vaccination

c)

Frequent hand washing

d)

Mild seasonal allergies

25.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Smoking, alcohol

b)

Drinking water

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Eating fruits

26.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Fallopian tube disease

b)

Asthma

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

27.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

STI history

b)

Excessive exercise

c)

High vitamin C intake

d)

Frequent hand washing

28.

What is one cause of female infertility?

a)

Multiple miscarriages

b)

Frequent exercise

c)

High intelligence

d)

Good vision

29.

What is one cause of male infertility?

a)

Sperm abnormalities

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Excessive hair growth

d)

Increased muscle mass

30.

What is one cause of male infertility?

a)

Ejaculation/erection issues

b)

High vitamin C intake

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Frequent hand washing

31.

What is one cause of male infertility?

a)

Seminal fluid problems

b)

Excessive hair growth

c)

Improved vision

d)

Increased muscle mass

32.

Which of the following is a diagnostic test for infertility?

a)

Health history and hormone levels

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Vision test

d)

Hearing test

33.

Which of the following is a cultural consideration in preconception counseling?

a)

A) Fertility rites and traditions

b)

B) Blood sugar monitoring

c)

C) Exercise routines

d)

D) Dietary supplements

34.

What are some possible emotional impacts of infertility?

a)

Obsession with conceiving

b)

Relationship tension/blame

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

35.

Which of the following is NOT a referral indicator for emotional impact of infertility?

a)

A) Difficulty focusing on anything other than conceiving

b)

B) Strained couple relationships

c)

C) Signs of depression or emotional distress

d)

D) Improved communication

36.

Fill in the blank: Nursing Role: Assess for emotional strain and refer to ________ or support groups as needed.

a)

mental health professionals

b)

nutritionists

c)

physical therapists

d)

pharmacists

37.

Which of the following is a risk associated with Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)?

a)

Multifetal pregnancies

b)

High cost

c)

Strained couple relationships

d)

Obsession with conceiving

38.

Fill in the blank: Complex family structures in ART can involve up to ___ 'parents' (egg donor, sperm donor, gestational carrier, and intended parents).

a)

5

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

39.

Which of the following is a barrier to ART?

a)

High cost

b)

Often not covered by insurance

c)

Varying success rates

d)

All of the above

40.

What does ZIFT stand for in infertility treatment?

a)

Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer

b)

Zygote Intrauterine Transfer

c)

Zygote Intraovarian Transfer

d)

Zygote Intracervical Transfer

41.

What is the main procedure involved in GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer)?

a)

Sperm and egg injected into fallopian tube via laparoscopy

b)

Embryo implanted into uterus

c)

Sperm injected into uterus

d)

Egg fertilized outside the body

42.

FET stands for ________ in infertility treatment.

a)

Frozen embryo transfer

b)

Fertility enhancement therapy

c)

Follicular egg tracking

d)

Female endocrine test

43.

A gestational carrier is a woman who:

a)

Uses her own egg and sperm from donor/intended parent

b)

Carries embryo from donor eggs/sperm or intended parents

c)

Donates eggs

d)

Donates sperm

44.

A gestational surrogate uses her own egg and sperm from donor/intended parent.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which of the following is included in data collection for infertility management?

a)

Complete health history for both partners

b)

Only male partner's history

c)

Only female partner's history

d)

No health history needed

46.

One lab or diagnostic test used in infertility management data collection is:

a)

Semen analysis

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Liver function test

d)

Chest X-ray

47.

Loss of power related to infertility is a type of ________ in nursing management.

a)

Nursing diagnosis

b)

Medical intervention

c)

Patient education

d)

Therapeutic procedure

48.

Which of the following is a nursing diagnosis related to infertility?

a)

Altered self-concept

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

49.

One treatment intervention for infertility management is:

a)

In vitro fertilization

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Tonsillectomy

d)

Cataract surgery

50.

Using water-soluble lubricants (no spermicides) is recommended as a treatment intervention for infertility.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Avoiding high scrotal temperatures (e.g., saunas) is a recommended intervention for infertility management.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended intervention for infertility management?

a)

Avoid tight underwear

b)

Use water-soluble lubricants

c)

Increase scrotal temperature

d)

Stress management

53.

Medications to stimulate ovulation are part of infertility treatment interventions.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What is the definition of menopause?

a)

6 consecutive months without menstruation due to decreased estrogen production

b)

12 consecutive months without menstruation due to decreased estrogen production

c)

12 consecutive months with regular menstruation

d)

6 consecutive months with regular menstruation

55.

Which of the following is a symptom of menopause?

a)

Vaginal atrophy

b)

Increased estrogen production

c)

Decreased vaginal pH

d)

Frequent menstruation

56.

Fill in the blank: Pruritus means _______.

a)

Itching

b)

Swelling

c)

Bleeding

d)

Numbness

57.

Which of the following statements about herbal products is true?

a)

All herbal products are safe during pregnancy

b)

Herbal products must be reviewed by HCP before trying to conceive

c)

Herbal products increase estrogen production

d)

Herbal products are always recommended during menopause

58.

Menopause and its nursing management can be described as:

a)

The permanent cessation of menstruation and supportive care to manage symptoms.

b)

A temporary hormonal imbalance treated only with surgery.

c)

A condition affecting only men, managed with antibiotics.

d)

A childhood disorder managed with immunization.

59.

Which of the following is associated with increased risk of infection during menopause?

a)

Decreased vaginal pH

b)

Increased vaginal pH

c)

Increased estrogen production

d)

Decreased vaginal atrophy

60.

Fill in the blank: Dyspareunia means _______.

a)

Painful intercourse

b)

Excessive urination

c)

Irregular heartbeat

d)

Loss of appetite

61.

What are the first signs of osteoporosis?

a)

Back pain, loss of height, Dowager’s hump

b)

Headache, fever, rash

c)

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

d)

Chest pain, cough, shortness of breath

62.

Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis due to decreased estrogen?

a)

Smoking

b)

High calcium intake

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Low caffeine consumption

63.

Fill in the blank: Excess alcohol leads to ______ bone growth and calcium absorption.

a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

normal

d)

enhanced

64.

Which medication requires the patient to sit upright for 30 minutes post-dose?

a)

Calcium supplements

b)

Alendronic acid

c)

Bisphosphonates

d)

Vitamin D

65.

Which of the following is NOT a bone-supporting drug mentioned in the notes?

a)

Raloxifene

b)

Calcium & Vitamin D supplements

c)

Bisphosphonates

d)

Ibuprofen

66.

Long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) increases the risk of which cancers?

a)

Ovarian and breast cancer

b)

Lung and colon cancer

c)

Skin and prostate cancer

d)

Brain and liver cancer

67.

Fill in the blank: Inadequate intake of calcium/vitamin D, especially under age ____, is a risk factor for osteoporosis.

a)

30

b)

50

c)

40

d)

25

68.

Which of the following is a risk associated with estrogen-only hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

a)

Stroke

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Endometrial cancer

d)

All of the above

69.

Screenings such as bone density and cancer are essential during HRT.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is a possible effect of vertebral collapse in osteoporosis?

a)

Loss of height and back pain

b)

Increased bone density

c)

Improved posture

d)

None of the above

71.

"Dowager’s hump" refers to the curvature of the upper back due to vertebral collapse.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Fill in the blank: Patients taking bisphosphonates such as Alendronate or Risendronate must sit upright for ___ minutes after taking the medication.

a)

30

b)

5

c)

10

d)

60

73.

What is the purpose of dosing Ibandronate and Zoledronic acid?

a)

To reduce menopausal symptoms

b)

To prevent esophageal irritation

c)

To stimulate bone growth

d)

To reduce bone resorption

74.

Denosumab is a ________ that reduces bone resorption.

a)

Monoclonal antibody

b)

Bisphosphonate

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Selective estrogen receptor modulator

75.

What is a risk associated with Estrogen/HRT?

a)

Reduces menopausal symptoms

b)

Increased cancer risk

c)

Prevents esophageal irritation

d)

Promotes bone formation

76.

Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that helps maintain ________.

a)

bone density

b)

muscle mass

c)

blood pressure

d)

vision

77.

Which medication is a newer agent that promotes bone formation and reduces resorption?

a)

Denosumab

b)

Romosozumab

c)

Teriparatide

d)

Raloxifene

78.

Teriparatide is a ________ analog that stimulates bone growth.

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

79.

What is an increased risk for women post-menopause regarding cardiovascular health?

a)

Decreased risk for coronary heart disease

b)

Increased risk for coronary heart disease due to changes in lipid metabolism and cholesterol

c)

Decreased bone density

d)

Increased risk for dementia

80.

Diet and exercise are key preventive measures for cardiovascular risks post-menopause.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

What are two benefits of Hormone Therapy (HRT)?

a)

Reduces menopausal symptoms and prevents postmenopausal osteoporosis

b)

Increases cancer risk and bone resorption

c)

Stimulates bone growth and increases cholesterol

d)

Reduces dementia risk and increases bone density

82.

Estrogen-only HRT increases the risk of ________ cancer.

a)

endometrial

b)

breast

c)

ovarian

d)

prostate

83.

Combined estrogen-progestin HRT slightly increases the risk of ________ cancer.

a)

breast

b)

lung

c)

colon

d)

thyroid

84.

Estrogen transdermal patch (low dose) may increase the risk of dementia in women over what age?

a)

>65 years

b)

<50 years

c)

55 years

d)

60 years

85.

Bioidentical hormones are ________ identical to natural human hormones.

a)

chemically

b)

physically

c)

structurally

d)

functionally

86.

Which of the following is NOT a source of bioidentical hormones?

a)

Wild yam

b)

Soy

c)

Synthetic chemicals

d)

Plant sources

87.

Bioidentical hormones are regulated and standardized by the FDA.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

List one possible side effect difference between bioidentical and synthetic hormones.

a)

Side effects may differ from synthetic hormones.

b)

Bioidentical hormones are always safer than synthetic hormones.

c)

Synthetic hormones have no side effects.

d)

Bioidentical hormones cause allergic reactions in everyone.

89.

Which therapies are mentioned as complementary and alternative therapies (CAM) for menopause?

a)

Homeopathy, acupuncture, herbal therapies, phytoestrogens, lifestyle changes (diet, yoga, tai chi, exercise, support groups)

b)

Antibiotics, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, insulin therapy

c)

Beta-blockers, statins, antipsychotics, corticosteroids

d)

Dialysis, organ transplantation, gene therapy, bone marrow transplant

90.

Soy isoflavones should be avoided in which condition?

a)

Estrogen-dependent cancers or if on tamoxifen/aromatase inhibitors

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Osteoporosis

91.

Phytoestrogens can be found in which foods?

a)

Tofu, soy milk, roasted soy nuts

b)

Chicken, eggs, cheese

c)

Beef, fish, milk

d)

Apples, bananas, oranges

92.

Before using herbal therapies for menopause, it is recommended to consult with ________.

a)

healthcare providers

b)

friends

c)

pharmacists

d)

family members

93.

Which of the following is a type of Pelvic Relaxation Syndrome where the bladder protrudes into the vaginal wall?

a)

Rectocele

b)

Cystocele

c)

Enterocele

d)

Uterine Prolapse

94.

Which disorder is characterized by constipation and painful defecation?

a)

Cystocele

b)

Rectocele

c)

Uterine prolapse

d)

General

95.

Fill in the blank: Decreased ________ leads to weakening of pelvic support tissues, contributing to Pelvic Relaxation Syndrome.

a)

estrogen

b)

testosterone

c)

insulin

d)

cortisol

96.

Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to Pelvic Relaxation Syndrome?

a)

A) Vaginal childbirth

b)

B) Pelvic surgery

c)

C) Heavy lifting

d)

D) High protein diet

97.

Which diagnostic method is used to check for other pathology in Pelvic Relaxation Syndrome?

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

X-ray

d)

Ultrasound

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