Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

EMT Module 2 Chapters 1-6 Exam

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most authorities agree that the modern-day EMS system evolved after the release of what document?

a)

The American Heart Association Guidelines for Cardiac Resuscitation

b)

The White Paper

c)

The Emergency Medical Services Act of 1973

d)

The Emergency Medical Services: Agenda for the Future

2.

Which one of the following statements about EMS in the United States is true?

a)

The EMS system is controlled and governed by the National Highway Transport and Safety Administration (NHTSA).

b)

Each state has governmental control of its own EMS system, independent of the federal government.

c)

The Federal Department of Health and Human Services establishes curricula for all levels of EMS education.

d)

The federal government oversees all aspects of EMS in the United States.

3.

You have been asked to sit on your service's quality improvement (QI) committee. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that you will be involved in projects that serve to:

a)

examine ways in which the delivery of emergency care can be improved.

b)

identify and reeducate EMTs that routinely do not provide proper care.

c)

recruit and educate EMTs into the profession of the Emergency Medical Services.

d)

communicate with insurance companies for increased reimbursement.

4.

An EMT with your service states that he desires to become a paramedic because he wants to provide advanced care. Under the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, which one of the following will he be able to provide as a paramedic that he cannot provide as an EMT?

a)

Advanced patient assessment

b)

Interfacility transports

c)

Emergency childbirth

d)

Automated blood pressure monitoring

5.

Which one of the following best illustrates the primary purpose of the modern-day EMS system?

a)

Provide a means of transport to and from the hospital

b)

Decrease the incidence of death and/or disability related to injury and illness

c)

Ensure that all members of society have equal access to hospitals

d)

Provide healthcare services to medically underserved areas

6.

You have become licensed as an EMS provider. Which of the following best describes your role in the EMS system regarding medical direction?

a)

Your only interaction with the medical director will occur if you need on-line medical direction.

b)

You are operating as an extension of the medical director, allowed to perform those skills that you are trained and authorized to perform.

c)

You can only perform the skills and procedures that are allowed within your protocols.

d)

You are authorized to perform the levels within your training without any supervision from medical direction.

7.

Which of the five emotional stages of death is the family exhibiting when they offer to pay you to transport even though the patient shows obvious signs of death?

a)

Anger.

b)

Acceptance.

c)

Grief.

d)

Bargaining.

8.

The main goal of applying standard body substance isolation precautions should be to:

a)

Reduce the risk of a wound becoming infected

b)

Keep patients from being contaminated by another patient.

c)

Protect yourself from an exposure risk.

d)

Comply with OSHA guidelines.

9.

While entering an apartment building to help a person complaining of chest pain, you hear shots being fired. You believe someone is shooting a gun during an argument. What should you do first?

a)

Yell that you're with the police department and command the person come out with their hands in the air. Sound confident and repeat the instruction if the shooter does not follow your command.

b)

Begin making extra noise to let everyone know you are in the area and you are with the fire department and EMS response. Clarify you are not the police.

c)

Take cover immediately. Contact the police department by radio for assistance.

d)

See if you can proceed around the area the sounds came from toward your original patient.

10.

Which of the following is your number one priority for safety?

a)

The bystanders.

b)

Yourself.

c)

Your crew.

d)

The patient.

11.

What would be considered an objective patient assessment finding?

a)

Complaint of headache for past 12 hours

b)

Complaint of nausea

c)

Patient rates pain as 10 out of 10

d)

Blood pressure 114/68 mmHg

12.

An EMT is correct when he describes a communicable disease as:

a)

any of a number of diseases that are deadly once contracted.

b)

any of a number of diseases that is caused and spread by a virus.

c)

a disease for which no immunization or treatment exists.

d)

a disease that can be spread from one person to another.

13.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate protective equipment to use in the case of an airborne pathogen?

a)

Gown.

b)

Gloves.

c)

Mask.

d)

Eye protection.

14.

As EMTs are leaving a residence where a patient refuses care, they are approached by a panicked boy who states that some men just shot his friend in a house two doors up the street. Which one of the following is the most appropriate response?

a)

Notify dispatch and proceed to the home to care for the patient.

b)

Gather basic equipment and go to the home to care for the patient.

c)

Contact the police and move the ambulance from the immediate area.

d)

Instruct the boy to carry the patient from the house to the ambulance.

15.

A patient informs you that he was recently diagnosed with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), but has yet to develop AIDS. Which one of the following statements is true?

a)

Until the patient develops AIDS, he is not infectious.

b)

The hepatitis B and C vaccines provide the EMT limited protection from transmission.

c)

Gloves will be enough protection unless body fluids are present.

d)

Family members should not share his hand towels or utensils.

16.

Organisms that cause diseases are correctly called:

a)

toxins.

b)

pathogens.

c)

antigens.

d)

antibodies.

17.

19. The EMT should receive which one of the following immunizations annually?

a)

Influenza vaccine

b)

Hepatitis B vaccine

c)

Tetanus vaccine

d)

Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine

18.

Changes in your lifestyle that may help you manage stress include:

a)

practicing relaxation techniques such as meditation.

b)

concentrating on your job 24 hours a day.

c)

eating a high-protein and fatty diet.

d)

self-medication with over-the-counter medicines.

19.

Which one of the following organisms is classified as multi-drug resistant?

a)

Methicillin/oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

d)

Hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses

20.

Which one of the following is the single best technique that the EMT can use to prevent the spread of infection?

a)

Washing hands

b)

Disinfecting equipment

c)

Wearing gloves

d)

Getting immunizations

21.

A patient with a terminal disease is unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. The family states that the patient has a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order signed by her medical doctor, but they cannot find the current one. All they can find is a previous DNR that expired 3 months ago. The EMT should:

a)

Have the family sign a refusal of care form

b)

Pronounce the patient deceased

c)

Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation

d)

Wait for family to locate the DNR

22.

Which of the following is the most important aspect regarding patient refusals?

a)

Medical control has the right to make patients receive treatment.

b)

It is critical to make sure the patient is fully informed.

c)

Law enforcement has the right to make patients receive treatment.

d)

Allowing a patient to refuse care rarely ever involves a lawsuit.

23.

Which of the following best describes “Scope of Practice”? You are allowed to provide any treatment you are:

a)

Authorized and licensed to do.

b)

Trained to do.

c)

Licensed, authorized, and trained to do.

d)

Licensed and trained to do.

24.

Under the law, to care for a conscious adult who has the capacity to make a rational decision, you must receive which of the following?

a)

Consent from the spouse of the patient.

b)

Consent that is written or witnessed.

c)

The patient's expressed or implied consent.

d)

Prior consent from medical oversight

25.

During orientation, an EMT is told that by the nature of his employment, he is covered by sovereign immunity. Based on this statement, the EMT must:

a)

work for a public EMS agency.

b)

provide services for a volunteer agency.

c)

work for a fire-rescue service.

d)

be immune from claims of negligence.

26.

A patient's spouse, who is a doctor, states that an EMT is negligent because he put his wife on low-concentration oxygen when she should have gotten high concentration. The patient was having chest pain that was later determined to be caused by anxiety. She was released from the emergency department later in the day. Which one of the following statements is true?

a)

Negligence can be proven because the protocol states high-concentration oxygen should be given.

b)

Negligence is a distinct possibility since the patient was transported and treated in the emergency department.

c)

Negligence cannot be proven since the EMT responded to the call and did render care.

d)

The EMT cannot be proven negligent because that patient suffered no harm.

27.

You are by the side of a female patient who has overdosed on a drug. She is conscious but very combative and noncompliant with your requests. Which one of the following statements made by the EMT best suggests assault?

a)

a. "You win. I cannot get your blood pressure and the doctor will yell at me. I will blame it on you."

b)

b. "If you do not let me get your blood pressure, I will take off the oxygen and you will suffocate."

c)

c. "If you throw up in the back of my ambulance, I will use your shirt to clean it up. Just think about that for a minute."

d)

d. "If that is the way you are going to behave, then I am not going to try to get your blood pressure anymore."

28.

Which one of the following best indicates that informed consent has been obtained?

a)

The patient agrees to oxygen therapy after being told it may help decrease his chest pain but may dry his nose, causing discomfort.

b)

The EMT tells the patient that he will need oxygen because he is having chest pain, which could be a sign of a heart attack.

c)

The patient is given oxygen because he is having chest pain and was the one who placed the 911 call for help.

d)

The EMT administers oxygen because the patient is having chest pain and appears short of breath.

29.

The EMT recognizes that the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) limits the EMT's ability to:

a)

obtain refusals on patients who do not have medical insurance.

b)

bill for services provided by the Emergency Medical Services.

c)

exchange medical information regarding the patient.

d)

transport a patient to a hospital of his or her choice.

30.

In the treatment area of the PCR what would not be documented?

a)

How our patient is responding to treatment.

b)

Chronological order of all treatments you administered.

c)

The patient's chief complaint.

d)

The time all treatments were administered.

31.

Which of the following is considered a symptom of a heart attack?

a)

Irregular pulse.

b)

Cyanotic skin.

c)

Vomiting.

d)

Dizziness.

32.

A nauseated patient with abdominal pain and a fever states that he has not vomited. How would you document the fact that he has abdominal pain?

a)

This fact would not be documented.

b)

As a pertinent negative

c)

As a treatment finding

d)

As a subjective finding

33.

The EMT would recognize which of the following as placing the patient at greatest risk for a medical mistake?

a)

Responding to a call in an "unsafe" neighborhood

b)

Driving to an emergency at night

c)

Giving an oral report from one EMT to another

d)

Backing the ambulance into a patient's driveway

34.

Which one of the following patients should benefit most by calling an enhanced 911 system?

a)

Patient with sudden onset of confusion

b)

Patient with chest pain

c)

Patient requiring advanced medical care

d)

Patient who cannot reach his phone

35.

You are preparing to carry a 180-lb. patient who has fallen off a ladder. Describe the best method for moving this patient.

a)

Use 5 people to carry the victim down any stairs.

b)

Keep the patient close to you while lifting.

c)

Make the patient hold onto the stretcher.

d)

Never attempt a power lift type maneuver.

36.

While moving your medical bag you should do all of the following except:

a)

Bend your arms and knees

b)

Avoid reaching over 20 inches

c)

Bend at the waist

d)

Lock your back in position

37.

When carrying on a long spine board, you should consider:

a)

Always carry the device with the patient's head first when going up steps or uphill.

b)

Keep the patient's weight as far away from you to allow for more flexibility around object.

c)

Always use a minimum of two straps.

d)

Always carry the device with the patient's feet first when going up steps or uphill.

38.

An advantage to asking the patient close-ended questions is a(n):

a)

chance to get a significant amount of information.

b)

opportunity to get a detailed response from the patient.

c)

ability to get medical information very quickly.

d)

opportunity for the patient to elaborate about his medical complaint.

39.

Which one of the following is an effective way to improve communication with most patients?

a)

Speak clearly and loudly.

b)

Use medical terminology.

c)

Have the patient look up at you.

d)

Maintain eye contact.

40.

The EMT should perform an urgent move when the:

a)

patient is stable but suffering from pain.

b)

patient exhibits no problems with the airway, breathing, or circulation.

c)

scene contains an immediate threat to the patient and EMT.

d)

patient is suffering from an immediate threat to life.

41.

An intoxicated 72-year-old male with an alcoholic history has fallen and has a laceration on the back of his head. He states that he does not want treatment and becomes combative when you try to talk to or assess him. Your best course of action would be to:

a)

contact medical direction.

b)

transport him by permission of family.

c)

transport him against his will

d)

have him sign a refusal.

42.

A prehospital care report reads: "GSW to torso (LLQ)." Based on this, you should recognize that the patient sustained a(n):

a)

gunshot to the left chest.

b)

gunshot to the lower left quadrant.

c)

bullet injury to the left chest.

d)

injury to the left torso.

43.

Your ambulance was dispatched for a patient complaining of shortness of breath at 1512. You arrived on scene at 1523 and left at 1538. You arrived at the hospital with the patient at 1557 and were back in service at 1622. Which one of the following is true?

a)

Your scene time was 15 minutes.

b)

The time spent at the hospital was 16 minutes and 22 seconds.

c)

The call took place in the morning.

d)

You arrived on the scene at 5:23 p.m.

44.

A patient who was complaining of a headache is being transported to the hospital. After providing a report to the emergency department, the patient begins to seize. The seizure lasts for 1 minute and then stops. At this time, you are 5 minutes from the hospital. After providing care for the seizure, your next action should be to:

a)

call the hospital and inform them of the seizure.

b)

continue care and transport to the hospital.

c)

document the seizure on the prehospital care report.

d)

contact family via cell phone and determine is the patient has a history of seizures.

45.

You are treating a 2-year-old girl who fell off her bike while riding with a parent. She is crying and will not answer any of your questions. Which one of the following would be appropriate to find out where the girl hurts?

a)

Tell the patient she will be okay if she tells you what hurts.

b)

Have the girl's mother ask your questions for you.

c)

Promise the girl a reward like ice cream if she answers the questions.

d)

Use an adult-like voice and tell the girl she needs to answer the questions.

46.

Which one of the following patients who refuse treatment must be transported to the hospital?

a)

16-year-old female who lives in her aunts' house and has a child

b)

29-year-old female who attempted to cut her wrists earlier but now states it was an accident and she is not suicidal

c)

Alert and oriented 57-year-old male who is having chest pain and is diaphoretic

d)

A homeless man in his 50s who is dirty and disheveled and has a body-wide rash

47.

A large female patient has fallen in a parking lot between two cars. She must be moved on the backboard to the waiting stretcher which is located a slight distance away. Four rescuers are present. How would they best be used to promote the safest movement of the patient?

a)

One at the head, two at the feet, and the fourth to act as a spotter during the move

b)

One at the head, one at the feet, and the other two on opposite sides of the backboard

c)

The strongest person at the head, and the other three at the foot end

d)

Two at the head, two at the feet, with all rescuers using their right hand to carry the backboard

48.

After immobilizing an elderly female patient who fell in her bathroom, you prepare to carry her down a flight of stairs on a backboard. Which of the following instructions would be most appropriate to give to your partner?

a)

Make sure to hold the board 6 inches from your body so that you get maximum stabilization.

b)

Let's have the patient hold onto the stair railing to prevent the board from getting off balance.

c)

It is best if we do not talk so that we can concentrate on safely moving her down the stairs.

d)

Why don't I take the head and then we can carry her down the stairs feet first.

49.

You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on low-concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula. Under what section of the prehospital care report (PCR) would you document this information?

a)

Administrative

b)

Treatment

c)

Patient narrative

d)

Patient data

50.

A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has critical injuries and must be immediately removed from the car for lifesaving care and transport to the hospital. Prior to removing the patient from the vehicle, which one of the following must be done?

a)

Completion of the primary and secondary exams

b)

Completion of the primary assessment and vital signs

c)

Application of a cervical-spine immobilization collar

d)

Application of a vest-type immobilization device

51.

A patient with asthma is using his inhaler TID. You would recognize that:

a)

the patient is only prescribed to use his inhaler twice a day.

b)

the patient uses an inhaler three times a day.

c)

the patient uses his inhaler only when the symptoms are bad.

d)

the patient is suffering asthmatic attacks three times a week.

52.

A 20-year-old male has been stabbed in the abdomen. Assessment reveals him to be unresponsive with shallow breathing and a low blood pressure. Which of the following instructions will you provide to your new EMT partner given that the patient has been involved in a crime?

a)

We are not to move the patient to the stretcher until the police are done photographing the scene.

b)

When cutting his shirt off, make sure not to cut through the area where the knife penetrated.

c)

I am not worried about potential evidence. I am just worried about the patient.

d)

Do not worry about documenting the crime scene in your report. The police report will reflect that information.

53.

Which one of the following best describes the appearance of lordosis?

a)

Exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine

b)

Exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine

c)

Lateral curvature of the thoracic spine

d)

Lateral curvature of the cervical spine

54.

Which one of the following items is included in the U.S. Department of Transportation minimum data set?

a)

Address and setting of the call

b)

Insurance and billing information

c)

Vital signs and skin color and condition

d)

Occupation of the patient

55.

You arrive on the scene of a patient who is in need of resuscitation. The family indicates that the patient has a DNR order, but they cannot find it. What should you do while waiting for them to find the document?

a)

Perform CPR and request law enforcement.

b)

Have the family fill out a patient refusal form and leave the scene.

c)

Honor the family's wishes and assist in finding the documentation.

d)

Perform CPR, obtain additional information from the family, and call medical control.

56.

You are called to the scene of an unresponsive 3-year-old. You have assessed the patient and provided treatment. You next explain the situation fully to the parents and ask them if it would be acceptable if you transported the patient to the nearest hospital. You inform them that the hospital does not have a pediatric specialist, but you believe this course of action is in the patient’s best interest. The parents agree to allow you to transport to the nearest hospital. Which type of consent have you requested?

a)

Minor’s consent.

b)

Informed consent.

c)

Implied consent.

d)

Expressed consent.

57.

Which of the following typically issues an EMS licensure?

a)

Your local medical control.

b)

The Federal government.

c)

The National Registry.

d)

Your state.

58.

You are at the scene of a 27-year-old male who is unconscious and EMS was called by his parents. Which of the following type of consent would apply?

a)

Patient proxy consent.

b)

Minor's consent.

c)

Implied consent.

d)

Informed consent.

59.

Which of the following laws deals specifically with maintaining patient confidentiality?

a)

Ryan White Act.

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration Act of 1999.

c)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

d)

Negligence and Standards of Care Act.

60.

You are treating a patient who is complaining of difficulty breathing. The patient weighs 170 pounds and will need to go down several stairs to the ambulance. Which device would work best?

a)

Stair chair.

b)

Orthopedic cot.

c)

Portable stretcher.

d)

Flexible stretcher.

61.

Select the best reason to obtain and record an accurate set of vital signs.

a)

It allows the hospital staff to see changes in patient condition.

b)

It is required by the medical control protocols.

c)

Your service will not be able to bill the insurance company without them.

d)

Medical control reviews these for compliance.

62.

Which device would you use to move a seated, stable patient complaining of neck pain after a motor vehicle collision?

a)

Long spine board.

b)

Basket stretcher.

c)

KED

d)

Portable stretcher.

63.

When lifting or moving any patient, the EMT must remember to primarily use the muscles of his or her:

a)

back.

b)

arms.

c)

legs.

d)

abdomen.

64.

Which of the following is a function of providing the physician or nurse with an oral report when transferring care to the hospital emergency department (ED)?

a)

To summarize patient assessment and treatment information

b)

To provide an opportunity for the ED staff to critique the care provided

c)

To provide input on the additional medical care to be given in the ED

d)

To inform them of whether or not they need to see the patient immediately

65.

Which of the following is not a trait of professional behavior for an EMT?

a)

Empathy

b)

Integrity

c)

Timidity

d)

Good verbal communication skills

66.

As a knowledgeable EMT when asked about viruses you would understand which one of the following is false:

a)

Viruses are smaller than bacteria.

b)

AIDS is a condition caused by a virus

c)

Viruses are capable of reproducing on their own.

d)

Viruses are not resistant to antibiotics.

67.

While driving home from work, as an EMT, you encounter a very bad wreck. Which of the following would be illegal to perform?

a)

Stop at the scene, render care to a victim and turn over care to the first responder that shows up to help.

b)

Pass the scene and make no attempt to call for help.

c)

Stop at the scene, render care to a victim and turn over care to a paramedic.

d)

Pass the scene and call for help.

68.

For negligence to be proven, what must be present?

a)

Harm to the patient, false imprisonment, duty to act

b)

Assault, breach of duty, damage, and then abandonment

c)

Duty to act, breach of duty, battery, foreseeability

d)

Duty to act, breach of duty, injury, proximate cause

69.

Regarding the movement of patients, you are required to do all of the following except:

a)

Pay careful attention to using proper body mechanics.

b)

Utilize appropriate equipment

c)

Plan what you will do first

d)

Assign the highest trained person to be in charge of the move