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WorksheetsI. A400M Lv1 (-1,-2,-3,-4)
Total questions: 152
Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins
In the SHELL model used to study the Human Factors, the 'E' letter stands for:
Energy.
Error.
Enhancement.
Environment.
Within the Data Module Code (DMC), the Standard Numbering System (SNS) enables the technician:
To identify the model of the engine which the information in the Data Module refers to.
To identify the System or Subsystem which the information in the Data Module refers to.
To know the quantity of standard attaching parts used in a maintenance procedure.
To know the number of the page of the Info Set on which the Data Module is written.
What is the purpose of the Air Vehicle Maintenance Information Set (AM IS)?
To provide instructions and data to maintain the aircraft in serviceable condition.
To provide instructions and data to manufacture and assemble aircraft parts.
To provide instructions and restrictions to apply when designing the aircraft.
To provide a detailed schedule of all maintenance operations required by the aircraft.
Right after the title of a procedure Data Module in the Air Vehicle Maintenance (AM) Information Set appears a code used to identify the assembly/component to which the procedure applies. What is this code?
Functional Item Number (FIN)
Part Number (PN)
Model Identification Code (MIC)
Standard Numbering System (SNS)
What kinds of damages are NOT covered by the repair instructions provided by the Air Vehicle Structure Repair (ASR) Information Set?
Damages on the primary aircraft structure.
Damages caused by mercury spillages.
Damages on the secondary aircraft structure.
Allowable damages.
Which of the following information is NOT managed by the Electronic Logbook of the Maintenance Data System (MDS)?
The deferred maintenance actions that limit the operation of the aircraft.
The status of the Certificate or Release to Service (CRS) of the aircraft.
The Flight Plan and the weight of the load carried by the aircraft.
The status of the Servicing Report of the aircraft.
Which of the following devices can NOT interface with the MDS (Maintenance Data System)?
Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal (AMAT).
Third crew member's work station.
Portable Multipurpose Access Terminal (PMAT).
Portable Maintenance Data System (PMDS).
How is the aircraft equipment identified, with regard to its installation, on the A400M?
By means of the Functional Item Number (FIN).
By means of the Part Number (PN).
By means of the Data Module Code (DMC).
By means of the Serial Number (SN).
Which of the following fluids is NOT associated no any significant hazard when operating or maintaining the A400M?
Fuel.
Water.
Skydrol.
Pressurized oxygen.
Which of the following statements Is NOT correct?
The cockpit of the A400M is provided with four lateral sliding windows.
There Is an escape hatch on top of the fuselage in front of the cockpit door.
The cockpit is designed so that the A400M only needs two pilots to be operated.
The galley of the A400M Is located on the upper deck, outside the cockpit.
When talking about annunciator lights in the A400M cockpit, what is known as 'lights out' or 'dark cockpit' philosophy?
The design principle that only enables annunciator lights on pushbuttons located in areas outside the cockpit.
The design principle that makes the annunciator lights of the pushbuttons to be illuminated only in case the
The design principle that makes the pushbuttons to have no annunciator lights on them.
The design principle that makes the annunciator lights of the pushbuttons to be illuminated only in case of failure or abnormal configuration of the corresponding system.
Which of the following tasks is NOT typically included in level 1 maintenance activities?
Towing of the aircraft.
Replenishment of the hydraulic fluid.
Replacement of an engine module.
Upload of operational software.
In the pylon stations system, what is the reference line(= STA O)?
The nose of the spinner.
The nose of the aircraft.
The after end of the engine.
The propeller flange.
Which of the following lifting methods is NOT allowed to recover an A400M after an incident?
Lifting with pneumatic bags.
Lifting with a crane and slings below the rear fuselage.
Lifting with jacks.
Lifting with a crane and slings below the forward fuselage.
Which of the following conditions Is NOT appropriate to weigh the aircraft?
Both hydraulic systems must be fully drained.
Water tanks and toilet system must be drained.
Fuel system tanks must be drained.
Engine oil tanks must be at the nominal level.
What condition of the floor requires the highest weight of the tractor to tow the A400M?
Wet floor.
Dry floor.
Floor covered with ice.
Floor covered with snow.
Which of the following actions is included in the thru-flight parking procedure?
Checking of the brake accumulator pressure every 24 hours and refilling, if necessary.
Installation of the probes protection kit.
Installation of the safety pins in landing gears and RAT (Ram Air Turbine).
Rotation of the propeller 45 Q every week.
If the A400M is parked outside and its stability must be increased, what action is NOT appropriate?
Refueling the aircraft to increase its weight.
Mooring the aircraft.
Adding freight to the cargo hold to increase the aircraft weight.
Setting the elevators to their highest position.
If the wind speed forecast is higher than 65 kts (120 Km/h), how can the A400M be parked outside?
The aircraft must be parked using the mooring kit attached to the NLG (Nose Landing Gear) wheels axle.
The aircraft must be parked using two mooring kits attached to two axles of the MLG (Main Landing Gear)
The aircraft must be parked using the mooring kit attached to the NLG (Nose Landing Gear) wheels axle and the
The aircraft must not be parked outside and must be moved to a hangar.
Where is the connection point of the GPU (Ground Power Unit) of the A400M?
On the left hand of the forward fuselage, ahead of the Crew Entrance Door.
On the right hand of the rear fuselage, after the right Paratroop Door.
On the right hand of the forward fuselage, ahead of the Emergency Exit Door.
On the left hand of the rear fuselage, after the left Paratroop Door.
The main parameter that differentiates active from latent failures is:
The number of people involved in the failure.
The time when the effect of the failure is felt.
The cost of the consequences of the failure.
The shift when the failure is originated: day or night.
In case an information of the Air Vehicle Fault Isolation (AFI) Info Set is needed, where must this information be looked for?
In the CSW (Customer Service Web Portal)
In Google
In Airnav
In the OLB {Operational Library Browser)
In which Information Set can a list of correlated faults be found?
Illustrated Part Data (IPD) Information Set
Air Vehicle Maintenance (AM) Information Set
Air Vehicle Fault Isolation (AFI) Information Set
Air Vehicle Structure Repair (ASR) Information Set
Where must a technician consult if it is possible to deliver for flight the A400M with an Icing Conditions Detector faulty?
In the Master Minimum Operational and Safety Equipment List (MMOSEL).
In the Air vehicle Maintenance (AM) Information Set.
In the Air Vehicle Battle Damage Repair (ABDR) Information Set.
In the Propeller Maintenance Manual.
Which definition best fits the Air Vehicle Battle Damage Repair (ABDR) Information Set?
Assess and repair lightning strike damages.
Assess and repair any structural damages.
Assess and repair corrosion damages.
Assess and repair battle damages.
What types of maintenance activities are managed by the Maintenance Data System (MDS)?
Only Scheduled Maintenance activities.
Only Unscheduled Maintenance activities.
Only Emergency Maintenance activities.
Scheduled and Unscheduled Maintenance activities.
From the MDS (Maintenance Data System) point of view, what is the aircraft configuration?
It is an exhaustive list of all the aircraft items, irrespective of whether they are or are not relevant for the aircraft
It is a list containing all the life-limited items of the aircraft.
It is a detailed breakdown of the aircraft items affected by maintenance and the list of documents with
It is a scheduled list of all the maintenance actions pending to be implemented on the aircraft.
Which of the following configurations CANNOT the A400M be converted into?
Medical Evacuation (MEDEVAC).
Maritime Search and Rescue.
Fuel tanker.
Aerial delivery.
What is the main risk associated to the use of Halon in an enclosed area?
It is flammable and can cause fire or explosions.
It can cause asphyxiation if the area is not well ventilated.
It is highly poisonous and can immediately cause death.
It is carcinogenic and causes cancer if use repeatedly.
Select the right statement regarding the A400M performances:
The Maximum Operating Altitude with normal cabin altitude is 37 000 m.
The Maximum Operating Altitude with increased cabin altitude is 40 000 ft.
The operating range for a ferry flight is 2000 Km.
The Maximum Operating Speed limit is 800 kt.
Which of the following components are made of Carbon Fibre Composite (CFC)?
Wing ribs.
Wing fixed leading edges.
Front and rear wing spars.
Engine attachments.
What document is the basis for an operator to develop its own continuous airworthiness maintenance program?
The AM (Air Vehicle Maintenance Information Set).
The MRBR (Maintenance Review Board Report).
The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List).
The FCOM (Flight Crew Operating Manual).
In order to locate systems, subsystems and components, the A400M is divided into the following divisions:
Four level divisions: major zones, major sub-zones, major zones and zones.
Four level divisions: major zones, major sub-zones, zones and sub-zones.
Three level divisions: major zones, major sub-zones and zones.
Three level divisions: major zones, sub-zones and zones.
If you are to lift the A400M with a crane and slings, you must NOT...
... use a hydraulic crane to lift the aircraft.
... defuel the aircraft.
... use an electric crane to lift the aircraft.
... lift the aircraft if the wind speed is higher than 50 Km/h (27 kt).
Which of the following conditions is NOT appropriate to weight the aircraft?
Oil in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) oil tank must be at its nominal level.
GPU (Ground Power Unit) must be connected to the aircraft.
Oil in the VFG (Variable Frequency Generator) oil tank must be at its nominal level.
THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) must be in neutral position (0°).
Which of the following factors does NOT have any influence on the weight of the tractor required to tow the A400M?
The distance which the aircraft will be towed along.
The weight of the aircraft to be towed.
The number of engines running at idle rate.
The status of the runway: dry, wet or covered on ice.
For how long can the A400M be parked, as a maximum, using a standard parking procedure?
15 days.
24 hours.
24 days.
One week.
What action is NOT required in the thru-flight parking procedure?
Installation of the safety pins in landing gears and RAT (Ram Air Turbine).
Installation of the probes protection kit.
Setting of the parking brake lever to ON position.
Putting wheel chocks in front and behind of at least one landing gear wheel.
If the A400M needs to be moored, what condition is NOT appropriate?
Nose wheel aligned with the aircraft axis.
Aircraft nose pointed to the wind.
Spoilers fully retracted (the lowest position).
Flaps set to their lowest position.
Which of the following is NOT considered a servicing point in the A400M?
The Ground Power Panel.
The refuel/defuel panel.
The oxygen system filling port.
The nozzle of the in-flight refuel probe.
Which of the following structural components are in the Stabilizers?
Frames
Ribs
Bulkheads
Pylons
Which of the following systems is NOT a user of the bleed air supplied by the Pneumatic System?
The Air Conditioning System.
The WAI (Wing Anti-Ice System).
The Hydraulic System Reservoir.
The Water and Waste System.
How is the Bleed Air Leak Detection System configured to achieve a high reliability?
As a single detection loop system with two overheat monitoring computers.
As a dual loop configuration system monitored by two Bleed Control Computers.
As a normal single loop system with dual loop configuration for the most critical areas.
As dual loop configuration system monitored by a single Bleed Control Computer
Which valve is in charge of regulating the cabin pressure and the rate of change?
Overpressure Relief Valve
Bypass Valve
Outflow Valves
Negative Relief Valve
Which of the following is not a subsystem of Ice and Rain Protection System?
Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer Anti-Ice System
Wing Anti-Ice System
Nacelle Anti-Ice System
Probe Protection System
The Propeller De-Icing System electrically heats:
The whole 8 propeller leading edges
The whole 8 propeller trailing edges
The 8 inboard propeller leading edges
The 8 outboard propeller leading edges
Which of the following sources is a portable oxygen device?
The On Board Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS)
The Oxygen Chemical Generators
The Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)
The 4 flight crew oxygen bottles
How can the use of On Board Oxygen Generating System enhance the operational effectiveness of the aircraft?
The On Board Oxygen Generating System can produce an unlimited supply of Oxygen Enriched Air unlike the
The system is 100% clean and can be used on the ground even when pneumatic air is not available.
When it is not being used, the oxygen produced can be used to charge the oxygen cylinders.
The system only works at high altitude.
The fire indications provided on the Loadmaster Workstation are:
ENGINE FIRE
ENGINE FIRE and APU FIRE
APU FIRE
MLG (Main Landing Gear) BAY FIRE
Which of the following statements related to waste system is correct?
The forward waste tank is called urinal waste tank
There are two galley sinks
The forward toilet has two bowls
The aft drain mast is connected to the urinal bowls
How many hydraulic-related external control panels are there?
None, all controls are internal.
One: the Ground Service Panel.
Two: the Ground Service Panel and the Combined Reservoir Filling Panel.
One: the Combined Reservoir Filling Panel.
What is the FCDC (Flight Control Data Concentrators) function?
To Perform the Flight Control Computation Function
To Control and monitor the High Lift System
To Process the Direct Law and Abnormal Law
To Control the transmission of warnings, cautions, System indications and maintenance data
What are the Flight Control Laws making reference to?
Specific flying restrictions based on international airspace regulations.
The relationship between the primary and secondary flight controls.
The relationship between the pilot's input for trajectory control and the aircraft's response.
Specific flying conditions where the aircraft can exceed the flight envelope.
For a manual control of the Tail Horizontal Stabilizer, which of the following controls should be used?
The sidesticks
It can not be manually controlled
The Pitch Trim Control Switch
The rudder pedals
The A400M has a total of...
16 wheels
10 wheels
12 wheels
14 wheels
How many Landing Gear position indicator lights are there on the front panel?
3 lights
4 lights
5 lights
14 lights
Which hydraulic system is used to power the steering system?
Blue
Yellow
Yellow in normal and Blue as back-up
Blue in normal and Yellow as back-up
Which item can NOT be operated from the Loadmaster Control Panel?
The Stabilizer Struts
The Air deflectors
The Ramp Toes
The Cargo Ramp
Which way does the RH emergency exit door open?
Inwards
Outwards
Upwards
Downwards
What are the boundaries of the cargo hold lining?
From the nose fuselage up to the rear cargo doorframe
From the nose fuselage up to the paratrooper doors
From the nose fuselage up to the emergency exit door
From the nose fuselage up to the rear pressure bulkhead
Which of the following is NOT considered an emergency equipment?
Crash axe
Cable cutter
First Aid kit
Armouring kit
Which of the following functions is not within the Fuel Quantity Indicating (FQI) capacities?
Fuel tanks pressure monitoring.
Fuel temperature measurement.
Fuel level measurement.
Fuel density determination.
What should be done in case of a ground fuel leak?
Any fuel leakage must be immediately contained and subsequently cleaned up with chlorine compounds.
Any fuel leakage must be immediately contained and subsequently cleaned up preferably with absorbent
The first action to be performed is to inform to the Authorities.
The first action to be performed is to use the fire extinguishing equipment.
What optional components can be installed in the A400M to increase its capacity to supply in-flight fuel?
Only one CHT (Cargo Hold Tank)
Two under-wing fuel tanks.
Up to two CHT (Cargo Hold Tanks)
A supplementary fuel tank mounted in the CWB (Centre Wing Box).
Which of the following structural components are in the fuselage?
Frames
Spars
Ribs
Pylons
What is the normal pneumatic source in flight?
Auxiliary Power Unit.
The Auxiliary Power Unit and the two inboard engines.
The four engines.
The Auxiliary Power Unit and the two outboard engines.
How is the Cross Bleed Valve (XBV) controlled in the Pneumatic Air Distribution System?
Automatically by both Bleed Control Computers only.
Automatically by the Bleed Control Computer 1 only.
Manually from the AIR panel rotary selector only.
Automatically by both Bleed Control Computers or manually from the AIR panel rotary selector.
What is the function of the Low Pressure Ground Cart?
To provide high pressure air to start the engines
To provide electrical power to start the APU in order to have low pressure conditioned air
To provide conditioned air to the Aircraft when there is no high pressure source available
To simulate pressurized conditioned air during maintenance tests
Which of the following control panels is NOT for Ice and Rain Protection system?
Bleed Control Panel
Wiper rotary switches
Anti-Ice Control Panel
Visual ice indicator
Which of the following leading-edges are heated by engine bleed air?
Numbers 4, 5 and 6 outboard.
Number 3 central, and numbers 4, 5 and 6 outboard.
Numbers 2 and 3 central, and number 4 outboard.
Number 1 and 3 inner, and number 4 outboard.
Regarding to the Oxygen Cylinder assemblies of the A400M, which of the following statements is true?
The cylinders provide a continuous and unlimited supply of 94 % of oxygen
The cylinders store pure oxygen at a maximum pressure of 2850 psi.
Consists of up to four oxygen cylinder assemblies
Consists of up to three oxygen cylinder assemblies
Which of the following Oxygen Distribution Subsystem components is in charge of preventing oxygen from the cylinders from entering the On Board Oxygen Generating System (OBOGS)?
The Pressure Relief Valve
The Engine Shut Off Valve
The Crew Shut Off Valve
The Check Valve at the OBOGS outlet
The smoke detection system can detect smoke in:
Lavatories, cargo areas, avionics compartments and galley
Lavatories and cargo areas only
Lavatories, cargo areas, avionics compartments and cockpit
Lavatories, cargo areas, avionics compartments, galley and engines
Where does the aft water tank module supplies water to?
Galley sink and lavatory washbasins
Lavatory washbasins only
Galley sink, lavatory washbasins and urinal washbasin
Urinal washbasin only
Which hydraulic system will control the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) retraction?
The blue system
The yellow system
Both, blue and yellow system can be used
None, the RAT retraction is a manual operation
How many flaps are there per wing?
0
1
2
4
What could be a good definition of an EHA (Electro Hydrostatic Actuator)?
It could be powered either hydraulically or electrically.
It is very inefficient so is only used for emergency situations.
Its ability to operate effectively with low hydraulic pressure is much worse than that of a servocontrol.
It is used when normal hydraulic pressure is lost as it is totally self-contained being able to generate its own hydraulic flow.
What is the BCM (Back-up Control Module) main function?
To provide extra redundancy in the event of loss of the Flight Control Computers or the normal power supply
To control the Electro Hydrostatic Actuators in case of hydraulic power failure
To control the Flap System in case of High Lift Control Computers failure or the normal power supply
To generate electrical power in case of normal power supply failure
The EBMA (Electro Back-up Mechanical Actuator) that opens the MLG (Main Landing Gear) doors has two different modes of operation, but are normally operated ...
Hydraulically by means of the yellow system.
Electrically by means of the main aircraft electrical system.
Electrically by means of an aircraft autonomous battery.
Electrically by means of the aircraft essential battery.
The NLG (Nose Landing Gear) forward doors ...
Are opened for gear extension and remain open when the gear is locked down.
Are opened for gear extension and remain open when the gear is locked down in the air only.
Are opened for gear extension and close when the gear is locked down.
Are opened for gear extension and remain open when the gear is locked down on the ground only.
The kneeling chamber ...
Is part of the nose landing gear shock absorber assembly.
Is part of all the main landing gear shock absorber assemblies.
Is part of the forward main landing gear shock absorber assemblies only.
Is full of nitrogen in the main landing gear shock absorber.
What is the purpose of the Ramp Toes?
To reinforce the join between the cargo door and the ramp
To provide a bridge for loading and off-loading of cargo when using the cargo door
To provide a bridge for loading and off-loading of cargo when using the ramp.
To reinforce the ramp in the outer extreme.
The DCMU (Doors Control and Monitoring Unit) monitors status signals from a number of sensors located in ...
The front fuselage doors and exits.
The center fuselage doors and exits.
The rear fuselage doors and exits.
The cargo door and ramp.
How should the position of the cargo door and ramp be when using the ramp wedge for aerial delivery?
Ramp and Cargo Door open
Ramp closed and Cargo Door open
Ramp open and Cargo Door closed
Ramp closed and Cargo Door not fully open
Which of the following is NOT a function of the linings of the A400M?
To provide thermal protection against very low or very high temperature.
To provide (EMI) Electromagnetic Interference protection.
To provide protection against the impact of bullets during battle operations.
To decrease the level of noise that is sensed inside the aircraft.
Which of the following is a function of the fuel storage subsystem?
To avoid the creation of water inside the fuel tanks.
To allow the thermal expansion of fuel inside the fuel tanks.
To keep the fuel temperature within acceptable values.
To send the quantity of fuel to the system display.
How is the transfer of fuel inside the tanks during normal flight?
From the center tank to the transfer tanks and from the transfer tanks to the feed tanks.
From the center tank to the feed tanks and from the feed tanks to the transfer tanks.
From the transfer tanks to the center tank and from the center tank to the feed tanks.
From the feed tanks to the transfer tanks and from the transfer tanks to the center tank.
What devices can be used optionally in the A400M to supply fuel in flight to other aircrafts?
A nose-mounted fuel probe.
Two wing pods and a HOU (Hose Drum Unit).
A tail-mounted boom.
A wing pod and two HOU (Hose drum Units).
The ADCN (Avionics Data Communication Network) is made up of:
AFDX (Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet) Switches, AFDX Quad Cables and fibre optic cables.
AFDX (Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet) Switches and fibre optic cables.
AFDX (Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet) Switches, AFDX Quad Cables, IMA (Integrated Modular Avionics)
AFDX (Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet) Switches and AFDX Quad Cables.
The Centralized Data Acquisition Unit (CDAU) pre-processes the data in order to send:
Aircraft parameters to the NSS (Network Server System) and ATC (Air Traffic Control).
Aircraft parameters to the NSS (Network Server System), mission data to the M-MMS (Military Mission
Aircraft parameters to the NSS (Network Server System) and M-MMS (Military Mission Management System),
Aircraft parameters to the INSUs (Integrated Network Server Units) and flight data to the SSFOR (Solid-State flight data Recorder).
Why are the INSUs interfaced with the IA4CS?
To provide secure communications between the NSS and the aircraft systems.
To provide safe communication within the INSUs and with the peripherals.
To grant or deny personnel access to the NSS hosted applications.
Because the INSUs make use of the resources of the IA4CS for network optimization.
The CMS enables:
The BITEs and operational tests of the different systems and sub-systems through the use of the system report
The support and ease of the operator's line maintenance activities during Pre-flight, Turn-around and Post-flight
The uploading, downloading and reporting capabilities in maintenance and mission operational scenarios.
The BITEs and operational tests of the different systems and sub-systems through the use of the system report test and the uploading, downloading and reporting capabilities in maintenance and mission operational
Which of the following statements include systems that are all part of the Indicating and Recording System?
Digital Map Generation System (DMGS), Integrated Surveillance System (ISS), Flight Warning System (FWS),
Video Management System (ViMS), Digital Map Generation System (DMGS), Flight Warning System (FWS).
Control Display System (CDS), Head Up Display System (HUDS), Video Management System (ViMS), Integrated
Integrated Control Panels System (ICPS), Enhanced Vision System (EVS), Control Display System (CDS), Head Up Display System (HUDS)..
The Video Management System (ViMS):
Distributes video signals from external systems to the CDS (Control and Display System), HUDS (Head Up Display System) and LMWS (Load Master Work Station).
Only manages and distributes Air-to-Air Refuelling and Cargo Hold video signals to the CDS (Control and Display
Manages video signals only from external sources like EVS (Enhanced Vision System), DMGS (Digital Map
Manages and distributes internal and external video sources to the CDS (Control and Display System) and LMWS (Load Master Work Station).
What functions does the Power Distribution Maintenance Interface (PDMI) have with regard to the conventional Remote Control Circuit Breakers (RCCBs)?
The PDMI can monitor and control the reset of the conventional RCCBs.
The PDMI can monitor and control the conventional RCCBs.
The PDMI can monitor the conventional RCCBs but not control them.
The PDMI cannot monitor nor control the conventional RCCBs.
When can an inadvertent RAT (Ram Air Turbine) deployment on ground happen?
It may happen if the GADIRUs (GPS Air Data Inertial Reference Units) are left ON after an Emergency Electrical.
It may happen if an erroneous 'in-flight' signal is latched in GADIRS (GPS Air Data Inertial Reference System),
It may happen if an erroneous 'on-ground' signal is latched in GAOIRS (GPS Air Data Inertial Reference System),
It cannot happen, since you have to press the RAT MAN ON manual release pushbutton for the RAT to deploy on ground.
Where is the location of the cargo hold and ramp area lighting controls?
On the cockpit overhead panel
In the right rear side of the Cargo Hold
At the Loadmaster Workstation (LMWS) and Loadmaster Control Panel (LMCP)
On the external lights control panel
Which of the following lights is part of the Cargo Hold and Ramp Area Lights System?
Aerial Delivery Lights
Landing Lights
Loadmaster Workstation (LMWS) integral lights
Avionics compartment lighting
The civil GPS and landing aids are included in which Radio Navigation subsystem?
MultiMode Receiver (MMR)
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
GPS Air Data Inertial Reference System (GADIRS)
What safety considerations need to be taken into account when the weather radar is in operation?
Ensure a minimum safety distance of 60 metres between the antenna and all refuelling operations
Ensure a minimum safety distance of 20 metres between the antenna and all refuelling operations
Ensure a minimum safety distance of 40 metres between the antenna and all refuelling operations
Ensure a minimum safety distance of 10 metres between the antenna and all refuelling operations
What is a function of the Flight Envelope Subsystem?
Characteristic Speeds Computation
Autopilot (AP)
Flight Director (FD)
Autothrust (A/THR)
How many Passenger Address (PA) Amplifiers are used to distribute audio signals?
Three
One
Two
Four
What is the high quality recording time limit for the Cockpit Voice Recorder?
120 minutes
25 hours
30 minutes
48 hours
What is uploaded via PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card International Association) to through the front of the Military Mission Management Computer (MMMC)?
Navigation Database
Digital Map
Crypto Keys
Digital Terrain Database (DTDB)
The Avionics Data Communication Network (ADCN) provides:
Resourceful databases storage.
Shared avionics resources.
Powerful data exchange capability.
Low volume information exchange.
What are the subsystems of the Information Systems?
CDAU (Centralized Data Acquisition Unit), NSS (Network Server System), IA4CS (Identification, Authentication, Accountability, Audit, Access Control System), and Optional ATC (Air Traffic Control) system.
CDAU (Centralized Data Acquisition Unit), NSS (Network Server System), and IA4CS (Identification, Authentication, Accountability, Audit, Access Control System).
CDAU (Centralized Data Acquisition Unit), INSU (Integrated Network Server Unit), IA4CS (Identification, Authentication, Accountability, Audit, Access Control System)
CDAU (Centralized Data Acquisition Unit), INSU (Integrated Network Server Unit), AMAT (Aircraft Multipurpose Access Terminal), PID (Personal Identification Device) readers and RESET buttons
Where can the PMAT (Portable Multipurpose Access Terminal) laptop be connected to the NSS (Network Server System) platform?
Through five network plugs in the aircraft (Cockpit X 2, Load Master Work Station, Load Master Control Panel)
Through four network plugs in the aircraft (Cockpit, Load Master Work Station and Cargo Hold X 2)
Through four network plugs in the aircraft (Cockpit, Load Master Work Station and Avionics Bay X 2)
Through five network plugs in the aircraft (Cockpit X 3, Load Master Work Station, and Cargo Hold)
The LTMS (Life Time Monitoring System) collects information from:
Secondary structure exceedances and hard landings;
Real time sensors measurements from the aircraft structure.
Airframe loads and hard landings.
Airframe loads during climb and descent flight phases.
How many Multi Format Displays (MFD) are there on the A400M?
Eight in total for the basic configuration.
Eight if the 3rd Crew Member position is installed.
Six in total for the basic configuration.
Nine in total if the 3rd Crew Member position is installed.
When can The Head Up Display System (HUDS) be used?
Only during approach phase and Low-Level Flights (LLF).
During all flight phases.
During tactical operations when needed.
For air refuelling operations (as a receiver) and on Low Level Flights (LLF)
The Power Distribution Maintenance Terminals (PDMT):
Are two units and are used when performing maintenance tasks involving the manipulation of the circuit.
Is one unit located behind the CM1 (Crew Member 1) and is used for maintenance tasks involving tests.
Are two units and are used for maintenance for circuit breakers manipulation and systems parameters.
Is one unit in the mezzanine which is used during maintenance for opening and closing circuit breakers.
The Power Distribution Maintenance Interface (PDMI), which is used only on ground, has:
A Power Distribution Maintenance Function (PDMF) and two Power Distribution Maintenance Terminals.
An Electrical Load Management Function (ELMF) and two Power Distribution Maintenance Terminals (PDMTs).
A Circuit Breaker Monitoring Function (CBMF), the Power Distribution Maintenance Function (PDMF) and two.
A Circuit Breaker Monitoring Function (CBMF) and two Power Distribution Maintenance Terminals (PDMTs).
Which of the Service Compartment Lights can be illuminated when NVG (Night Vision Goggles) mode is activated?
Wheel Well Light
Avionics Compartments Light
APU Service Area Light
Fuel Service Area Light
In the event of the loss of the aircraft main electrical power causing the emergency lights to automatically activate, which of the following statements is correct?
The emergency lights are supplied by the Essential Battery.
The emergency lights are supplied by dedicated Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSU).
The emergency lights cannot function without aircraft main electrical power.
The emergency lights each have their own internal battery for illumination.
Within the GPS Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (GADIRU), what is the functional part that computes attitude, heading and aircraft position?
Air Data Reference (ADR)
Inertial Reference (IR)
Military GPS
The GADIRU is not able to compute attitude, heading and aircraft position.
What are the main functions of the Integrated Surveillance Subsystem (ISS)?
Weather Radar (WXR), Civil GPS
Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS), Air Traffic Control (ATC), Weather Radar (WXR)
Weather Radar (WXR), Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS), Traffic Collision Avoidance System
Weather Radar (WXR), Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS); Military GPS
What are the main functions of the Flight Management Subsystem (FMS)?
Navigation and Flight Director (FD)
Flight Director (FD) and Lateral Flight Director (L/FD)
Autopilot (AP) and Autothrust (A/THR)
Navigation and Flight Planning
Which Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) modes require crypto keys for secure military identification?
Modes 4 and 5
Modes 1 and 3
All Modes
Mode S
In the Static Discharging System, what are the names of the two types of static discharger?
Angled and curved type
Trailing edge type and the tip type
Wing type and fuselage type
Fork type and wand type
Where in the cockpit are the Airdrop/AAR Control Panels located?
Overhead panel
One on the pedestal and two on the glareshield
One on each pilot's lateral console
Crewmember 4 (CM4) lateral console
What are the main functions of the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) on the A400M aircraft'?
Controlling the cabin temperature
Supplying hydraulic power to the aircraft systems
Providing electrical power, bleed air for engine start, and air for the Environmental Control System
Controlling the cabin pressure
Up to what altitude is pneumatic supply available from the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)?
Up to 10,000 feet
Up to 20,000 feet
Up to 25,000 feet
Up to 30,000 feet
What component provides the necessary energy to initiate the rotation process in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)?
The electrical starter motor
The ignition unit
The igniters
The load compressor
What type of engine is the TP400 06 Turboprop?
Single-shaft engine
Dual-shaft engine
Three-shaft engine
Quad-shaft engine
What are the two separate electronic units that make up the FADEC?
Electronic Control Unit (ECU) and Fuel Control Unit (FCU)
Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU) and Fuel Control Unit (FCU)
Electronic Control Unit (ECU) and Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit (EPMU)
Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) and Engine Protection Unit (EPU)
What is one of the functions of the engine fuel system besides supplying fuel to the engine?
Cooling the nacelle temperature
Generating electricity for the aircraft
Cooling the engine oil
Regulating the temperature around the engine
How does the Engine Anti-Ice (EAI) system prevent ice formation at the inlet of the Intermediate Pressure Compressor (IPC)?
By using hot air from the High-Pressure Compressor (HPC) stage 3
By controlling the Variable Stator Vane outlet
By utilizing the Nacelle Anti-Ice (NAI) system
By opening the Handling Bleed Valves (HBVs)
What is the role of the turbomachinery oil pump in the oil system?
It cools the oil
It supplies oil to the PGB
It pressurizes the oil and sends it to various components
It de-aerates the oil/air mixture
What is the difference between the FH385 and FH386 propellers?
FH385 propellers are larger than FH386 propellers.
FH386 propellers are interchangeable, while FH385 propellers are not interchangeable.
F.H385 propellers rotate counterclockwise, while FH386 propellers rotate clockwise.
FH386 propellers are made of steel, while FH385 propellers are made of composite.
Besides the blade angle, what additional systems does FADEC control?
The Propeller braking system and the steering system.
The synchronization system and the hydraulic pump.
The synchronization system and the anti-icing system.
The braking system and the transmission system.
What is the primary role of the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) Interface and Architecture subsystem?
Monitors aircraft parameters
Facilitate communication with air traffic control
Manage passenger entertainment systems
Enable interaction between ECU (Electronic Control Unit), EPMU (Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit) and other components
How can maintenance tests be performed on the FADEC system?
By accessing the Engine maintenance menu through the GADIRUS.
By using the FMS (Flight Management System) maintenance menu.
By accessing Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) data via the Centralized Maintenance System (CMS).
By contacting the manufacturer.
How is the engine power controlled?
By the pilot checking max FF (Fuel Flow).
Using the Engine Master Levers.
By adjusting the cabin temperature.
Via throttle levers, power rating pushbuttons, and Flight Management System (FMS) settings.
What do the TRQ and VIB P indications show during the start sequence?
Starting parameters.
Propeller feathering status.
Engine temperature.
Cabin pressure.
What is the primary function of the ignition system?
Engine interface with cabin.
Engine starting and continuous ignition.
In-flight engine monitoring.
Autopilot control.
What provides the necessary torque to drive the High Pressure (HP) rotor to a minimum self-sustained speed during engine starting?
Fuel flow meter
Ignition system
Air Turbine Starter (ATS)
Engine Master Lever
Where is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) located in the aircraft?
In the front fuselage
On the right-hand wing-fuselage
In the landing gear sponson
On the aircraft tail
What function does the Air Inlet Plenum serve in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)?
Providing ambient air to the power section and load compressor
Controlling the APU's on/off switch
Supplying fuel to the APU engine
Regulating the cabin temperature of the aircraft
What is the purpose of the Electronic Control Box (ECB) in relation to the APU?
Controlling the cabin temperature of the aircraft
Monitoring and controlling various APU functions
Supplying fuel to the APU engine
Controlling aircraft pressurisation
What is the max thrust power of the TP400 06 Turboprop engine?
7,890 SHP
10,690 SHP
12,460 SHP
13,500 SHP
Where are the engine parameters displayed in the cockpit?
On both the Engine Warning Display (EWD) and the System Display (SD)
On the System Display (SD) only
On the Engine Warning Display (EWD) only
On the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) Control Panel
What drives the main fuel pump of the engine?
The low-pressure compressor
Fuel flow meter unit
Accessory Gear Box (AGB)
Propeller Gear Box (PGB)
How is the compressor airflow control achieved in the engine air system?
Through the NAI system
Using the Variable Frequency Generator (YFG)
By Handling Bleed Valves (HBVs) and Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs)
Through Heat Management subsystem
How is the cooling airflow through the Air cooled Oil Cooler (ACOC) increased?
By using a fuel injection system
By modulating a flap and using an ejector valve
By opening the Inertial Particle Separator Flap (IPS)
By increasing the oil temperature
What is the main function of the propeller system?
Convert engine shaft horsepower into usable thrust.
Change the engine oil temperature.
Convert electrical energy into thrust.
Control the maximum speed of the aircraft.
What is the function of the autofeathering system in the propeller?
Adjust the phase of the propeller blades.
Control the aircraft's direction during take-off.
Automatically change the angle of the propeller blades in case of engine failure.
Enhance stability during flight.
What does the EPMU (Engine Protection and Monitoring Unit) manage regarding electrical power?
Lighting in the passenger cabin.
Air conditioning in the cockpit.
Power plant parameter data.
Airframe electrical power supply to FADEC-related components.
How is the ECU powered?
By solar panels
By aircraft 28 VDC and 115 VAC buses
By wind turbines
It generates always its own power
Which ECU control mode is used for ground operation only?
Beta mode.
Forward speed mode.
Manual power mode.
Autopower mode.
Where are the main engine and propeller parameters displayed?
On the Flight Control and Guidance System (FCGS).
On the AMAT CMS page.
On the Engine Warning Display (EWD) and System Display (SD)
In the cabin's overhead panel.
When can continuous ignition be connected?
Automatically to reduce engine noise at high power settings.
Manually to improve cabin comfort.
Automatically to increase take-off power.
Manually to prevent a flameout.
From where can the air to operate the ATS be sourced?
From the aircraft packs
Only from the APU
From the aircraft outflow valves
Either the APU, ground air supply source, or another running engine
