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Worksheetsเย้ย
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which stroke piston going down?
a)
Intake stroke
b)
Compression stroke
c)
Exhaust stroke
d)
Power
2.
What connect piston and crankshaft ?
a)
Cylinder sleeve
b)
Connecting rod
c)
Piston ring
d)
Crank pin
3.
Which is not valve head configuration
a)
J-head
b)
I-head
c)
L-head
d)
T-head
4.
During which stroke of a four-stroke engine is the exhaust valve open?
a)
Intake
b)
Compression
c)
Power
d)
Exhaust
5.
During which stroke of a four-stroke engine is both valve closed and piston move from TDC to BDC?
a)
Intake
b)
Compression
c)
Power
d)
Exhaust
6.
During which stroke of a four-stroke engine is both valve closed and piston move from BDC to TDC?
a)
Intake
b)
Compression
c)
Power
d)
Exhaust
7.
What is the correct Firing order of 4 cylinder inline
a)
1-2-4-3
b)
3-2-1-4
c)
2-1-3-4
d)
4-3-2-1
8.
What is the correct Firing order of 6 cylinder inline
a)
4-3-2-1-5-6
b)
2-1-3-4-6-5
c)
3-2-1-4-5-6
d)
1-5-3-6-2-4
9.
What is the correct Firing order of 4 cylinder opposed engine
a)
4-3-2-1
b)
2-1-3-4
c)
4-2-3-1
d)
1-3-2-4
10.
What is the correct Firing order of Textron-Lycoming 6 cylinder opposed engine
a)
3-2-1-4-5-6
b)
1-4-5-2-3-6
c)
2-1-3-4-6-5
d)
4-3-2-1-5-6
11.
What is the correct Firing order of Continental motors 6 cylinder opposed engine
a)
2-1-3-4-6-5
b)
3-2-1-4-5-6
c)
1-6-3-2-5-4
d)
4-3-2-1-5-6
12.
What is the correct Firing order of 9 cylinder single row radial engine
a)
1-3-5-7-9-2-4-6-8
b)
3-2-1-4-5-6-7-8-9
c)
2-1-3-4-6-5-8-7-9
d)
4-3-2-1-5-6-7-9-8
13.
What is the purpose of a Test Club Propeller (TCP) in engine testing?
a)
For actual flight to increase aircraft lift
b)
To provide load and cooling airflow during engine test runs
c)
To measure fuel pressure entering the carburetor
d)
To reduce engine friction during idling
14.
Who defined “Horsepower” and established the standard of 1 hp = 550 ft.lb/sec?
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
James Watt
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Nikola Tesla
15.
What is Indicated Horsepower (IHP)?
a)
The actual power delivered to the propeller after friction losses
b)
The horsepower calculated from the indicated mean effective pressure in the cylinder, without reference to friction losses
c)
The horsepower lost to auxiliary devices such as fuel and oil pumps
d)
The horsepower measured directly at the crankshaft
16.
What is Brake Horsepower (bhp)?
a)
The theoretical power of an engine without considering friction losses
b)
The power lost in overcoming mechanical friction inside the engine
c)
The actual horsepower delivered to the propeller for useful work after subtracting friction losses
d)
The power required to start the engine
17.
The ignition system has 4 main parts. Which one is not included?
a)
The distributor
b)
The spark plug
c)
The ignition harness
d)
The detonator
18.
What are the advantages of the Rich Mixture?
a)
Better fuel cooling action
b)
More power loss
c)
Safeguard against engine damage
d)
A and C are correct
19.
What is the primary function of the connecting rod in a piston engine?
a)
To open and close the intake valves
b)
To carry the forces from the piston to the crankshaft
c)
To act as the combustion chamber
d)
To reduce friction between crankshaft and bearings
20.
In a standard in-line engine, the number of cylinders is generally limited to how many, to ensure
a)
4
b)
6
c)
8
d)
12
21.
Which of the following statements about the crankshaft in piston engines is correct?
a)
The crankshaft converts reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion to drive the propeller.
b)
The crankshaft only rotates the camshaft and does not transmit piston forces.
c)
The crankshaft supports the piston directly without the connecting rod.
d)
The crankshaft is only used in radial engines and not in in-line or opposed engines.
22.
Why is the cylinder head of an air-cooled piston engine usually made of aluminium alloy?
a)
To provide maximum strength
b)
To withstand high combustion pressure
c)
To conduct heat efficiently and reduce weight
d)
To ease the assembly with the cylinder barrel
23.
How are the cylinders of a single-row radial engine numbered?
a)
Starting at the bottom left, counter-clockwise
b)
Starting at the top, clockwise
c)
Starting at the bottom right, clockwise
d)
Starting at the top, counter-clockwise
24.
Why do valve need two helical coil spring to operate?
a)
To damp out all the spring surge vibration during engine operation
b)
To reduce the possibility of failure by breakage from heat and metal fatique
c)
Two better than one
d)
Both A and B are correct
25.
What is the advantages of sleeve valve?
a)
It have high volumetric efficiency
b)
Low oil consumption
c)
Unlimited speed operation
d)
Low carbon built-up
26.
What is the angle of exhaust valve seat and face?
a)
30° or 45°
b)
45° or 60°
c)
45° or 90°
d)
60° or 90°
27.
Why valve that have liquid sodium in the stem should not be cut open?
a)
It may contaminate other component
b)
The part may be loose in the engine
c)
It could cause an explosion
d)
It shouldn't be cut open
28.
Which of this poppet valve types are wrong?
a)
Philip type
b)
Tulip type
c)
Semi-tulip type
d)
Mushroom type
29.
What cause valve sticking?
a)
Low cylinder temperature
b)
Dirty oil
c)
Built-up carbon dioxide
d)
Clean air filter
30.
Which of the following is *NOT* one of the four principal requirements for an aircraft piston cylinder
a)
Lightweight construction to reduce engine mass
b)
Ability to withstand internal pressure and high temperature
c)
Complex manufacturing process for higher precision
d)
Good heat-conducting properties for efficient cooling
31.
Nitriding of a cylinder barrel typically hardens the surface to a depth of about:
a)
0.002 inch
b)
0.020 inch
c)
0.200 inch
d)
2.000 inch
32.
In modern aircraft engines, the *threaded-joint method* is used to join the cylinder barrel to the
a)
It requires no heating or cooling during installation.
b)
It allows for frequent disassembly without thread damage.
c)
The interference fit prevents loosening under high temperature operation.
d)
It provides weaker sealing but easier maintenance.
33.
Where is a double throw crankshaft arrangement typically found?
a)
In a single row radial engine
b)
In an in-line six-cylinder engine
c)
In a two-row radial engine, one throw for each row of cylinders
d)
In a single-cylinder in-line engine
34.
What is the main purpose of a dynamic damper fitted to a crankshaft?
a)
To increase the crankshaft’s overall strength
b)
To absorb and balance out vibration forces from power impulses
c)
To provide additional lubrication to journals
d)
To attach the propeller to the crankshaft
35.
Which method is used to reduce vibration in single-throw crankshafts for radial engines?
a)
Adding lubricating grooves
b)
Increasing the thickness of the journals
c)
Using counterweights or dynamic balancing
d)
Using hollow crank pins
36.
What is the main function of crankshaft journals?
a)
To reduce engine noise during operation
b)
To support the crankshaft within the main bearings
c)
To attach connecting rods to the crankshaft
d)
To balance vibrations during rotation
37.
What is the purpose of carburetor ?
a)
Measure the amount of air entering the engine.
b)
Maintain a constant proportion of fuel and air.
c)
Meter into this air the correct amount of atomised liquid gasoline.
d)
All above
38.
Which is not a flow of air through a venturi ?
a)
Side draft
b)
Up draft
c)
Down draft
d)
Diagonal draft
39.
What is the chief disadvantage of the float-type carburetor?
a)
Its response to abrupt manoeuvres
b)
Incomplete vaporisation due to low fuel pressure
c)
Its icing tendency
d)
Difficulty in use with supercharged systems
40.
Why is a separate idling system necessary in a carburetor?
a)
Because the throttle valve cannot control airflow at idle
b)
Because the main discharge nozzle cannot supply fuel when the throttle is closed
c)
Because the float chamber is empty at low RPM
d)
Because the Venturi does not create any airflow at idle
41.
Which of the following statements best explains why evaporation ice is considered the most serious
a)
Because it forms only at freezing point and can block the intake lip quickly
b)
Because it can form at relatively warm temperatures due to combined Venturi and vaporisation cooling effects
c)
Because it only affects turbocharged engines and cannot be removed by carburetor heat
d)
Because it is limited to conditions of snow, sleet, or sub-zero clouds and rarely occurs otherwise
42.
What is the primary reason engine power decreases when carburetor heat is applied?
a)
Warm air has lower density, reducing the mass of air available for combustion
b)
The exhaust manifold absorbs some of the combustion gases
c)
The carburetor flap partially closes, restricting airflow
d)
The fuel-to-air ratio automatically corrects itself, reducing efficiency
43.
How is the air metering force created in the throttle body?
a)
By the action of the throttle stop
b)
By the pressure differential between chamber A and chamber B
c)
By the movement of the idle valve
d)
By the flow of unmetered fuel through the regulator
44.
What is the function of Chamber C in the regulator?
a)
Holds pump delivery pressure
b)
Contains metered fuel pressure
c)
Contains unmetered fuel pressure
d)
Holds impact air pressure
45.
At idle, how does the flow divider distribute fuel?
a)
Fuel pressure is negligible, so no fuel reaches the nozzles
b)
The valve is fully open, allowing unrestricted flow
c)
The valve opens slightly, exposing the V-slot for equal distribution
d)
The flow divider bypasses fuel directly to the fuel pump
46.
What is the purpose of the enrichment jet installed in parallel with the main metering jet?
a)
To improve idle smoothness
b)
To reduce fuel consumption
c)
To increase fuel/air mixture strength for engine cooling at high power
d)
To balance fuel flow among cylinders
47.
What is one of the unique features of the fuel injector pump assembly?
a)
It bypasses fuel directly to the cylinders at idle
b)
It removes vapours from fuel and vents them back to the fuel tank
c)
It eliminates the need for a fuel control unit
d)
It prevents air metering force from fluctuating
48.
What is the main advantage of the extremely high pressure in a common-rail system?
a)
It reduces the need for a fuel pump
b)
It assures better vaporisation and cleaner combustion
c)
It allows the engine to run without injectors
d)
It eliminates the need for FADEC
49.
What does FADEC stand for?
a)
Full Authority Digital Electronic control.
b)
Full Automatic Dual Engine Controller.
c)
Finalized Analog Engine Control.
d)
Fundamental Authority Digital Electronic Computer.
50.
What to do if both sensors malfunction in dually redundant?
a)
Use power source.
b)
Use synthetic software default values.
c)
Is switch to using a sensor from a non-redundant system.
d)
All of above.
51.
What does the FADEC control?
a)
Fuel supply only
b)
Ignition only
c)
Both fuel mixture and ignition
d)
Cockpit electrical systems
52.
What is the difference between an EEC and FADEC?
a)
EEC has no backup capability
b)
FADEC allows manual override, but EEC does not
c)
Neither allows manual override
d)
EEC allows manual override, but FADEC does not
53.
Which of the following is listed as an advantage of FADEC?
a)
Increases engine weight
b)
Operates without any electrical power
c)
Provides better fuel efficiency
d)
Requires constant pilot mixture adjustment
54.
If the aircraft’s primary electrical system fails, how long can the FADEC battery supply the EEC?
a)
It cannot operate at all
b)
Approximately 2 hours
c)
Until fuel runs out
d)
Only when alternator is running
55.
Which type of magneto is the most widely used today?
a)
Rotating armature type
b)
Rotating magnet type
c)
Stationary magnet type
d)
Dual-magnet type
56.
What happens when the ignition switch is set to the “BOTH” position?
a)
Only one magneto supplies current, and only one spark plug fires in each cylinder.
b)
Both magnetos supply current, but only one spark plug fires in each cylinder.
c)
Both magnetos supply current, and both spark plugs fire in each cylinder.
d)
The ignition system is completely off, and no spark plugs fire.
57.
What do dry, fluffy black deposits on a spark plug usually indicate?
a)
Correct fuel/air mixture at cruise power
b)
Carbon fouling caused by a rich fuel/air mixture
c)
Proper spark plug heat range
d)
Normal combustion deposits
58.
What material is used for the armature core in the high-tension booster coil?
a)
Copper
b)
Aluminum
c)
Soft iron
d)
Stainless steel
59.
Where does the low-tension booster coil get its current from?
a)
Spark plug
b)
Aircraft system
c)
Magneto only
d)
Battery charger
60.
When the pilot operated mag switch is off the primary circuit is.
a)
Full
b)
Opened
c)
Closed
d)
Ground
61.
What is function of capacitor in low tension circuit
a)
Slow down current
b)
Stop voltage
c)
Aids the rapid collapse of the primary’s circuit field
d)
All above
62.
What are 2 types of magneto rotating components
a)
Rotating armature, Rotating magnet
b)
Rotating Field , Rotating magneto
c)
Rotating magneto, Rotating armature
d)
None above
63.
What is the relationship of speed of the distributors and crankshaft speed in the reciprocating engine
a)
The distributor turns at one fourth of crankshaft speed
b)
The distributor turns at one half of crankshaft speed
c)
The distributor turns at one and one fourth of crankshaft speed
d)
The crankshaft turns two times of distributor
64.
When ground checking is being performed the engine’s rpm is
a)
Same
b)
Slightly increase
c)
Slightly drop
d)
Not change
65.
Which of the following actions is NOT recommended during spark plug installation according to the
a)
Apply anti-seize compound (e.g., graphite grease) lightly to body threads, avoiding electrodes and washer face.
b)
Use an open-ended spanner for plug fitting to prevent cracking of the insulator.
c)
Ensure the correct type and serviceable sealing washer is fitted before installation.
d)
Confirm that the cylinder head thread is clean before fitting the spark plug.
66.
Why is an automatic timing adjuster used in an engine ignition system?
a)
To automatically maintain the correct air-fuel ratio.
b)
To adjust ignition timing according to engine speed using centrifugal force.
c)
To keep the manifold pressure constant during high-power operation.
d)
To prevent spring and cam wear in the ignition system.
67.
What is the primary function of an air filter installed in an induction system?
a)
Increases the pressure of air entering the engine.
b)
Prevents ice buildup in the air ducts.
c)
Filters out dust and dirt before entering the system.
d)
Cools the air to increase air density.
68.
Which one is advantage of the NACA intake?
a)
It directly increases air pressure into the engine.
b)
It is mounted off the fuselage to reduce the boundary layer.
c)
It is flush with the aircraft's surface to reduce drag.
d)
It is used only in high-speed aircraft.
69.
Why is an induction leak a serious problem in an engine's induction manifold?
a)
It increases system pressure, causing detonation.
b)
It alters the fuel/air mixture and affects CHT temperature.
c)
It causes the fuel system to deliver less fuel than required.
d)
It disrupts oil sump lubrication.
70.
In a liquid-cooled engine, which component controls the flow of coolant through the radiator in order
a)
Water pump
b)
Header tank
c)
Radiator shutters
d)
Thermostat
71.
What was the main benefit of the NACA cowling ?
a)
It completely eliminated the need for cowl flaps.
b)
It reduced aerodynamic drag while also improving engine cooling.
c)
It increased backpressure to improve exhaust performance.
d)
It allowed radial engines to operate without airflow from the propeller.
72.
Why does the exhaust system of an piston engine using a heater muff arrangement require special
a)
To prevent excessive expansion and rupture of the exhaust pipe.
b)
To prevent excessive heat buildup in the exhaust pipe.
c)
To prevent carbon monoxide leakage into the cockpit.
d)
To ensure even circulation of hot air.
73.
What is one main advantage of superchargers compared to turbochargers?
a)
They use waste air from exhaust gases.
b)
They run at cooler temperatures and have no lag.
c)
They are more fuel-efficient than turbos.
d)
They are lighter and cheaper to install than turbos.
74.
Why does a supercharged engine require significant engine power to operate, and why is it still
a)
Because it consumes extra fuel but provides no increase in power.
b)
Because although it uses engine power, the increase in air and fuel leads to higher overall power output.
c)
Because it reduces manifold pressure, resulting in lower efficiency.
d)
Because it operates only at high altitudes where turbos are ineffective.
75.
Why can a significant rise in air temperature be harmful in a supercharged engine?
a)
It decreases air density and increases the chance of detonation.
b)
It increases air density, making the mixture too rich.
c)
It cools the air, reducing combustion efficiency.
d)
It prevents fuel from atomizing properly, causing incomplete vaporization
76.
The two double-lobed impellers rotate in opposite directions and increase the flow of air into the
a)
The centrifugal supercharger
b)
The Roots supercharger
c)
The vane supercharger
d)
The axial flow supercharger
77.
It consists of a driven inner member with several wedgeshaped fingers extending from it.
a)
Variable datum control
b)
Spring drive
c)
The centrifugal friction clutch
d)
Hydraulic torque converter
78.
Why do turbocharging engines often have intercoolers?
a)
To reduce the velocity of the exhaust gases passing through the turbine.
b)
To increase the density of the compressed air.
c)
To reduce friction in the intake system.
d)
To improve lubrication of the turbocharger bearings.
79.
What is the most important property of lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine?
a)
Its color
b)
Its viscosity
c)
Its smell
d)
Its weight
80.
What is the primary function of ashless dispersant additives in lubricating oils?
a)
To increase the oil's viscosity.
b)
To dissolve and keep harmful metallic ash particles in suspension.
c)
To prevent the oil from freezing at low temperatures.
d)
To make the oil more effective in extreme pressure conditions.
81.
What is the property of a high-viscosity lubricating oil?
a)
Flows very easily like water
b)
Difficult to pour and runs slowly
c)
Has no effect on lubrication
d)
Becomes thinner at cold temperatures
82.
What is the recommended oil for most aero diesel engines?
a)
SAE 30 single-grade oil
b)
10W-40 multigrade synthetic oil
c)
Avgas mixed oil
d)
Automotive gasoline engine oil
83.
What is the color of Avgas 100LL (Low Lead)?
a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Purple
d)
Red
84.
What is the main risk of using Mogas with bio-alcohol?
a)
Increases engine power
b)
Improves lubrication
c)
Reduces exhaust gas temperature
d)
Freezes water and causes corrosion
85.
The purpose of lubicating oil in piston engine is
a)
Reduce friction
b)
Provide cooling
c)
Cleanliness
d)
All of above
86.
What supply oil under pressure to engine?
a)
Oil pump
b)
Oil filter
c)
Oil cooler
d)
None of above
87.
What are the two types of oil filters used in aircraft engines, and what materials are they made from?
a)
Fine filter – made of paper element Coarse filter – made of wire mesh element
b)
Fine filter – made of wire mesh element Coarse filter – made of paper element
c)
Both fine and coarse filters are made of the same material, stainless steel alloy
d)
Fine filter – made of cotton gauze Coarse filter – made of foam element
88.
What is the function of the pressure relief valve in the lubrication system?
a)
To maintain oil pressure within specified limits
b)
To increase oil consumption during cruise
c)
To reduce oil temperature at high altitude
d)
To filter out contaminants from the oil
89.
Which factor does NOT affect how much oil an aircraft engine uses?
a)
The type of oil used
b)
Number of cylinders
c)
Engine paint color
d)
Operating temperature of the engine
90.
What materials are oil filter elements usually made of?
a)
Stainless steel only
b)
Porous paper or wire gauze
c)
Titanium mesh
d)
Cotton fabric
91.
Which one is the primary instrument
a)
Exhaust gas temperature
b)
Cylinder head temperature
c)
Engine speed revs per minute
d)
Oil filler cap temperature
92.
Which Hobb meter method is used for commercial operators
a)
When the electric system is on
b)
When oil pressure is running
c)
Sensing vane under a wing or pressure switch attaches at landing gear
d)
When the magnetos are turned off
93.
Which type of drive coupling use with tachometer generator
a)
Flexible, Splined, Two-pin
b)
Rigid, Splined, Gear
c)
Chain, Pulley, Belt
d)
Magnetic clutch with spring tension
94.
Which method uses a bulb with volatile liquid and a Bourdon tube to measure temperature?
a)
Non-electrical temperature measurement
b)
Bimetallic strip
c)
Gas expansion
d)
Thermocouple junction method
95.
In a DC ratiometer temperature-sensing system, what happens if the sensor circuit is open?
a)
The readout is unaffected by supply voltage
b)
The instrument goes to full-scale deflection
c)
The instrument goes to a minimum
d)
The needle fluctuates randomly without settling
96.
Why is carburettor heat applied during engine operation?
a)
To enrich the mixture for more power
b)
To prevent or remove ice formation in the carburettor
c)
To cool the intake air for better combustion
d)
To reduce back pressure in the exhaust system
97.
What does the abbreviation CHT stand for?
a)
Cylinder Head Temperature
b)
Compressor High Thrust
c)
Cooling Heat Transfer
d)
Cabin Humidity Test
98.
What principle does the thermocouple connected to the indicator use?
a)
Resistance change
b)
Electromotive force (EMF) from heat difference
c)
Magnetic induction
d)
Optical reflection
99.
What is the minimum allowable fuel pressure during flight?
a)
1 psi
b)
3 psi
c)
5 psi
d)
10 psi
100.
What do absolute pressure instruments measure?
a)
Difference between two pressures
b)
Pressure relative to atmospheric pressure
c)
Pressure from zero or vacuum reference
d)
Dynamic pressure only
101.
What is the formula for calculating fuel used?
a)
Fuel flow × distance = fuel used
b)
Fuel flow × time = fuel used
c)
Fuel pressure ÷ time = fuel used
d)
Fuel density × RPM = fuel used
102.
What is the principle of an ultrasonic fuel flow sensor?
a)
Electromagnetic induction
b)
Pulse of ultrasound measuring time difference
c)
Resistance change due to temperature
d)
Optical beam interruption
103.
When the aircraft is airborne, what additional stress acts on the engine mount?
a)
Torsional stress
b)
Exhaust pressure
c)
Fuel flow pressure
d)
Cowling aerodynamic force
104.
What happens to a rod under tension loads?
a)
It tends to decrease a bend
b)
It tends to increase a bend
c)
It expands in diameter
d)
It loses elasticity
105.
Ball-bearing control cables are a type of:
a)
Hydraulic line
b)
Push-pull cable
c)
Electrical conductor
d)
Teleflex rod
106.
In a helicopter, the engine must be connected to the powertrain through which device so that the
a)
Governor
b)
Carburetor heat control
c)
Pilot- operated clutch
d)
twist - grip throttle
107.
Before lifting the engine from the mount, what must be done for safety?
a)
Let the fuel run out.
b)
Always remove the governor.
c)
Use manual power to lift the engine instead of a hoist.
d)
Check that the sling is in good condition and can support the weight.
108.
What is the primary function of carburetor heat control?
a)
Uses heat from the exhaust system to prevent icing of the manifold
b)
Increases air pressure into the carburetor.
c)
Vaporizes fuel more quickly in the fuel tank.
d)
Reduces vibrations caused by the propeller.
109.
When is the Magneto Check performed during ground run?
a)
Before engine start
b)
At idle only
c)
During run-up
d)
After engine shutdown
110.
What is true about Piston repairs ?
a)
Not required as often as cylinder repairs most of the wear is between the piston ring and cylinder
b)
Remove more than on the piston skirt.
c)
Piston weigh cannot be decreased easily.
d)
Piston can reduced below the specifics minimum.
111.
What is component that commonly cause engine failure
a)
Bearing, connecting rod
b)
Crank case
c)
Cam shaft
d)
Fuel injector nozzle
112.
What is benefits of low power cruise
a)
Low speed
b)
Extended ranges
c)
Good for climb and take off
d)
Increased engine wear
113.
What to avoid during engine shutdown
a)
Over boost
b)
Thermal shock
c)
Over speed
d)
Fuel starvation
114.
The purpose of refacing valve seat?
a)
Improve oil circulation
b)
Faster ignition
c)
Reduce fuel consumption
d)
Tight and proper seal
115.
How often to do valve reconditioning
a)
Every 3 years
b)
Every 2 years
c)
Every overhaul
d)
Every 500 flight hours
116.
When to do a propeller check during ground run-up?
a)
Before, after
b)
During
c)
Before, after , and during
d)
Only after engine shutdown
117.
What causes backfiring?
a)
Insufficient ignition timing
b)
Properly adjusted fuel mixture.
c)
Fuel burns too slowly
d)
More fuel than required that explodes in the intake manifold
118.
What causes after firing?
a)
Too rich mixture
b)
Too lean mixture
c)
Fast burning fuel
d)
Incorrect valve timing
119.
When preserving an aircraft engine for more than four weeks but less than one year, which of the
a)
Inject about 6 cm³ of preservative oil into each cylinder through the spark plug holes
b)
Drain the fuel from tanks, lines, and carburetor float chambers
c)
Leave all engine openings (exhaust, intake, vent) uncovered to allow ventilation
d)
Spray external steel parts with engine oil to protect against corrosion
120.
What is the normal procedure for engine preservation
a)
Engine is robust, preservation is not necessary
b)
Drain regular lubricant and fill with corrosion preventive oil before preservation
c)
Regularly move propeller and crankshaft
d)
Store engine without any special treatment
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