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BIOL 1010 — Exam 1 Practice Quiz (Study Guide → Multiple Choice)

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What best defines the 'environment' in environmental science?

a)

The complex of natural, social and cultural conditions

b)

Only the natural physical surroundings

c)

Just the biological organisms in an area

d)

Only human-built structures

2.

Environmental Science is primarily:

a)

An interdisciplinary, mission-oriented study of environment and our interactions

b)

A branch of social studies only

c)

Strictly field ecology

d)

A purely theoretical discipline

3.

Is Environmental Science the same as ecology?

a)

No — ecology is a component but environmental science is broader

b)

Yes — they are synonyms

c)

Only when studying ecosystems

d)

Only in historical contexts

4.

Which historical figure is considered the first American environmentalist (mentioned in lecture)?

a)

George Perkins Marsh

b)

John Muir

c)

Rachel Carson

d)

Aldo Leopold

5.

John Muir is best known for:

a)

Moral/esthetic preservation of nature

b)

Founding modern chemical industry

c)

Developing population theory

d)

Writing about urban planning

6.

Global environmentalism refers to:

a)

Environmental concerns pushed to a global level by technology and industrialization

b)

Protecting only national parks

c)

A 19th-century movement

d)

Local recycling programs only

7.

Why is population growth considered a problem in environmental science?

a)

Because more people increase demand for resources and environmental impact

b)

Because population size is unrelated to environment

c)

Because it automatically causes extinction of species

d)

Because it prevents scientific studies

8.

Why is poverty a problem for sustainability?

a)

Daily survival can necessitate unsustainable environmental practices

b)

Poverty has no linkage to environment

c)

Poverty reduces population growth so it's beneficial

d)

Poverty always leads to better conservation

9.

The mission of environmental science is best described as:

a)

Meeting present needs while sustaining the environment for future generations

b)

Maximizing resource extraction

c)

Preventing all human activities

d)

Focusing only on laboratory research

10.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

A. B consistently follows after A under appropriate conditions

b)

B. A sometimes occurs before B

c)

C. A and B are unrelated

d)

D. B causes A

11.

Which of the following is the general scientific approach to evaluate a hypothesis?

a)

Form a model, deduce predictions, observe data, compare, and potentially falsify

b)

Accept a model based on intuition

c)

Prove hypotheses true once and forever

d)

Avoid testing to prevent bias

12.

What is deduction?

a)

Deriving specific predictions from a general model

b)

Gathering data without hypotheses

c)

Creating models from data

d)

Comparing experimental groups

13.

If good logic is used, can a prediction be false when a model is true?

a)

No — if the model is true and deduction valid, prediction must be true

b)

Yes — always

c)

Only if data are fabricated

d)

Only in social sciences

14.

Can a hypothesis be proven true?

a)

No — hypotheses can be supported but not absolutely proven; they can be falsified

b)

Yes — once data match prediction it's proven

c)

Only with mathematical models

d)

Only for geological models

15.

What happens if bad logic is used to derive a prediction?

a)

We cannot be certain of the model's truth status; false models may appear supported

b)

The model is automatically true

c)

Data will always contradict the model

d)

The model is immune to falsification

16.

Under what condition can a hypothesis be shown false?

a)

When a logically derived prediction does not match observations

b)

When someone believes it's false

c)

When deduction is invalid

d)

When data are not collected

17.

In the epistemological cycle, 'induction' refers to:

a)

The creative process of generating or revising models from disparate information

b)

Testing a prediction empirically

c)

Deriving a prediction from a model

d)

Collecting data in the field

18.

Key lesson from the logic examples: when data match a logically derived prediction, we can conclude:

a)

The model is supported but not proven true with absolute certainty

b)

The model is proven unquestionably

c)

The model is false

d)

The data are wrong

19.

Biologists commonly define evolution as:

a)

Change in gene (allele) frequencies in a population across generations

b)

An individual's growth over its lifetime

c)

Change in atmospheric composition

d)

A random event unrelated to genes

20.

What is the basic unit of heredity?

a)

Genes (alleles)

b)

Organ systems

c)

Proteins

d)

Populations

21.

Which four processes can lead to evolutionary change?

a)

Mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, natural selection

b)

Photosynthesis, respiration, transpiration, digestion

c)

Erosion, weathering, deposition, sedimentation

d)

Mitosis, meiosis, fertilization, differentiation

22.

Which of the following are evolutionary processes?

a)

Migration, genetic drift, genetic mutation, natural selection

b)

Photosynthesis, respiration, fermentation, decomposition

c)

Speciation, extinction, hybridization, fission

d)

Gene flow, cloning, teaching, training

23.

What makes natural selection novel among evolutionary processes?

a)

It produces fit/adaptive traits by favoring phenotypes that increase survival or reproduction

b)

It is purely random

c)

It only decreases variation

d)

It only occurs in plants

24.

Immigration and emigration affect evolution by:

a)

Changing gene frequencies through movement of individuals between populations

b)

Directly causing mutations

c)

Always increasing population size

d)

Preventing natural selection

25.

Why is genetic drift more important in small populations?

a)

Random events cause larger proportional changes in allele frequencies when population size is small

b)

Small populations have more mutations

c)

Large populations experience drift more

d)

Drift only occurs in small populations because of inbreeding

26.

Are most mutations beneficial?

a)

No — most mutations are neutral or harmful, rarely beneficial

b)

Yes — most improve fitness

c)

They always cause speciation

d)

They never affect phenotypes

27.

Darwin was the first to propose organisms evolve.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Who proposed natural selection jointly with Darwin?

a)

Alfred Wallace

b)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

c)

Gregory Mendel

d)

James Hutton

29.

Three conditions necessary for natural selection to produce evolutionary change include:

a)

Phenotypic variation, differential survival/reproduction, heritability of traits

b)

Population size, mutation rate, migration

c)

Random mating, no selection, constant environment

d)

Immediate speciation, high mutation, no drift

30.

Directional, disruptive, and stabilizing selection differ by:

a)

Which phenotypes are favored or disfavored (extremes vs intermediates)

b)

Only by mutation rates

c)

Only by population size

d)

They are synonyms

31.

How does natural selection alter genetic variability in a population?

a)

It tends to reduce variability by favoring advantageous genotypes, while mutation regenerates variation

b)

It always increases variability

c)

It has no effect on variability

d)

It randomizes allele frequencies without direction

32.

What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?

a)

Mutation

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Migration

33.

What is anagenesis?

a)

Phenotypic divergence within a lineage over time (within lineage change)

b)

Splitting of lineages into two species

c)

Convergent evolution

d)

Instant speciation

34.

What is cladogenesis?

a)

Formation of new species by splitting of a lineage (diversification)

b)

Within-lineage gradual change only

c)

Adaptive phenotypic plasticity

d)

Loss of genetic variation

35.

Convergent evolution is when:

a)

Unrelated species evolve similar phenotypes due to similar selection pressures

b)

Related species evolve differently

c)

Species hybridize

d)

Evolution stops

36.

Batesian mimicry involves:

a)

A harmless species mimicking an unpalatable or poisonous species

b)

Two poisonous species resembling each other

c)

A predator changing color seasonally

d)

Random mutation of wing patterns

37.

Has extinction been uncommon in evolutionary history?

a)

No — most species that once lived are now extinct

b)

Yes — extinction is extremely rare

c)

Extinction only started after humans existed

d)

Extinction never occurs in marine species

38.

How many mass extinction events have occurred?

a)

At least five major mass extinction events in Earth history

b)

None

c)

Exactly one

d)

Over a thousand

39.

Current extinction rate compared to background is:

a)

Much higher — estimates suggest 100–1000× background rate

b)

Slightly lower

c)

About the same

d)

Zero

40.

Name four human activities that majorly impact extinction rates:

a)

Habitat alteration/destruction, unsustainable harvest, introduction of non-native species, pollution/climate impacts

b)

Only natural volcanic eruptions

c)

Increased research funding

d)

Planting gardens in cities

41.

Ecology is defined as:

a)

The scientific study of how organisms interact with their physical and biological environments and factors influencing abundance and distribution

b)

Only the study of ecosystems' chemistry

c)

A branch of meteorology

d)

Study of individual anatomy

42.

Viewing ecological systems as 'machines' highlights that:

a)

Different organisms have different functional roles in energy/material transformations

b)

All organisms have the same function

c)

Ecology is mechanical engineering

d)

Ecosystems do not recycle materials

43.

An organism's functional role in an ecosystem is called its:

a)

Ecological niche

b)

Habitat only

c)

Biome

d)

Trophic level exclusively

44.

A 'specialist' species is:

a)

One with a narrow niche and restricted resources, vulnerable to change

b)

A species that lives everywhere

c)

Always a top predator

d)

A species with unlimited diet

45.

Which four factors determine population number (g = b - d + i - e)?

a)

Births (natality), deaths (mortality), immigration, emigration

b)

Food, water, shelter, light

c)

Predation, mutualism, competition, parasitism

d)

Age, size, color, sex

46.

The 'natural rate of population growth' is measured by:

a)

The difference between births and deaths (b - d)

b)

The total number of immigrants

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Emigration only

47.

Unregulated populations with constant positive rates grow:

a)

Exponentially (J-shaped curve)

b)

Linearly

c)

Not at all

d)

Only in lab conditions

48.

Carrying capacity refers to:

a)

The ceiling on number of individuals a habitat can support

b)

The maximum body size of an organism

c)

A temporary population spike

d)

Only applies to plants

49.

What does population age structure tell us?

a)

Whether a population will tend to grow, decline, or remain stable based on proportions of age classes

b)

Only the average lifespan

c)

Only mutation rate

d)

Nothing useful

50.

Life history traits include:

a)

Age at maturity, allocation to survival vs reproduction, number/size of offspring, parental care

b)

Only lifespan

c)

Only body color

d)

Only habitat preference

51.

The trade-off between parental care and survival means:

a)

Investing more in progeny often reduces survival or future reproduction of parents

b)

Parents always benefit from maximum care with no cost

c)

Parental care and survival are independent

d)

Only applies to mammals

52.

Species on the 'slow' end of the slow-fast continuum typically have:

a)

Long life, slow development, late maturity, high investment in progeny

b)

Short life and many small offspring

c)

High mutation rates

d)

No parental care

53.

Type I survivorship curves correspond to:

a)

Species on the slow end (low juvenile mortality, higher mortality late in life)

b)

Species with very high juvenile mortality

c)

Random survival across ages

d)

Plants only

54.

Three main spatial dispersion patterns are:

a)

Clumped, uniform, random

b)

Linear, circular, spiral

c)

Dense, sparse, scattered

d)

Parallel, perpendicular, diagonal

55.

Which of the following are types of dispersion patterns?

a)

Random, uniform, clumped

b)

Linear, spiral, circular

c)

Top, middle, bottom

d)

Single, pair, group

56.

Clumped dispersion usually implies:

a)

Resources are clumped and/or social/grouping behavior

b)

No competition and uniform resources

c)

Even spacing of individuals

d)

Random placement of resources