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non-clinical

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which symbol in the BNF indicates 'Single-Use Medication'?

a)

▼

b)

⊗

c)

PoM

d)

P

2.

The symbol 'PoM' in the BNF stands for 'Prescription-Only Medications'.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Fill in the blank: The BNF symbol for 'Not Prescribed in the NHS' is _____

a)

NHS

b)

OTC

c)

POM

d)

CD

4.

Which of the following is NOT a key consideration for completing the Medical Certificate of the Cause of Death (MCCD)?

a)

Old Age can be listed as 1A if criteria are met

b)

Natural Causes is an acceptable cause of death

c)

Organ Failure must specify the underlying disease

d)

Abbreviations should be avoided except for HIV and AIDS

5.

Only a doctor can certify a death, but a nurse practitioner may verify a death.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Fill in the blank: The family takes the _____ to the local registrar’s office as part of the registration process.

a)

MCCD (Medical Certificate of the Cause of Death)

b)

Birth Certificate

c)

Aadhar Card

d)

Marriage Certificate

7.

Which of the following must be completed by a doctor before a death can be officially registered?

a)

Death Notification Form

b)

Medical Certificate of the Cause of Death (MCCD)

c)

Coroner’s Report

d)

Patient Group Direction

8.

Abbreviations should always be used when completing the MCCD.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Fill in the blank: The use of 'Old Age' as a cause of death is only allowed if the patient is at least _____ years old and meets specific criteria.

a)

80

b)

60

c)

70

d)

90

10.

Which consultation model includes the step 'Initiating the session'?

a)

Calgary-Cambridge Observation Guide

b)

Pendleton Model

c)

SPIKES Protocol

d)

BATHE Technique

11.

Which consultation model emphasizes 'Exploring both the disease and illness experience'?

a)

STEWART

b)

CALGARY-CAMBRIDGE

c)

NEIGHBOUR

d)

PENDLETON

12.

Which consultation model includes 'Diagnosis and problem-solving' as a key component?

a)

Fraser's Consultation Model

b)

Pendleton's Consultation Model

c)

Calgary-Cambridge Model

d)

Stott and Davis Model

13.

Which consultation model includes the step 'Handing over'?

a)

Neighbour Consultation Model: A five-checkpoint model

b)

Pendleton’s Consultation Model

c)

Calgary-Cambridge Model

d)

Stott and Davis Model

14.

Which consultation model involves 'Achieves a shared understanding'?

a)

Pendleton Consultation Model

b)

Calgary-Cambridge Model

c)

SPIKES Model

d)

Neuman Systems Model

15.

What is the main purpose of Universal Credit (UC)?

a)

Helps with extra costs due to a disability

b)

Monthly payment for living costs

c)

Provides income if unable to work due to illness/disability

d)

Financial support for raising children

16.

Who administers Universal Credit (UC)?

a)

DWP

b)

HM Revenue & Customs (HMRC)

c)

Local Councils

d)

NHS

17.

What is one eligibility requirement for Universal Credit (UC)?

a)

Low income, unemployed, or unable to work, aged 18+ (or exceptions) & Ineligible/Ending Statutory Sick Pay.

b)

Must be over 65 years old and retired.

c)

Only available to full-time students.

d)

Only for people who own a business.

18.

What does Personal Independence Payment (PIP) help with?

a)

Monthly payment for living costs

b)

Extra costs due to a disability or health condition

c)

Rent payments

d)

Financial support for unpaid carers

19.

Who administers Personal Independence Payment (PIP)?

a)

DWP

b)

NHS

c)

HMRC

d)

Citizens Advice

20.

What is one eligibility requirement for Personal Independence Payment (PIP)?

a)

Aged 16-64; long-term health condition or disability. UK resident for 2 of the last 3 years. Condition impacting daily living >3 months. Condition expected to last >9 months.

b)

Must be under 16 years old and a full-time student.

c)

Only available to those with temporary injuries lasting less than 3 months.

d)

Available to anyone living outside the UK for more than 5 years.

21.

What is the purpose of Employment and Support Allowance (ESA)?

a)

Provides income if unable to work due to illness/disability

b)

Supports people actively seeking work

c)

Helps with rent payments

d)

Financial support for raising children

22.

Who administers Employment and Support Allowance (ESA)?

a)

DWP

b)

HMRC

c)

NHS

d)

Citizens Advice

23.

What is one eligibility requirement for Employment and Support Allowance (ESA)?

a)

Illness or disability affecting ability to work; Work Capability Assessment required; Under pension age, not receiving SSP, statutory maternity pay, or job seekers allowance.

b)

Must be over pension age and receiving statutory maternity pay.

c)

Only available to those working full-time with no health issues.

d)

Eligibility is based solely on having a university degree.

24.

What is the main purpose of Jobseeker’s Allowance (JSA)?

a)

Supports people actively seeking work

b)

Helps with rent payments

c)

Financial support for unpaid carers

d)

Provides income if unable to work due to illness/disability

25.

Who administers Jobseeker’s Allowance (JSA)?

a)

DWP

b)

HMRC

c)

NHS

d)

Home Office

26.

What is one eligibility requirement for Jobseeker’s Allowance (JSA)?

a)

Unemployed and available for work; aged 18 or over.

b)

Currently employed full-time; aged 16 or over.

c)

Self-employed and working from home; aged 21 or over.

d)

Retired and receiving a pension; aged 65 or over.

27.

What is the purpose of Child Benefit?

a)

Financial support for raising children

b)

Helps with rent payments

c)

Monthly payment for living costs

d)

Financial support for unpaid carers

28.

Who administers Child Benefit?

a)

HM Revenue & Customs (HMRC)

b)

Department for Work and Pensions (DWP)

c)

National Health Service (NHS)

d)

Home Office

29.

What is one eligibility requirement for Child Benefit?

a)

Responsible for a child under 16 (or 20 if in education/training).

b)

Must be employed full-time.

c)

Must own a home.

d)

Must be over 65 years old.

30.

What is the main purpose of Housing Benefit?

a)

Helps with rent payments

b)

Financial support for unpaid carers

c)

Provides income if unable to work due to illness/disability

d)

Supports daily living and mobility

31.

Who administers Housing Benefit?

a)

Local Councils

b)

The Police

c)

NHS Trusts

d)

HM Revenue & Customs

32.

What is one eligibility requirement for Housing Benefit?

a)

Low income or on benefits; specific housing criteria.

b)

Owning multiple properties outright.

c)

Being a full-time student with no dependents.

d)

Having savings over £100,000.

33.

What is the purpose of Carer’s Allowance?

a)

Financial support for unpaid carers

b)

Helps with rent payments

c)

Monthly payment for living costs

d)

Supports people actively seeking work

34.

Who administers Carer’s Allowance?

a)

DWP

b)

HMRC

c)

NHS

d)

Local Council

35.

What is one eligibility requirement for Carer’s Allowance?

a)

Caring for someone on qualifying disability benefits; earning less than £139/week.

b)

Being over 70 years old; owning a home.

c)

Having a driving license; working full-time.

d)

Receiving Universal Credit; being a student.

36.

What is the purpose of the State Pension?

a)

Financial support for mothers

b)

Regular income for people at State Pension age

c)

Reduces council tax payments

d)

Extra financial support for housing costs

37.

At what age can someone born after 06/04/1978 claim the State Pension?

a)

Age 68

b)

Age 60

c)

Age 65

d)

Age 70

38.

Which benefit helps cover costs for older individuals needing personal care due to a disability?

a)

Attendance Allowance (AA)

b)

Maternity Allowance

c)

Pension Credit

d)

Council Tax Reduction

39.

Who is eligible for Attendance Allowance (AA)?

a)

Aged 66+ with a disability (physical/mental/both) requiring supervision or assistance.

b)

Anyone under 18 with a part-time job.

c)

People of any age who are unemployed.

d)

Only those in full-time education.

40.

Maternity Allowance provides financial support for mothers not eligible for which benefit?

a)

Statutory Maternity Pay

b)

Child Benefit

c)

Universal Credit

d)

Jobseeker's Allowance

41.

Which authority is responsible for providing Council Tax Reduction?

a)

DWP

b)

Employers

c)

Local Councils

d)

NHS

42.

Discretionary Housing Payment (DHP) provides extra financial support for what?

a)

Housing costs

b)

Utility bills

c)

Childcare expenses

d)

Grocery shopping

43.

Pension Credit is income support for which group of people?

a)

People of pension age

b)

Children under 16

c)

Full-time students

d)

People in full-time employment

44.

Bereavement Support Payment provides financial support after the death of a spouse or civil partner.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Statutory Maternity Pay (SMP) is paid leave for which group?

a)

Employed mothers

b)

Self-employed fathers

c)

Unemployed individuals

d)

Retired persons

46.

Disability Living Allowance (DLA) helps with costs for which group?

a)

Disabled children under 16

b)

Elderly people over 65

c)

Unemployed adults

d)

Students in higher education

47.

What is the main purpose of the SRI Form?

a)

Fast-track benefits for terminally ill patients

b)

Apply for student loan repayment

c)

Register for a new insurance policy

d)

Request a change of address

48.

What are the monitoring requirements for DMARDs (Methotrexate)?

a)

FBC, LFT, U&E: 1-2 weekly initially, then 2-3 Monthly

b)

Blood glucose, ECG: Monthly

c)

CRP, ESR: Every 6 months

d)

Chest X-ray, MRI: Annually

49.

What tests should be done before starting DMARDs (Azathioprine)?

a)

FBC and LFT before treatment

b)

ECG and Chest X-ray only

c)

Urinalysis and Blood pressure monitoring only

d)

MRI scan and CT scan only

50.

How often should FBC be checked after starting DMARDs (Azathioprine)?

a)

At 4 weeks

b)

At 1 week

c)

At 8 weeks

d)

At 12 weeks

51.

What is the annual monitoring requirement for Levothyroxine?

a)

Annual TSH

b)

Annual ECG

c)

Annual Chest X-ray

d)

Annual Liver Function Test

52.

What are the baseline and follow-up monitoring requirements for Statins?

a)

Baseline LFTs; Repeat at 3 months and 12 months

b)

Baseline ECG; Repeat at 6 months and 1 year

c)

Baseline FBC; Repeat at 1 month and 6 months

d)

Baseline U&Es; Repeat at 2 months and 9 months

53.

What are the monitoring requirements for ACE inhibitors?

a)

U&E before treatment, 1-2 weeks after starting, when increasing dose, annual monitoring

b)

Liver function tests only before starting and then annually

c)

Blood glucose monitoring weekly

d)

ECG monitoring every month

54.

What are the monitoring requirements for Amiodarone?

a)

Baseline: LFTs, TFTs, U&E, chest X-ray; LFT and TFT: 6-12 Monthly; Annual chest X-ray; Monitor for visual changes (optic neuritis)

b)

Baseline: ECG, FBC, blood glucose; ECG every 3 months; Monitor for hearing loss

c)

Baseline: LFTs, TFTs, U&E; LFT and TFT: every 2 years; No chest X-ray required

d)

Baseline: TFTs, U&E, chest X-ray; TFT: every 6 months; Monitor for skin rash only

55.

How often should Lithium levels be checked and what is the target range?

a)

Levels checked 3 monthly (range 0.6-1)

b)

Levels checked annually (range 1.5-2)

c)

Levels checked weekly (range 0.2-0.5)

d)

Levels checked daily (range 1-2)

56.

What additional tests should be done every 6 months for patients on Lithium?

a)

Calcium, U&E, TFT: 6 monthly

b)

Liver function tests, ECG, Blood glucose: 6 monthly

c)

Chest X-ray, Vitamin D, Lipid profile: 6 monthly

d)

HbA1c, ESR, CRP: 6 monthly

57.

What is the main monitoring requirement for Carbimazole?

a)

FBC monitoring (for agranulocytosis)

b)

Liver function tests (for hepatotoxicity)

c)

ECG monitoring (for arrhythmias)

d)

Blood glucose monitoring (for hypoglycemia)

58.

According to GMC guidance, when is self-prescribing or prescribing for close contacts allowed?

a)

Only when no other prescriber is available, only in emergencies or life-threatening situations, only to alleviate uncontrollable pain

b)

Whenever the patient requests it, regardless of the situation

c)

At any time as long as the prescriber documents the prescription

d)

Only for minor illnesses that do not require follow-up

59.

What should be reported via the Yellow Card scheme according to GMC guidance?

a)

Adverse reactions

b)

Patient demographics

c)

Appointment schedules

d)

Medical qualifications

60.

According to the Complaints Management guidelines, within how many days must a complaint be acknowledged?

a)

3 days

b)

5 days

c)

7 days

d)

10 days

61.

According to the Complaints Management guidelines, a complaint can be made up to how long after the incident?

a)

1 year

b)

6 months

c)

2 years

d)

3 months

62.

Which of the following is NOT a key principle of the Data Protection Act 1998?

a)

Data used only for a specific purpose is collected

b)

No disclosure without consent

c)

Information can be kept indefinitely

d)

Individual right to access their information

63.

Under the Data Protection Act 1998, information must be kept up to date.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

How often must revalidation occur according to the guidelines?

a)

Every 5 years

b)

Every 2 years

c)

Every 10 years

d)

Every year

65.

Unfit patients must inform which authority according to the Fitness to Drive guidelines?

a)

DVLA

b)

NHS

c)

GMC

d)

Police

66.

Which group includes taxi and lorry drivers according to the Driver Categories?

a)

Group 2

b)

Group 1

c)

Group 3

d)

Group 4

67.

What is the minimum vision requirement for Group 1 drivers?

a)

20 metres vision

b)

10 metres vision

c)

30 metres vision

d)

50 metres vision

68.

There are no restrictions for colour-blindness in the vision requirements for driving.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

For how long should driving be withheld for a patient with alcohol/cannabis misuse (group 1) until controlled?

a)

More than 6 months

b)

1 week

c)

1 month

d)

2 years

70.

After a successful post-angiogram in cardiac conditions (group 1), how long should driving be withheld?

a)

More than 1 week

b)

1-2 days

c)

3-5 days

d)

Less than 24 hours

71.

What is the driving restriction after an unsuccessful PCI?

a)

No driving for more than 4 weeks

b)

No driving for more than 1 week

c)

No driving for more than 2 days

d)

No driving for more than 6 months

72.

After a CABG, how long must a patient refrain from driving?

a)

No driving for more than 4 weeks

b)

No driving for more than 1 week

c)

No driving for more than 2 days

d)

No driving for more than 2 months

73.

If a patient has angina, when should they cease driving?

a)

Cease if symptoms are at rest/emotion or at the wheel

b)

Cease only if symptoms occur during exercise

c)

Cease only if prescribed medication

d)

Cease if symptoms are present only in the morning

74.

What is the driving restriction for heart failure patients with NYHA grade 4?

a)

Cease driving

b)

Drive only with a co-driver

c)

Drive only during the day

d)

No restrictions

75.

Are there any driving restrictions for hypertension?

a)

No restrictions

b)

Only allowed to drive automatic cars

c)

Must have a co-driver at all times

d)

Driving prohibited at night

76.

For arrhythmia, what is the driving restriction if it causes incapacitation?

a)

Cease driving

b)

Continue driving with caution

c)

Drive only during the day

d)

No restriction required

77.

For arrhythmia, when can driving be resumed after being controlled for more than 4 weeks?

a)

Resume driving

b)

Never resume driving

c)

Resume after 1 year

d)

Resume after 6 months

78.

After post-ablation for arrhythmia, how long should a patient avoid driving?

a)

No driving for more than 2 days

b)

No driving for more than 1 week

c)

No driving for more than 1 day

d)

No driving for more than 1 month

79.

What is the driving restriction after pacemaker insertion?

a)

No driving for more than 1 week

b)

No driving for more than 1 month

c)

No driving for more than 24 hours

d)

No driving for more than 6 months

80.

After a single stroke/TIA event, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for 1 month

b)

No driving for 1 week

c)

No driving for 6 months

d)

No driving for 3 days

81.

After multiple TIAs, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for 3 months

b)

No driving for 1 week

c)

No driving for 6 months

d)

No driving for 1 year

82.

How long is driving restricted after a head contusion?

a)

No driving for 6-12 months

b)

No driving for 1-2 weeks

c)

No driving for 24 hours

d)

No driving for 2 years

83.

What is the definition of epilepsy for driving restrictions?

a)

2 or more unprovoked seizures over 24 hours

b)

1 seizure in a lifetime

c)

Seizures only during sleep

d)

Seizures provoked by alcohol only

84.

After a first seizure, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for 6 months

b)

No driving for 1 month

c)

No driving for 12 months

d)

No driving for 2 weeks

85.

For established epilepsy, what is the requirement for driving?

a)

Must be seizure-free for 12 months

b)

Must be seizure-free for 1 month

c)

Must be on medication for 6 months

d)

Must have a doctor's note only

86.

After medication withdrawal in epilepsy, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for more than 6 months

b)

No driving for more than 1 month

c)

No driving for more than 2 weeks

d)

No driving for more than 1 year

87.

After seizure during withdrawal, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for more than 1 year

b)

No driving for 1 month

c)

No driving for 6 months

d)

No driving for 2 years

88.

For awake seizures, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for more than 6 months to 1 year

b)

No driving for more than 1 month

c)

No driving for more than 2 years

d)

No driving for more than 2 weeks

89.

For sleep seizures, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for more than 1 year

b)

No driving for more than 3 months

c)

No driving for more than 2 years

d)

No driving for more than 6 months

90.

After pituitary tumour craniotomy, how long is driving restricted?

a)

No driving for 6 months

b)

No driving for 1 week

c)

No driving for 1 month

d)

No driving for 1 year

91.

For simple fainting (syncope), are there any driving restrictions?

a)

No restrictions

b)

6 months off driving

c)

1 year off driving

d)

Must inform DVLA

92.

For unexplained syncope with low recurrence risk, how long is driving restricted?

a)

4 weeks off

b)

1 week off

c)

8 weeks off

d)

12 weeks off

93.

For explained and treated syncope, how long is driving restricted?

a)

4 weeks off

b)

1 week off

c)

8 weeks off

d)

12 weeks off

94.

For unexplained syncope, how long is driving restricted?

a)

6 weeks off

b)

1 week off

c)

3 months off

d)

1 year off

95.

For diet/metformin only diabetes, are there any driving restrictions?

a)

No restrictions

b)

Yes, annual medical review required

c)

Yes, must inform DVLA immediately

d)

Yes, only allowed to drive automatic vehicles

96.

For other oral medications (except sulfonylureas), what is the restriction for Group 1 if no hypos in more than 12 months?

a)

No restrictions

b)

Annual review required

c)

Must inform DVLA

d)

Restricted to automatic vehicles only

97.

For insulin-dependent or sulfonylurea users in Group 1, what is the maximum number of hypos allowed in 12 months?

a)

1 hypo in 12 months

b)

2 hypos in 12 months

c)

3 hypos in 12 months

d)

No limit on hypos in 12 months

98.

According to the 'Fitness to Fly' guidelines, name one cardiovascular condition that is contraindicated for flying.

a)

Unstable angina, Uncontrolled hypertension/arrhythmias, Decompensated heart failure, Severe symptomatic vascular disease

b)

Mild controlled hypertension

c)

Benign heart murmur

d)

Stable angina

99.

According to the 'Fitness to Fly' guidelines, after an uncomplicated myocardial infarction (MI), how many days should a patient wait before flying?

a)

7-10 days

b)

1-2 days

c)

14-21 days

d)

30 days