Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharmacology Quiz: Cardiovascular System

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A powerful hollow muscular organ, about the size of a closed fist of an adult, whose primary function is to provide pressure for the circulation of blood throughout the body.

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Heart

d)

Blood Vessel

2.

Functions of the blood but one:

a)

Hormone transport

b)

Protection from bleeding

c)

Thermoregulation

d)

Nutrient metabolism

3.

Which of the following organs of the reticuloendothelial system are responsible for the destruction and disposal of red blood cells after they die in about 120 days?

a)

Liver and Kidneys

b)

Liver and Skin

c)

Liver and Spleen

d)

Liver and Large Intestine

4.

What components of the blood are considered the soldiers of the body in the fight against foreign materials which may cause homeostatic and physiological disturbance?

a)

Thrombocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Platelets

5.

Which of the following blood vessels are directly connected to the capillaries?

a)

Aorta

b)

Arterioles

c)

Superior Vena Cava

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

6.

Which circulatory pathway delivers deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?

a)

Pulmonary Artery

b)

Pulmonary Vein

c)

Circle of Willi's

d)

Venules

7.

It is the thickest muscular layer of the heart responsible for rhythmic contractions.

a)

Epicardium

b)

Pericardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Myocardium

8.

The fluid-filled, thin but strong sac, composed of fibrous layer that surrounds and protects the heart by reducing friction through lubrication, and by stabilizing its position in the thoracic cavity.

a)

Epicardium

b)

Pericardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Peritoneum

9.

The left and the right atria are chambers located at the ____________.

a)

Upper portion of the heart

b)

Lower portion of the heart

c)

Apex of the heart

d)

Mid-clavicular line at the 5th Intercostal Space

10.

Which of the following best describes the heart's semilunar valves? Select all that apply.

a)

Semilunar valves include the tricuspid and the bicuspid valves

b)

Semilunar valves include the pulmonary and the aortic valves

c)

Semilunar valves create the first heartbeat sound 'LUB' when they close

d)

Semilunar valves create the second heartbeat sound 'DUB' when they close

11.

The blood vessel supplying oxygenated blood and nutrients to the heart tissues.

a)

Circle of Willi's

b)

Carotid Artery

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Coronary Artery

12.

The natural peacemaker of the human heart.

a)

Mitral Valve

b)

Auricle

c)

Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)

d)

Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)

13.

That part of the heart's conduction system spreading electrical impulses to the ventricles creating ventricular contraction (pumping of the heart).

a)

Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)

b)

Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinji Fibers

14.

The part of the heart that first receives the deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cava.

a)

Left atrium

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

15.

A nurse takes a patient's blood pressure which reads 110 / 80. Which of the following statements is correct? Select all that apply.

a)

110 represents the systolic pressure, 80 represents the diastolic pressure

b)

110 represents the blood pressure pressing on the walls of the patient's arteries when the heart relaxes, while 80 represents the blood pressure pressing on the walls of the patient's arteries when the heart contracts

c)

110 represents the diastolic pressure, 80 represents the systolic pressure

d)

110 represents the blood pressure pressing on the walls of the patient's arteries when the heart contracts, while 80 represents the blood pressure pressing on the walls of the patient's arteries when the heart relaxes

16.

A nurse obtained a patient's blood pressure to be 100 / 90. The patient asks the nurse what the reading means. What should be the correct response of the nurse?

a)

Everything looks good! Your blood pressure is within the normal range.

b)

You have a condition called hypotension as your blood pressure reading is below the normal standards.

c)

Your systolic pressure is quite low but your diastolic pressure is high; thus, you have nothing to worry about

d)

It seems that your blood pressure is kind of elevated and is outside of the typical range. Please wait for your attending physician for further assessment.

17.

A nurse is conducting health education to a patient about blood pressure readings. Which among the following statements of the patient shows the need for more explanation and nursing intervention?

a)

Now I know that my blood pressure which is 120 / 80 is within the normal range!

b)

I see. Hypertension has several stages according to the guidelines released by the American Heart Association.

c)

From what I understood, the blood pressure inside the arteries is at maximum during ventricular contraction and is at minimum when the heart muscles are in their resting period.

d)

Stage 2 hypertension needs medical attention, provided that it is already symptomatic.

18.

A patient is about to undergo a process called venipuncture in the arm to obtain a blood sample to assess his overall health. Which of the following tests helps detect specific health conditions such as anemia, cancer, infections, and clotting disorders? Select all that apply.

a)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

b)

Coagulation Panel

c)

Blood Culture

d)

Lipid Panel

19.

A patient with narrowed coronary arteries is most likely to experience ________:

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Ischemic stroke

c)

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

d)

Aneurysm

20.

Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is most commonly caused by:

a)

Valve stenosis

b)

Coronary artery occlusion

c)

Sustained hypertension

d)

Ruptured aneurysm

21.

Which hormone increases heart rate and contractility during sympathetic activation?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

22.

Which disorder is characterized by narrowing of peripheral arteries, especially in the legs?

a)

Coronary artery disease

b)

Peripheral artery disease

c)

Peripheral vascular disease

d)

Venous insufficiency

23.

Which are possible complications of uncontrolled hypertension? Select all that apply.

a)

Stroke

b)

Aortic aneurysm

c)

Chronic kidney disease

d)

Retinopathy

24.

Which clinical feature differentiates stable angina from unstable angina?

a)

Relief with rest or administration of nitroglycerin

b)

Pain lasting >30 minutes

c)

Association with elevated cardiac enzymes

d)

Pain occurring at rest

25.

Which term describes a slow heart rate (<60 bpm), and which drug can be used to treat it if symptomatic?

a)

Tachycardia; Digoxin

b)

Bradycardia; Atropine

c)

Arrhythmia; Amiodarone

d)

Palpitation; Metoprolol

26.

Which conduction abnormality requires immediate defibrillation, and which emergency drug may also be administered as part of its treatment?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation - Epinephrine

b)

Atrial fibrillation - Amiodarone

c)

First-degree AV block - Atropine

d)

Sinus tachycardia - Metoprolol

27.

Select all that apply. Which are modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis (plaque build up inside the arterial walls)?

a)

Hypertension and Hyperlipidemia

b)

Smoking

c)

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

e)

Family history

28.

Which lipid abnormality is most strongly associated with atherosclerosis, and which class of cardiovascular drugs is commonly used to treat it?

a)

Hypercholesterolemia (High LDL) - Treated with antilipidemic agents e.g. statins

b)

Hypercholesterolemia (High LDL) - Treated with fibrinolytics

c)

Hypertriglyceridemia (High Triglycerides) - Treated with antiplatelets

d)

High VLDL - Treated with beta blockers

29.

Which of the following drug classes are considered first-line therapy for the management of primary (essential) hypertension? Select all that apply.

a)

Thiazide Diuretics

b)

ACE Inhibitors - "PRILS"

c)

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers / ARBs - "SARTANS"

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers / CCBs - "DIPINES"

e)

Beta Blockers - "LOLS"

30.
  1. A 68-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with severe shortness of breath, crackles on lung auscultation, and frothy pink sputum. He has a history of congestive heart failure. The physician suspects acute pulmonary edema and orders immediate diuretic therapy to rapidly reduce fluid overload. Which of the following diuretic medications is the drug of choice due to its classification as a potent loop diuretic commonly used in this condition?

a)

Hydrochlorothiazide

b)

Furosemide

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Mannitol

31.
  1. A 58-year-old male patient with a history of coronary artery disease suddenly complains of chest pain and tightness while walking to the bathroom. The nurse quickly assesses him and notes that he is diaphoretic and anxious but stable. The physician prescribes a medication that will provide immediate relief by dilating the coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart. Which of the following drugs should the nurse prepare to administer sublingually for rapid relief of the patient’s anginal pain?

a)

Isosorbide mononitrate, Class: Nitrate Oral

b)

Atenolol, Class: Beta Blocker Oral or IV

c)

Nitroglycerin, Class: Nitrate Spray or Oral

d)

Verapamil, Class: Calcium Channel Blocker Oral or IV

32.

Which of the following calcium channel blocker can be used for treating supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) as it lowers heart rate and heart contractility? Select all that apply.

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Verapamil

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Diltiazem

33.

Which drug is the antidote for heparin overdose?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Fresh frozen plasma

d)

Idarucizumab

34.

Which drug class lowers triglycerides most effectively?

a)

Statins

b)

Fibrates

c)

PCSK9 inhibitors

d)

Bile acid sequestrants

35.

Which drug is the antidote for warfarin overdose?

a)

Protamine sulfate

b)

Phytonadione (Vitamin K)

c)

Fresh frozen plasma

d)

Idarucizumab

36.

Which drug can cause cyanide toxicity if used for prolonged infusion?

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Sodium Nitroprusside

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Diazoxide

37.

The nurse is teaching about risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which should be included? Select all that apply.

a)

Smoking and Diabetes mellitus

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperlipidemia

d)

Regular exercise

38.

Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Captopril

d)

Losartan

39.

Which statement by the patient taking atorvastatin indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

"I will avoid grapefruit juice while on this medication."

b)

"I may take this medication at night."

c)

"If I develop muscle pain, I should notify my doctor."

d)

"I can stop the medication once my cholesterol levels normalize."

40.

All blood thinners but one:

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Antithrombotics

c)

Fibrinolytics

d)

Hemostatics

41.

Which of the following antiplatelet agents used in the prevention of myocardial infarction and stroke is contraindicated with a patient with active peptic ulcer?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Clopidogrel

c)

Dipyridamole

d)

Cilostazol

42.
  1. A patient who is about to undergo removal of wisdom teeth was prescribed by the dentist with an antifibrinolytic drug to promote blood clotting and prevent excessive bleeding. As a nurse, which of the following medications will you administer to the patient?

a)

Heparin

b)

Warfarin

c)

Aspirin

d)

Tranexamic Acid

43.

Iron supplements (e.g. Ferrous Sulfate) and B-vitamins (e.g. Folate and Cyanocobalamin) used to treat some types of anemia are under which drug class?

a)

Hematopoietic Drugs

b)

Coagulants

c)

Anticoagulants

d)

Antithrombotics

44.

The following are types of drugs that can be used to treat hypotension in patients suffering from hypovolemic shock, except one.

a)

Vasopressors e.g. norepinephrine and epinephrine

b)

Cardiotonic Agents (Positive Inotropes) e.g. dopamine and dobutamine

c)

Mineralocorticoids e.g. fludrocortisone

d)

Vasodilators e.g. hydralazine and minoxidil

45.

These are considered the most powerful diuretics - drugs that promote diuresis (increased urine output); fast onset; preferred for acute/severe Congestive Heart Failure with pulmonary and/or general edema because of rapid fluid removal.

a)

Loop Diuretics

b)

Thiazide Diuretics

c)

Potassium-sparing Diuretics

d)

Aldosterone Antagonist Diuretics

46.
  1. RAAS Inhibitors work by blocking the overactivity of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System in patients with hypertension to reduce vasoconstriction and achieve vasodilation. Which of the following RAAS Inhibitor drugs are most preferred to avoid the risk of getting dry cough and angioedema (due to bradykinin)?

a)

ACE Inhibitors

b)

ARBs

c)

Direct Renin Inhibitors

d)

CCBs

47.

Which is a Calcium Channel Blocker drug used to treat hypertension?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Losartan

c)

Captopril

d)

Nifedipine

48.
  1. A patient is admitted for an antihypertensive medication overdose of RAAS Inhibitors Lisinopril (ACE Inhibitor) and Valsartan (ARB), resulting in severe hyperkalemia. What would be the nurse’s expected intervention that the attending physician will order?

a)

Administer Atropine

b)

Administer Vitamin K

c)

Administer Calcium Gluconate

d)

Administer Potassium

49.

Which of the following direct-acting vasodilators may cause hypertrichosis (excessive hair growth)?

a)

Sodium Nitropusside

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Minoxidil

d)

Diazoxide

50.

A life-threatening condition where the heart suddenly and unexpectedly stops beating and ceases pumping blood (asystole) caused by an internal electrical problem of the conduction system of the heart.

a)

Myocardial Infarction

b)

Congestive Heart Failure

c)

Cardiac Arrest

d)

Heart Attack