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CH 14, 15, 17

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The normal creatinine level (diagnostic indication of kidney function) for an adult is       mg/dL.

a)

0.1 to 0.5

b)

0.6 to 1.5

c)

3 to 4.5 m

d)

6 to 7.5

2.

Normal BUN (blood urea nitrogen) levels in adults should not exceed ___ mg per 100 mL.

a)

1.5

b)

5

c)

10

d)

25

3.

Which of the following symptoms is classified as a mild reaction?

a)

Itching

b)

Hypotension

c)

Extravasation

d)

Angioedema

4.

A vasovagal contrast media reaction can be a life-threatening condition.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Patients (or legal guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

In preparation for a venipuncture, a tourniquet should be applied above or proximal to the site of injection.

a)

1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm)

b)

3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm)

c)

6 to 7 inches (15 to 18 cm)

d)

8 to 10 inches (20 to 25 cm)

7.

The most common size needle used for bolus injection of contrast agents for adult patients is               gauge.

a)

23 to 25

b)

14 to 16

c)

18 to 22

d)

28

8.

The bevel of the needle must be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

If available, the technologist should use a central line catheter to introduce contrast agents into the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Over-the-needle catheters are often used for drip infusion studies.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which of the following veins is not normally used during venipuncture?

a)

Median cubital

b)

Axillary

c)

Cephalic

d)

Basilic

12.

The technologist should leave a butterfly needle in the vein for the first part of the IVU following injection.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

_ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C-arm fluoroscopy.

a)

Pulse mode

b)

Road-mapping

c)

Magnification mode

d)

Boost digital spot

14.

A self-propelled, battery-driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a maximum incline of:

a)

2°

b)

7°

c)

10°

d)

15°

15.

What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit?

a)

1 foot

b)

3 feet

c)

6 feet

d)

10 feet

16.

Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures?

a)

Time

b)

Shielding

c)

Distance

d)

None of the above; all are equally effective.

17.

Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator’s head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine)?

a)

Anteroposterior (AP) projection (x-ray tube above anatomy)

b)

PA projection (x-ray tube below anatomy)

c)

PA, 30 tilt away from operator

18.

Where should the operator (or surgeon) stand when using a C-arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray (CR) position?

a)

Intensifier end of the C-arm

b)

X-ray tube end of the C-arm

c)

Midway between the x-ray tube and the intensifier

d)

Must stand back at least 6 feet from the patient

19.

A 30 tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of:

a)

2.

b)

3.

c)

4.

d)

6.

20.

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

a)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum

b)

Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)

c)

Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane

d)

Parallel to the midsagittal plane

21.

Which of the following is generally true for knee arthrography?

a)

A common nontrauma clinical indication is a Baker’s cyst.

b)

A minimum of 20 mL of positive contrast media is introduced into joint.

c)

During fluoroscopy, views are taken of each meniscus with the knee rotated 30° between exposures.

d)

The amount of aspirated joint (synovial) fluid should equal the amount of injected contrast media.

22.

A common fluoroscopy routine for knee arthrography is:

a)

nine views of each meniscus rotated 20° between exposures.

b)

nine views total of each knee rotated 20° between exposures.

c)

six views each of lateral and medial menisci rotated 20° between exposures.

23.

Which of the following is not an indication for knee arthrography?

a)

Injury or tears to rotator cuff

b)

Evaluate for Baker’s cyst

c)

Injury or tears to collateral or cruciate ligaments

d)

Injury or tears to menisci

24.

CT and MRI arthrography has significantly reduced the number of radiographic arthrograms performed.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Myelography is often contraindicated if a lumbar puncture has been performed within the previous:

a)

2 weeks.

b)

3 weeks.

c)

30 days.

d)

6 months.

26.

Which of the following is a contraindication for myelography?

a)

Arachnoiditis

b)

Blood in the CSF

c)

Increased intracranial pressure

d)

All of the above

27.

The suggested positioning routine for lumbar myelography is:

a)

patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral, left and right lateral decubitus (AP and PA), and PA projection.

b)

patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA).

c)

patient prone: semierect horizontal beam lateral.

d)

patient supine: semierect AP and horizontal beam lateral.

28.

Which of the following is a suggested conventional positioning routine for cervical myelography following fluoroscopy and spot imaging?

a)

Patient prone: PA lateral, swimmer’s lateral, and one lateral decubitus-horizontal beam

b)

Patient on side: right lateral decubitus (AP) and left lateral decubitus (PA)

c)

Patient prone: PA horizontal beam and swimmer’s lateral of C6 or C7

d)

Patient prone: horizontal beam lateral (centered to C4-5) and swimmer’s horizontal beam lateral (centered to C7)