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311 Final

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would not be considered a protocol for cleaning a spill when blood or other body fluids are involved?

a)

Use the PASS method to properly dispose of blood or body fluid.

b)

All universal (standard) precautions are followed, and contaminated materials are properly disposed of.

c)

You must wear gloves, face shield, and protective eyewear.

d)

You must wear aprons, and hair and shoe coverings.

2.

Which is not one of the major areas of testing in the examination of the urine?

a)

analytical

b)

physical

c)

chemical

d)

microscopic

3.

Urine should be:

a)

very alkaline.

b)

slightly alkaline.

c)

very acidic.

d)

slightly acidic.

4.

Biohazard waste receptacles bear the biohazard symbol and:

a)

are lined with red plastic bags.

b)

are not to be used in the critical care unit.

c)

are only to be used in the critical care unit.

d)

can be used for any type of waste.

5.

The __________ is a new, single unified system for standardizing and harmonizing the classification and labeling of chemicals, making it more effective, consistent, and easier to understand.

a)

Global System of Communication Standard

b)

Hazard Communication System

c)

Globally Harmonized System

d)

Biohazardous Global Standard

6.

Occult blood specimens collected from a stool sample are common screening tools for early detection of possible:

a)

colon cancer.

b)

leukemia.

c)

liver disease.

d)

stomach cancer.

7.

When collecting a specimen for substance abuse analysis the _____ of a urine specimen is immediately checked for following collection and is recorded with the patient observing you.

a)

pH

b)

volume

c)

temperature

d)

color

8.

When using the Ictotest, if the mat shows a _____ color, the urine sample contains bilirubin.

a)

yellowish to orange

b)

bluish to green

c)

reddish to orange

d)

bluish to purple

9.

A urine sample from a patient with hepatitis will have a ____ foam if shaken.

a)

white

b)

green

c)

orange

d)

yellow

10.

When documenting in the patient’s chart and on the logbooks, the initials ________ would be used in the case of not having enough urine to perform the ordered testing, unless otherwise specified per laboratory protocol.

a)

“CMA” (indicating the MAs credentialing and ability to perform the procedure)

b)

“NSQ” (non-sufficient quantity)

c)

“QNS” (quantity not sufficient)

d)

all the initials indicated should be used

11.

When a microscope is not in use, its cord should be:

a)

allowed to dangle.

b)

kept tightly wrapped.

c)

kept loosely wrapped.

d)

left plugged in.

12.

You should wipe the eyepieces of the microscope with ____ after each use to avoid the transmission of diseases.

a)

water

b)

a dry paper towel

c)

straight bleach

d)

a disinfectant

13.

Which of the following is not a purpose of a quality assurance program?

a)

to ensure positive test results

b)

to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of health care

c)

to ensure accuracy in testing procedures

d)

to ensure validity in testing procedures

14.

The ocular lens of a microscope should be cleaned with:

a)

lens tissue paper.

b)

a damp paper towel.

c)

a dry paper towel.

d)

compressed air.

15.

How many eyepieces does a monocular microscope have?

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

16.

For a midstream clean-catch specimen, patients should be instructed to cleanse the genital area _____ using an antiseptic wipe.

a)

from back to front in a single motion

b)

from front to back in a single motion

c)

several times from side to side

d)

back and forth several times from front to back

17.

The high-power field (hpf) objective magnifies an object approximately ___ times.

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

18.

The purpose of safety data sheets (SDSs) in a health care setting is:

a)

to import chemicals properly.

b)

to transport chemicals between practices.

c)

to provide information about working with or handling a particular chemical substance.

d)

all of the responses are correct

19.

When collecting a throat swab from a patient for the rapid test or routine culture, you swab:

a)

the lips, cheeks, gums, teeth, tongue, and peritonsillar area.

b)

the cheeks, gums, and peritonsillar area.

c)

only the cheeks and peritonsillar area.

d)

only the peritonsillar area.

20.

It is recommended that a patient collect ____ specimen(s) for occult blood specimen testing.

a)

no more than one

b)

at least three

c)

at least five

d)

no more than five

21.

Refrigerators used to store reagents, test kits, or biological specimens are labeled with a biohazard symbol and bear the legend:

a)

Only for Storage of Food and Medications

b)

Not for Storage of Food or Medications

c)

Only for Reagents, Test Kits, and Biological Specimens

d)

Keep at 32 degrees F or below

22.

For moderately complex tests, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) mandates that there be a clinical consultant with a minimum of a(n) _____ degree.

a)

bachelor's

b)

doctoral

c)

master's

d)

associate's

23.

When performing Gram staining, if the microorganisms on the slide are identified as Gram positive, they will appear:

a)

bright red to maroon.

b)

bright yellow to dark orange.

c)

dark green to light blue.

d)

dark blue to violet.

24.

After you clean a spill involving bodily fluids such as blood or urine, the area must be thoroughly cleaned with an effective disinfectant or:

a)

an industrial biohazard chemical.

b)

pads placed on the affected area and left for at least 20 minutes.

c)

a 10 percent solution of household bleach.

d)

a 10-second steam solution.

25.

Which of the following statements is true regarding sharps containers?

a)

Must be easily accessible to employees

b)

Must be located as close as feasible to the immediate area where sharps are used

c)

Must be closed using the locking mechanism in the container when the sharps reach the full line indicated on the container

d)

All of the responses are correct

26.

Your responsibilities will include the ability to evaluate the lab and medical environment to identify safe versus unsafe working conditions. Some examples of evaluating the environment can include:

a)

using a checklist, perform a safety inspection at intervals according to institution policy and preparing a report on the findings.

b)

verifying that needlestick prevention devices (safety needles) are used and proper disposal is performed.

c)

identifying safety techniques that can be used in responding to accidental exposure to blood, other body fluids, and chemicals.

d)

all of the responses are correct

27.

Reagent strips are:

a)

expensive.

b)

unreliable.

c)

convenient.

d)

slow acting.

28.

Catheterization is usually performed by a:

a)

urologist.

b)

medical assistant.

c)

patient.

d)

general practitioner.

29.

What is the normal value of mucus in a urine sample?

a)

heavy

b)

much

c)

slight

d)

moderate

30.

If you notice that a urine specimen has a very strong ammonia-like smell, it probably indicates that the patient has:

a)

low blood sugar.

b)

high blood sugar.

c)

phenylketonuria.

d)

a urinary tract infection.

31.

What color is bilirubin?

a)

red to orange

b)

blue to purple

c)

yellow to orange

d)

green to blue

32.

Specific gravity is defined as the weight of substances dissolved in a specimen as compared with those found in:

a)

distilled water.

b)

pure alcohol.

c)

mineral water.

d)

iodine.

33.

A quality control program does not monitor:

a)

instruments used in testing.

b)

personnel technique in performing tests.

c)

reagents used in testing.

d)

patient reactions to tests.

34.

Which agency provides the application for a certificate of waiver?

a)

Department of Labor (DOL)

b)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

35.

When using the oil-immersion lens objective, how much oil should be used?

a)

none at all

b)

a very sparing amount

c)

a moderate amount

d)

an ample amount

36.

A brown color when describing urine is usually associated with:

a)

blood.

b)

old blood.

c)

Pyridium.

d)

jaundice.

37.

Laboratory tests on a certificate of waiver may be billed to:

a)

Medicare but not Medicaid.

b)

Medicaid but not Medicare.

c)

Medicare and Medicaid.

d)

neither Medicare nor Medicaid.

38.

Urine specimens that have a high number of bacteria will have a characteristic smell of:

a)

ammonia.

b)

bleach.

c)

sulfur.

d)

vinegar.

39.

When checking the clarity of a urine specimen, which of these descriptions is considered worst?

a)

cloudy

b)

turbid

c)

hazy

d)

clear

40.

Analyzing health care results as reported in __________ and __________ also be a part of your duties. Each practice will have their own protocols on how to handle and distribute lab reports to the providers.

a)

tables and specimen samples

b)

graphs and tables

c)

specimen samples and graphs

d)

normal and abnormal values

41.

Other bodies that provide regulation inspections of a physician’s office laboratory (POL) are:

a)

COLA (an independent accreditor).

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

c)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).

d)

all of the responses are correct

42.

Unless the manufacturer’s instructions state otherwise, proper handling of reagent strips includes all but which of the following?

a)

keeping them refrigerated

b)

protecting them from light

c)

capping them tightly once a strip has been removed

d)

protecting them from exposure to moisture

43.

The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) of 1988 are administered by the:

a)

Department of Labor (DOL).

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

d)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).

44.

Identify Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)–waived test(s) associated with the purpose of detecting pH, glucose, ketones, blood, bilirubin, urobilinogen, leukocytes, and specific gravity.

a)

glucose

b)

urinalysis

c)

hemoglobin A1c

d)

all of the responses are correct

45.

During microscopic examination of a urine sample, bacteria and epithelial cells may be quantified as:

a)

enlarged.

b)

few.

c)

clear.

d)

heavy.

46.

Which of the following is not one of the three laboratory classifications under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) of 1988?

a)

mandatory

b)

waived

c)

moderately complex, including the subcategory of provider-performed microscopy procedures (PPMP)

d)

highly complex

47.

The waived status for diagnostic testing is granted according to the:

a)

difficulty in performing the test.

b)

importance of the results of the test.

c)

expense of the test.

d)

amount of preparation required on the part of the patient for the test.

48.

The Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) requires all labels to have pictograms on them, alerting all users of the chemical hazards they are being exposed to. Which of the following is not a hazard requiring a label and/or pictogram?

a)

an unexploded bomb

b)

corrosion

c)

skull and crossbones

d)

flame over circle

49.

Generally a sufficient amount of urine for testing would fill a _______ test tube with enough left over to wet the chemical test strip and be used for culture if ordered.

a)

10 mL

b)

10 mg

c)

10 mcd

d)

.01 mL

50.

The agency that established guidelines concerning contact with blood and body fluids, referred to as universal precautions, is:

a)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

c)

Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).

d)

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).