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MEGA 11IB Chem review quiz

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pair of elements reacts most readily?

a)

Li + Br2

b)

Li + Cl2

c)

K + Br2

d)

K + Cl2

2.

The compounds Na2O, Al2O3 and SO2 respectively are

a)

acidic, amphoteric and basic.

b)

amphoteric, basic and acidic

c)

basic, acidic and amphoteric

d)

basic, amphoteric and acidic

3.

Which of the following properties of the halogens increase from F to I? *

I. Atomic radius, II. Melting point, III. Electronegativity

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

I, II and III

4.

For which element are the group number and the period number the same?

a)

Li

b)

Be

c)

B

d)

Mg

5.

Which of the physical properties decrease with increasing atomic number for both the alkali metals and the halogens?

I. Atomic radius

II. Ionization energy

III. Melting point

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

6.

Which of the reactions below occur as written? *

I. Br2 + 2I– → 2Br– + I2

II. Br2 + 2Cl– → 2Br– + Cl2

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

Both I and II

d)

Neither I or II

7.

Rubidium is an element in the same group of the periodic table as lithium and sodium. It is likely to be a metal which has a

a)

high melting point and reacts slowly with water.

b)

high melting point and reacts vigorously with water.

c)

low melting point and reacts vigorously with water.

d)

low melting point and reacts slowly with water.

8.

When the following species are arranged in order of increasing radius, what is the correct order?

a)

Cl–, Ar, K+

b)

K+, Ar , Cl–

c)

Cl–, K+, Ar

d)

Ar, Cl–, K+

9.

What increases in equal steps of one from left to right in the periodic table for the elements lithium to neon?

a)

the number of occupied electron energy levels

b)

the number of neutrons in the most common isotope

c)

the number of electrons in the atom

d)

the atomic mass

10.

Which properties are typical of most non-metals in period 3?

I. They form ions by gaining one or more electrons.

II. They are poor conductors of heat and electricity.

III. They have high melting points.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

11.

A potassium atom has a larger atomic radius than a sodium atom. Which statement about potassium correctly explains this difference?

a)

It has a larger nuclear charge.

b)

It has a lower electronegativity.

c)

It has more energy levels occupied by electrons.

d)

It has a lower ionization energy.

12.

Which factors lead to an element having a low value of first ionization energy?

I. large atomic radius

II. high number of occupied energy levels

III. high nuclear charge

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

13.

Which statement about electronegativity is correct?

a)

Electronegativity decreases across a period.

b)

Electronegativity increases down a group.

c)

Metals generally have lower electronegativity values than non-metals.

d)

Noble gases have the highest electronegativity values.

14.

Which compound of an element in period 3 reacts with water to form a solution with a pH greater than 7?

a)

SiO2

b)

SiCl4

c)

NaCl

d)

Na2O

15.

Which equation represents the first ionization energy of fluorine?

a)

F(g) + e– --> F–(g)

b)

F–(g) --> F(g) + e–

c)

F+(g) --> F(g) + e–

d)

F(g) --> F+(g) + e–

16.

Which element is a transition metal?

a)

Ca

b)

Cr

c)

Ge

d)

Se

17.

Rank these in order of strength:
covalent bond
London forces
hydrogen bond
dipole-dipole attraction

a)

dipole-dipole>covalent bond>hydrogen bond>London

b)

London>dipole-diple>hydrogen bond>covalent bond

c)

covalent bond>hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London

d)

hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London>covalent bond

18.

Which change to an atom occurs when it forms a positive ion?

a)

It gains electrons.

b)

It gains protons.

c)

It loses electrons.

d)

It loses protons

19.

This is an example of a __________ bond.

a)

non-polar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

20.

Will this molecule be polar or nonpolar? H2S

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

21.

Will this molecule be polar or nonpolar? CCl4

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

22.

Which of the following molecules has hydrogen bonding?

a)

HCl

b)

HI

c)

HF

d)

HBr

23.

Each carbon in diamond forms ______ bonds

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

24.

What structure is shown in the diagram?

a)

Diamond

b)

Graphite

c)

fullerene

25.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a neutral atom of chlorine?

a)

1s22s22p63s23p51s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5

b)

1s22s22p63s23p61s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6

c)

1s22s22p63s23p41s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^4

d)

1s22s22p63s23p31s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^3

26.

What is the primary reason for the high boiling point of water compared to other group 16 hydrides?

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

London dispersion forces

c)

Dipole-dipole interactions

d)

Covalent bonding

27.

In an experiment, a student measures the pH of a solution to be 3. What is the concentration of hydrogen ions in the solution?

a)

1×10−3 M1 \times 10^{-3} \text{ M}

b)

1×10−7 M1 \times 10^{-7} \text{ M}

c)

1×10−10 M1 \times 10^{-10} \text{ M}

d)

1×10−1 M1 \times 10^{-1} \text{ M}

28.

Which type of spectrum is this?

a)

Emission Spectrum

b)

Absorption Spectrum

c)

Continuous Spectrum

29.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
30.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
31.

In the emission spectrum of hydrogen, which electronic transition would produce a line in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

n=2 --> n=1

b)

n=3 --> n=2

c)

n=2 --> n=3

d)

n=∞ --> n=1

32.

What is the name of the type of spectrum consisting only of specific wavelengths?

a)

Electromagnetic

b)

Continuous

c)

Line

d)

Mass

33.

In the emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom, which electronic transition would produce a line in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

n=1 --> n=3

b)

n=3 --> n=1

c)

n=3 --> n=2

d)

n=10 --> n=2

34.

Some possible electron transitions in a hydrogen atom are shown below. Which letter represents the electron transition with the highest energy in the emission spectrum?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.

Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom release the most energy?

a)

n = 1 --> n = 2

b)

n = 7 --> n = 6

c)

n = 6 --> n = 7

d)

n = 2 --> n = 1

36.

Which type of spectrum is this?

a)

Emission Spectrum

b)

Absorption Spectrum

c)

Continuous Spectrum

37.

Explain the concept of VSEPR theory and how it helps in predicting the shape of molecules.

a)

VSEPR theory explains how the arrangement of electron pairs determines the shape of molecules based on minimizing repulsion between them.

b)

VSEPR theory is used to predict the color of molecules based on their shape.

c)

VSEPR theory is only applicable to inorganic molecules.

d)

VSEPR theory explains how the arrangement of protons determines the shape of molecules.

38.

Discuss the significance of molecular polarity in determining the physical and chemical properties of compounds.

a)

Molecular polarity has no impact on compound properties

b)

Compounds with high molecular polarity are less likely to form bonds

c)

Molecular polarity plays a crucial role in determining the physical and chemical properties of compounds by influencing intermolecular forces and interactions.

d)

Physical and chemical properties are solely determined by molecular weight

39.

Which bonds are arranged in order of increasing polarity?

a)

H–F < H–Cl < H–Br < H–I

b)

H–I < H–Br < H–F < H–Cl

c)

H–I < H–Br < H–Cl < H–F

d)

H–Br < H–I < H–Cl < H–F

40.

Which compound forms hydrogen bonds in the liquid state?

a)

C2H5OH

b)

CHCl3

c)

CH3CHO

d)

(CH3CH2)3N

41.

What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with whole numbers?


—C8H18 (g) + —O2 (g) → —CO (g) + —H2O(l)

a)

26.5

b)

30

c)

53

d)

61

42.

Which factors affect the molar volume of an ideal gas?


I. Pressure

II. Temperature

III. Empirical formula

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

43.

Which element is a lanthanide?

a)

Hf

b)

Tb

c)

U

d)

Y

44.

How many bonding electrons are there in the urea molecule?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

20

d)

24

45.

Which metal has the strongest metallic bond?

a)

Li

b)

Na

c)

K

d)

Rb

46.

Tough Q!

What can be deduced from the facts that ozone absorbs UV radiation in the region of 340 nm and molecular oxygen in the region of 242 nm? 

a)

The bond between atoms in molecular oxygen is a double bond.

b)

The bonds in ozone are delocalized.

c)

The bonds between atoms in ozone are stronger than those in molecular oxygen.

d)

The bonds between atoms in molecular oxygen need more energy to break.

47.

What is the graphical relationship between n and T in the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT, all other

variables remaining constant?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Which compound has the empirical formula with the greatest mass?

a)

C2H6

b)

C4H10

c)

C5H10

d)

C6H6

49.

Under what conditions would one mole of methane gas, CH4, occupy the smallest volume?

a)

273 K and 1.01×105 Pa

b)

273 K and 2.02×105 Pa

c)

546 K and 1.01×105 Pa

d)

546 K and 2.02×105 Pa

50.

What is the symbol for a species that contains 15 protons, 16 neutrons and 18 electrons?

a)

3116S

b)

3116S3-

c)

3115P-

d)

3115P3-

51.

A certain sample of element X contains 40% of 30X and 60% of 32X. What is the relative atomic mass of element Z in this sample?

a)

30.8

b)

31.2

c)

31.4

d)

31.6

52.

What is the electron configuration of Chromium?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 4s2 3d4

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 4s1 3d10

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 4s2 3d9

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 3d5 4s1

53.

What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in N2?

a)

-3

b)

0

c)

+4

d)

-1

54.

What is the oxidation number of iodine in KIO3?

a)

0

b)

-1

c)

+5

d)

+1

55.

Which of the following statements about the periodic table is correct?

a)

Elements in the same period have similar chemical properties.

b)

Elements in the same group have the same number of electron shells.

c)

Elements in the same group have similar chemical properties.

d)

Elements in the same period have the same number of valence electrons.

56.

When an aqueous solution of sulfuric acid is added to an aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide the temperature increases. Which describes the reaction taking place?

a)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH +

b)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH −

c)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH +

d)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH −

57.

Which is an appropriate unit for the rate of a reaction?

a)

mol dm-3 s

b)

mol dm-3 s-1

c)

mol dm-3

d)

s

58.

What is the best definition of rate of reaction?

a)

The time it takes to use up all the reactants

b)

The rate at which all the reactants are used up

c)

The increase in concentration of a product per unit time

d)

The time it takes for one of the reactants to be used up

59.

Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

a)

HNO3 / NO3−

b)

H2SO4 / HSO4−

c)

NH3 / NH2−

d)

H3O+ / OH−

60.

What is the IUPAC name for C(CH3)3CH2CH3?

a)

2-methyl-2-ethylpropane

b)

hexane

c)

2,2-dimethylbutane

d)

2-methylpentane

61.

The reaction between bromine and ethene in the dark is an example of:

a)

free radical substitution

b)

esterification

c)

nucleophilic substitution

d)

addition

62.

Which compound is an ester?

a)

CH3COOH

b)

CH3OCH3

c)

C2H5CHO

d)

HCOOCH3

63.

Which of the following is an example of a CHEMICAL change?

a)

Shattering a window with a baseball

b)

Ripping paper into 1,000,000,000 tiny pieces

c)

Rusting an iron bar on a humid day

d)

Melting a block of copper metal

64.

Which of the following is an example of a PHYSICAL change?

a)

Neutralizing vinegar with baking soda

b)

Breaking your laptop with a rock due to school stress

c)

Creating a precipitate by mixing Lead Nitrate and Sodium Iodide

d)

Burning popcorn in the microwave

65.
Increasing the concentration of a reactant in a chemical reaction will _____________.
a)
decrease the rate of the reaction
b)
stop the reaction from happening
c)
increase the rate of the reaction
d)
have no effect on the rate of the reacion
66.
A ______________ is a substance that increases the rate of a reaction without being used up during the reaction. 
a)
catalyst
b)
product
c)
reactant
d)
solute
67.
Smaller particle size allows for a _________ surface area to be exposed for the reaction.
a)
larger
b)
smaller
68.

Which is the correct word equation for photosynthesis?

a)

water + glucose + oxygen ---> energy + carbon dioxide

b)

energy + oxygen + carbon dioxide ---> water + glucose

c)

water + carbon dioxide + energy ---> glucose + oxygen

d)

glucose + oxygen ---> water + carbon dioxide + energy

69.

In an experiment, a student adds a piece of magnesium ribbon to a solution of hydrochloric acid. Which gas is produced during the reaction?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Chlorine

d)

Carbon dioxide

70.

Values of a rate constant, k, and absolute temperature, T, can be used to determine the activation energy of a reaction by a graphical method. Which graph produces a straight line?

a)

k versus T

b)

k versus 1/T

c)

ln k versus T

d)

ln k versus 1/T

71.

Which curve is produced by the titration of a 0.1 mol dm−3 weak base with 0.1 mol dm−3 strong acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

The equation for the complete combustion of methylpropane is


2CH3CH(CH3)CH3(g) + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(l)


What amount, in mol, of carbon dioxide will be formed when three moles of methylpropane (CH3CH(CH3)CH3) are combusted completely?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16

73.

Which factors explain why a real gas does not behave like an ideal gas at low temperatures and high pressure?


I. The volume occupied by the gaseous molecules is not negligible compared to the volume of the gas.


II. The attractive forces between the molecules affect the pressure exerted by the gas.


III. The kinetic energy of a real gas is different to the kinetic energy of an ideal gas at the same temperature.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, and III

74.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
75.
For an electron to change from ground state to an excited stated it must...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
76.

What errors occur in time measurements by a clock that runs too fast or slow?

a)

Systematic errors

b)

Random errors

c)

Both systematic and random errors

d)

Neither systematic nor random errors

77.

Students worked in teams to measure the length of an object. The actual length of the object was 7.0 cm.. Select the best choice that represents their data in terms of accuracy and precision

GROUP RESULTS

5.00 cm

5.01 cm

5.02cm

4.99 cm

5.00 cm

4.99 cm

a)

both accurate and precise

b)

only accurate

c)

only precise

d)

not accurate and not precise

78.

The measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance is called

a)

temperature

b)

heat

c)

thermal energy

d)

kinetic theory

79.

The atom of an element Q has an atomic number of 27 and a mass number of 60. Which of the following statements is true about the subatomic particles of the atom of element Q?

  • I. Atom of element Q has 27 electrons and 60 protons

  • II. Atom of element Q has 27 protons and 27 electrons

  • III. Atom of element Q has 27 electrons and 60 neutrons

  • IV. Atom of element Q has 27 protons and 33 neutrons

a)

I and IV only

b)

II and IV only

c)

II and III only

d)

I and III only

80.

The isotopes of carbon 12C and 13C:

  • I. have the same atomic number

  • II. have the same physical properties

  • III. have the same chemical properties

a)

I and III only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, and III

81.

Which of the following species contain equal numbers of neutrons in their nuclei?

a)

cobalt-58 and nickel-58

b)

cobalt-58 and nickel-59

c)

cobalt-59 and nickel-58

d)

cobalt-58 and cobalt-59

82.
If a substance has a higher number of electrons than protons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A positive charge.
b)
A negative charge.
c)
A neutral charge
d)
No charge at all
83.

Which statements about the chlorine free radical are correct?


I. It has 18 electrons.

II. It is an uncharged species.

III. It is formed by homolytic fission.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

84.

Applying IUPAC rules, what is the name of CH3CH(CH3)CH2COOH?

a)

2,3-dimethylpropanoic acid

b)

Pentanoic acid

c)

3-methylbutanoic acid

d)

2-methylbutanoic acid

85.

Which of the following is the correct balanced equation for the reaction of sodium metal and water?

a)

2Na + H2O --> Na2O + H2

b)

2Na + 2H2O --> 2NaOH + H2

c)

Na + H2O --> NaOH + H2

d)

Na + H2O --> Na2O + H2

86.

Which of the following would make a real gas least like an ideal gas?

a)

Low Pressure

b)

High Temperature

c)

Strong Intermolecular Forces

d)

Infinitely large container

87.

Assuming that all volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure and the reaction goes to completion what volume of ammonia, in cm3, can be prepared by reacting 20 cm3 of nitrogen gas with 30 cm3 of hydrogen gas?


N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

88.
Under the collision theory, the particles must collide with  ____ and ____ for a reaction to occur.
a)
sufficient rate and sufficient energy
b)
sufficient surface area and correct orientation
c)
sufficient catalyst and sufficient energy
d)
sufficent energy and correct orientation
89.
Name the compound
a)
2, 4 methyl-3-ethylpentane
b)
3 ethyl-2,4-methylpentane
c)
3 ethyl-2,4-dimethylpentane
d)
pentane
90.

A substance has the following properties:

Melting Point = 1414°C

Electrical Conductivity when Molten = None

Electrical Conductivity when Solid = None

a)

Network covalent

b)

Polar covalent compound

c)

Ionic compound

d)

Metallic substance

91.

Which formula is correct?

a)

NH4PO4

b)

(NH4)2PO4

c)

(NH4)3PO4

d)

(NH4)3(PO4)2

92.

Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?

a)

MgO

b)

CH2Cl2

c)

CH3COOH

d)

NaOH

93.

Which substance is most likely to be ionic?

a)

Melting Point: High
Solubility in Hexane: Low
Electrical Conductivity of Solid: High

b)

Melting Point: Low
Solubility in Hexane: Low
​​​​​​​Electrical Conductivity of Solid: Low

c)

Melting Point: Low
Solubility in Hexane: High
Electrical Conductivity of Solid: Low

d)

Melting Point: High
Solubility in Hexane: Low
Electrical Conductivity of Solid: Low

94.

In which molecule does the central atom have an incomplete octet of electrons?

a)

H2Se

b)

PH3

c)

OF2

d)

BF3

95.

What is the formula of copper(I) sulfide?

a)

CuS

b)

Cu2S

c)

CuSO4

d)

Cu2SO4

96.

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium and nitrogen?

a)

CaN

b)

Ca2N

c)

Ca2N3

d)

Ca3N2

97.

Element X is in group 2, and element Y is in group 7, of the periodic table. Which ions will be present in the compound formed when X and Y react together?

a)

X+ and Y-

b)

X2+ and Y-

c)

X+ and Y2-

d)

X2- and Y+

98.

Which of the following increase(s) for the bonding between carbon atoms in the sequence of molecules C2H6, C2H4, and C2H2?

I. Number of bonds II. Length of bonds III. Strength of bonding

a)

I only

b)

I and III only

c)

III only

d)

I, II, and III

99.

According to VSEPR theory, repulsion between electron pairs in a valence shell decreases in the order

a)

lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair

b)

bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-bond pair > lone pair-lone pair

c)

lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond pair > bond pair-lone pair

d)

bond pair-bond pair > lone pair-lone pair > lone pair-bond pair

100.

Which molecule is linear?

a)

SO2

b)

CO2

c)

H2S

d)

Cl2O

101.

Why is the boiling point of PH3 lower than that of NH3?

a)

PH3 is non-polar whereas NH3 is polar

b)

PH3 is not hydrogen bonded whereas NH3 is hydrogen bonded

c)

Van der Waals' forces are weaker in PH3 than in NH3

d)

The molar mass of PH3 is greater than that of NH3

102.

Ionisation energy is ___________.

a)

maximum energy required to remove 1 electron from 1 mol of gaseous atom

b)

minimum energy required to remove 1 electron from 1 mol of gaseous atom

c)

first ionisation energy

d)

second ionisation energy

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