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Core Training Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does core training primarily target?

a)

Arms

b)

Legs

c)

Core muscles

d)

Neck

2.

Which of the following is a benefit of core training?

a)

Increased hair growth

b)

Improved stability

c)

Better eyesight

d)

Faster typing

3.

What does PAR-Q+ assess?

a)

Diet habits

b)

Sleep patterns

c)

Readiness for physical activity

d)

Academic performance

4.

Which exercise strengthens the lower back and improves balance?

a)

Bird Dog

b)

Jumping Jacks

c)

Sit-ups

d)

Arm Circles

5.

What does FMS stand for?

a)

Functional Movement Screening

b)

Fitness Monitoring System

c)

Fast Muscle Stretch

d)

Full Motion Sequence

6.

Which of the following is a non-locomotor movement?

a)

Running

b)

Jumping

c)

Twisting

d)

Walking

7.

What is the main goal of the Side Plank exercise?

a)

Speed

b)

Flexibility

c)

Core control

d)

Endurance

8.

Which muscle group helps maintain posture?

a)

Core

b)

Calves

c)

Biceps

d)

Forearms

9.

What is the focus of Hip Circles?

a)

Strength

b)

Speed

c)

Flexibility

d)

Endurance

10.

The Dead Bug Series is designed to improve:

a)

Arm strength

b)

Core control

c)

Leg speed

d)

Neck mobility

11.

How does core training help prevent injuries?

a)

By increasing muscle mass

b)

By improving body mechanics

c)

By reducing sleep

d)

By enhancing eyesight

12.

Why is posture important in physical activities?

a)

It makes you taller

b)

It reduces joint strain

c)

It improves digestion

d)

It increases appetite

13.

What is recorded in the FMS sheet?

a)

Calories burned

b)

Movement scores and observations

c)

Sleep hours

d)

Water intake

14.

What does the Spiderman Stretch improve?

a)

Speed

b)

Flexibility

c)

Strength

d)

Endurance

15.

What does bracing the core help with?

a)

Breathing

b)

Stability

c)

Sweating

d)

Hydration

16.

Which movement is part of the Squat Series?

a)

Side Plank

b)

Reverse Split Squat

c)

Bird Dog

d)

Dead Bug

17.

What does the Downward Dog improve?

a)

Core strength

b)

Mobility

c)

Speed

d)

Reaction time

18.

What does the Quadruped T-Spine Rotation target?

a)

Legs

b)

Spine mobility

c)

Arms

d)

Feet

19.

Why assess movement patterns?

a)

To increase weight

b)

To identify weaknesses

c)

To improve sleep

d)

To reduce hunger

20.

How does core strength affect daily activities?

a)

It makes you run faster

b)

It improves balance and posture

c)

It increases appetite

d)

It reduces stress

21.

What is the difference between stabilization and mobility exercises?

a)

Stabilization focuses on movement, mobility on stillness

b)

Stabilization improves control, mobility enhances range

c)

Both are the same

d)

Mobility is for arms only

22.

How do FMS results influence routine creation?

a)

They determine sleep schedules

b)

They guide movement selection

c)

They suggest diet plans

d)

They track hydration

23.

What makes Reverse Split Squat different from Lateral Split Squat?

a)

Direction of movement

b)

Speed

c)

Arm involvement

d)

Breathing technique

24.

What is a risk of poor posture due to weak core muscles?

a)

Better digestion

b)

Increased injury risk

c)

Improved flexibility

d)

Faster running

25.

How does the Press Up contribute to core training?

a)

Builds leg strength

b)

Enhances core control

c)

Improves eyesight

d)

Increases appetite

26.

Why is coordination important in core training?

a)

It helps with dancing

b)

It improves movement efficiency

c)

It reduces sweating

d)

It increases height

27.

What does the Pigeon Stretch improve?

a)

Arm strength

b)

Hip flexibility

c)

Neck mobility

d)

Leg speed

28.

Why combine mobility and stability in routines?

a)

To confuse the body

b)

To improve overall function

c)

To reduce muscle mass

d)

To increase sweating

29.

What does the Standing Hip Circle enhance?

a)

Speed

b)

Flexibility

c)

Strength

d)

Endurance

30.

What does 'movement efficiency' mean?

a)

Moving faster

b)

Moving with control and coordination

c)

Moving randomly

d)

Moving with pain

31.

Which combination creates a balanced core routine?

a)

Side Plank, Bird Dog, Squat Series

b)

Jumping Jacks, Sit-ups, Arm Circles

c)

Running, Walking, Sprinting

d)

Push-ups, Pull-ups, Chin-ups

32.

Why is FMS effective in injury prevention?

a)

It tracks calories

b)

It identifies movement limitations

c)

It improves eyesight

d)

It increases appetite

33.

What routine suits someone with limited hip mobility?

a)

Pigeon Stretch, Hip Circles, Spiderman Stretch

b)

Jumping Jacks, Running, Sprinting

c)

Push-ups, Sit-ups, Pull-ups

d)

Arm Circles, Neck Rolls, Wrist Twists

34.

How does core training affect athletic performance?

a)

Improves coordination and stability

b)

Increases appetite

c)

Reduces sleep

d)

Enhances vision

35.

What should be included in a core strength checklist?

a)

Movement scores, posture, flexibility

b)

Food intake, sleep hours, hydration

c)

Weight, height, age

d)

Hair length, skin tone, eye color

36.

How can the Dead Bug Series be modified for beginners?

a)

Reduce reps and add support

b)

Increase speed

c)

Add weights

d)

Remove breathing

37.

What is a benefit of non-locomotor movements in core training?

a)

Improved control and stability

b)

Increased running speed

c)

Better digestion

d)

Enhanced vision

38.

What is a good warm-up using mobility exercises?

a)

Hip Circles, T-Spine Rotation, Pigeon Stretch

b)

Sit-ups, Push-ups, Pull-ups

c)

Running, Sprinting, Jumping

d)

Arm Circles, Neck Rolls, Wrist Twists

39.

How does core training affect balance?

a)

Improves stability and coordination

b)

Reduces sweating

c)

Increases appetite

d)

Enhances vision

40.

Why include posture-focused exercises in daily routines?

a)

To reduce strain and improve alignment

b)

To increase appetite

c)

To improve eyesight

d)

To reduce sleep